Deck 14: Personality Disorders

Question 1

In psychology, an enduring pattern of perceiving, relating to, and thinking about the environment and others is referred to as a(n)

A) characteristic.
B) personality trait.
C) idiosyncrasy.
D) habit.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Ingrained patterns of relating to other people, situations, and events with a rigid and maladaptive pattern of inner experience and behavior, dating back to adolescence or early adulthood are characteristics of

A) dispositional disorders.
B) cognitive deficits.
C) personality disorders.
D) character flaws.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Personality disorders usually become evident

A) only when a person is under stress.
B) only around family and friends.
C) only when there is a mid-life crisis.
D) as early as adolescence.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Which of the following indicates a major flaw in the categorical rating system for personality disorder?

A) The distinctions are too broad and generalized.
B) It allows for the possibility of a client's "somewhat" antisocial or narcissistic behavior.
C) There is a lack of details and distinctions in the ratings.
D) There are too many fine distinctions that the diagnoses require.

Question 5

Which of the following is true about categorical diagnostic system?

A) In the process of revising the DSM-IV-TR, the personality disorders panels developed a number of alternative models to get away from the categorical diagnostic system.
B) There are no alternative models to get away from the categorical diagnostic system.
C) There are very few fine distinctions that the diagnoses require.
D) A major flaw with the categorical rating system is that it allows for the possibility of a client's "somewhat" antisocial or narcissistic behavior.

Question 6

Which of the following is the one of the most significant factors in determining personality disorders?

A) A person has experienced some kind of personal distress because of the behavior pattern and the problem has persisted for more than a month.
B) A person has been convicted of a crime related to the behavior.
C) A person has significant impairment in cognition, affectivity, interpersonal functioning, or impulse control
D) A person has serious difficulty holding down a job.

Question 7

Jason, a final year graduate student from Cornell University, is always suspicious about his girlfriend Joule. He is always anxious and believes that separation after college will spoil their relationship forever. He is always depressed and hostile. Which of the following personality domains in the DSM-5 is Jason depicting?

A) Disinhibition
B) Antagonism
C) Detachment
D) Negative affectivity

Question 8

Devlin is reclusive and does not derive pleasure from any kind of social activity. She rarely attends any social gathering and keeps to herself. Which of the following personality domains in the DSM-5 is Devlin depicting?

A) Disinhibition
B) Antagonism
C) Detachment
D) Negative affectivity

Question 9

Nicole, a junior high student, is always busy, plotting against Amanda, the most popular girl in class. Nicole is callous and hostile and constantly seeks attention to herself. Which of the following personality domains in the DSM-5 is Nicole depicting?

A) Disinhibition
B) Antagonism
C) Detachment
D) Negative affectivity

Question 10

Which of the following term involves engaging in behaviors with high impulsivity, irresponsibility, and risk-taking?

A) Disinhibition
B) Antagonism
C) Detachment
D) Negative affectivity

Question 11

Compulsivity is the opposite pole of the _____ domain.

A) negative affectivity
B) antagonism
C) detachment
D) disinhibition

Question 12

Anaida suddenly starts dressing and behaving like the cannibalistic witch from the fairy tale "Hansel and Gretel." Her thought content is viewed by others as bizarre and idiosyncratic. Which of the following personality domains in the DSM-5 is Anaida depicting?

A) Disinhibition
B) Antagonism
C) Psychoticism
D) Negative affectivity

Question 13

Livia's hair is usually unkempt and she wears clothes that date back to the 1960s. Her ways of thinking and dealing with other people are rather eccentric-she has the idea that she can communicate telepathically with her brother who lives on the west coast. Livia will most likely be diagnosed as having _____ personality disorder.

A) avoidant
B) antisocial
C) schizoid
D) schizotypal

Question 14

The social isolation, eccentricity, peculiar communication, and poor social adaptation that come with _____ personality disorder place it within the schizophrenic spectrum.

A) avoidant
B) antisocial
C) schizoid
D) schizotypal

Question 15

A client who is always on guard against potential danger or harm might be diagnosed as having a(n) _____ personality disorder.

A) schizoid
B) obsessive-compulsive
C) paranoid
D) antisocial

Question 16

Individuals with paranoid personality disorder

A) use the defense mechanism of reaction formation.
B) suffer from imbalances in serotonin.
C) project their own mistakes and problems to other people.
D) have a difficult time reaching the level of self-actualization.

Question 17

People with paranoid personality disorder tend to

A) become overly dependent on others.
B) engage in criminal acts.
C) be impulsive.
D) be highly suspicious of others.

Question 18

Individuals with paranoid personality disorder rarely seek help, and when they do seek treatment, communication is difficult because of their

A) rigidity and defensiveness.
B) lack of remorse.
C) unstable approach to relationships.
D) shy, withdrawn, and unassertive nature.

Question 19

Which personality disorder is primarily characterized by an indifference to social relationships as well as a very limited range of emotions?

A) Avoidant personality disorder
B) Schizotypal personality disorder
C) Schizoid personality disorder
D) Antisocial personality disorder

Question 20

Lamont is an interstate truck driver. Many people consider him a loner. Lamont is indifferent to the idea of marriage, shows no emotions, and does not seem to desire social contact. If we assume Lamont's problem is long-standing, which of the following diagnoses would be most appropriate?

A) Schizoid personality disorder
B) Schizotypal personality disorder
C) Avoidant personality disorder
D) Antisocial personality disorder

Question 21

The term "psychopath" has been considered synonymous with _____ personality disorder for quite some time.

A) borderline
B) obsessive-compulsive
C) antisocial
D) narcissistic

Question 22

"_____" is the term used by Cleckley to refer to a psychopath's inability to react appropriately to expressions of emotionality.

A) Impulsivity
B) Semantic dementia
C) Splitting
D) Egocentricity

Question 23

Hervey Cleckley's notion of psychopathy remains a key concept in descriptions of _____ personality disorder.

A) borderline
B) histrionic
C) antisocial
D) avoidant

Question 24

Which of the following is a factor for the Psychopathy Checklist-Revised (PCL-R) developed by Robert

A) Avoidance of social interactions
B) A lowly sense of self-worth
C) A compulsive need to steal
D) An antisocial lifestyle

Question 25

Which of the following indicates core personality traits for antisocial disorder in Psychopathy Checklist-Revised (PCL-R)?

A) Feelings of remorse or guilt
B) A lowly sense of self-worth
C) A compulsive need to steal
D) Glibness and superficial charm

Question 26

Which personality disorder involves peculiarities in thought, behavior, appearance, and style of relating to others?

A) Avoidant personality disorder
B) Schizotypal personality disorder
C) Schizoid personality disorder
D) Antisocial personality disorder

Question 27

The DSM-5 defines people who receive the diagnosis of _____ personality disorder as highly impulsive and lacking in the capacity for regret over their actions.

A) antisocial
B) borderline
C) narcissistic
D) passive-aggressive

Question 28

Which personality disorder is characterized by a lack of regard for society's moral and legal standards?

A) Antisocial
B) Borderline
C) Narcissistic
D) Passive-aggressive

Question 29

Which of the following is a definitive characteristic of antisocial personality disorder?

A) Lack of concern for the pain caused to others
B) Extreme shyness and social discomfort
C) Compulsive stealing
D) An outgoing character

Question 30

The phenomenon of the "psychopath in the _____" describes corporate executives who ruthlessly exploit investors and employees alike, seeking their own gain at the expense of the bank accounts and livelihood of their victims.

A) court
B) conference
C) bank
D) boardroom

Question 31

Vic has demonstrated a long-standing pattern of disreputable and manipulative behaviors. He has a drug abuse problem and has a long criminal record for a variety of crimes. What is worse, he shows no remorse for some of the harsh things he has done. Vic would most likely be diagnosed as having _____ personality disorder.

A) borderline
B) histrionic
C) antisocial
D) avoidant

Question 32

Uriah is 50 years old and has been in prison for 20 years for a variety of crimes linked to his antisocial personality. Which of the following statements would he most want to have presented at his parole hearing?

A) He is lacking the extra Y chromosome thought to be linked to antisocial personality disorder.
B) His testosterone levels are below normal.
C) Antisocial personality traits tend to decrease in midlife.
D) He did not endure any sexual or physical abuse as a child.

Question 33

The diagnosis of antisocial behavior used today had its origins in the work of

A) William Tuke
B) Phillipe Pinel
C) Hervey Cleckley
D) Sigmund Freud

Question 34

The following cluster of traits that includes lack of remorse or shame for harmful acts committed to others; lack of emotional responsiveness to others; impulsivity; absence of "nervousness"; and unreliability, untruthfulness, and insincerity, indicates

A) detachment.
B) psychopathy.
C) splitting.
D) egocentricity.

Question 35

Which of the following lifestyle traits revolves around impulsivity, juvenile delinquency, early behavioral problems, lack of realistic long-term goals, and a need for constant stimulation?

A) Borderline trait
B) Antisocial trait
C) Histrionic trait
D) Avoidant trait

Question 36

The symptoms of antisocial personality disorder include

A) avoidance of social interactions.
B) passive resistance to the demands of others.
C) a compulsive need to steal.
D) impulsive and aggressive behavior.

Question 37

Talia has never had any previous problems with the law but at the age of 27, she started engaging in constant stealing and cheating people out of their money. Talia would most likely be diagnosed as

A) having antisocial personality disorder.
B) engaging in antisocial behavior.
C) having conduct disorder.
D) having borderline personality disorder.

Question 38

Stealing, lying, and cheating are examples of

A) antisocial personality disorder.
B) histrionic personality disorder.
C) antisocial behaviors.
D) avoidant behaviors.

Question 39

Which of the following is true about antisocial personality disorder?

A) There is no difference between an antisocial personality disorder and antisocial behavior.
B) Antisocial personality disorder typically emerges only in adulthood, both in terms of the development of psychopathic traits and rates of breaking the law.
C) Not all individuals with antisocial personality disorder engage in explicitly criminal behavior, but instead their disorder may manifest itself in behaviors such as job problems, promiscuity, and aggressiveness.
D) Antisocial behavior and criminal behavior are considered one and the same.

Question 40

Which of the following statement about antisocial personality disorder is correct?

A) The components of psychopathy involving impulsivity, social deviance, and antisocial behavior are less prominent in prison inmates who are in their mid-40s and older.
B) Antisocial personality disorder typically emerges only in adulthood, both in terms of the development of psychopathic traits and rates of breaking the law.
C) There is no difference between antisocial personality disorder and antisocial behavior.
D) Over the course of their adult years, people with antisocial personality disorder seem to become more likely to commit criminal acts.

Question 41

Statistics show that impulsivity, acting out, and other extreme behaviors of people with antisocial personality disorder decrease as these individuals age. This finding supports what is known as the

A) remorse reaction.
B) maturation hypothesis.
C) revelation reaction.
D) reactivity hypothesis.

Question 42

Which of the following terms suggest that older individuals are better able to manage their high-risk tendencies?

A) Primary process thinking
B) Self-discipline
C) Impulse control
D) Maturation hypothesis

Question 43

Bernard was a very aggressive and impulsive teenager. He was always involved in neighborhood brawl As he aged, his antisocial behavior declined and he was more patient with people around him. Which of the following explains this behavior?

A) Primary process thinking
B) Maturation hypothesis
C) Remorse reaction.
D) Reactivity hypothesis.

Question 44

According to the maturation hypothesis, in ________ personality disorder aging is likely to bring about a reduction in troublesome behavior patterns.

A) dependent
B) narcissistic
C) antisocial
D) homicidal

Question 45

In a recent study, poor nutrition at age three was associated with a higher likelihood of _____ disorder at age 17.

A) obsessive compulsive personality
B) borderline personality
C) conduct
D) avoidant personality

Question 46

Studies on family inheritance of antisocial personality disorder have demonstrated

A) that antisocial behavior in childhood is not accounted for by genetic factors.
B) that sons are more likely to receive the extra Y chromosome from their mothers than from their fathers.
C) strong evidence in favor of genetic explanations of antisocial personality disorder.
D) through evidence that there is no set pattern that might indicate a genetic component.

Question 47

Which of the following statement is true regarding theories of antisocial personality disorder?

A) The personality trait of psychopathy and antisocial behavior with heritability estimates are as low as 14 percent.
B) Neuroimaging studies also suggest that people high in psychopathy have deficits in occipital lobe functioning, meaning that they are able to inhibit input from the subcortical areas of the brain that are involved in aggression.
C) Family inheritance studies provide strong evidence against genetic explanations of antisocial personality disorder
D) Malnutrition in early life may serve as another risk factor for the development of antisocial personality disorder.

Question 48

Closely related to the biological perspective is the hypothesis that neuropsychological deficits in learning and attention have been thought to contribute to _____ personality disorder.

A) avoidant
B) passive-aggressive
C) narcissistic
D) antisocial

Question 49

Which of the following indicates that individuals do not learn from their negative experiences?

A) Primary process thinking
B) Lack of emotional reactivity
C) Deficit of classical conditioning passive avoidance
D) Maturation hypothesis

Question 50

What is meant by deficit of classical conditioning passive avoidance?

A) It means rigidly compulsive personality tendency and also obsessive concern with perfectionism.
B) It means that an individual fails to learn from previous negative experiences.
C) It means that an individual's preoccupation with feelings of love for the object of his/her desire and attention can readily turn to extreme rage and hatred when they are rejected by that love object.
D) It means that a certain amount of paranoid thinking and behavior might be appropriate in some situations.

Question 51

The _____ hypothesis attempts to explain the failure of individuals high in psychopathy to learn from negative experience and to process emotional information.

A) response modulation
B) impulse control
C) maturation
D) semantic dementia

Question 52

According to _____ hypothesis, people have a dominant and nondominant focus of their attention in any given situation.

A) semantic dementia
B) impulse control
C) maturation
D) response modulation

Question 53

The notion that psychopathic individuals are unable to process any information that is not relevant to their primary goals is central to the _____ hypothesis.

A) response modulation
B) anxiety
C) anxiety reduction
D) stimulation baseline

Question 54

According to the response modulation hypothesis,

A) avoidant personality disorder is a more severe form of social phobia.
B) people rarely have a nondominant focus of their attention in any given situation.
C) individuals high on the trait of psychopathy are unable to pay enough attention to secondary cues to switch their attention when necessary.
D) the dysfunctional attitudes of individuals hold center on the core belief that they are flawed and unworthy of other people's regard.

Question 55

In the past, the term borderline was used to describe patients who were functioning on the "border" of _____ and _____.

A) neurosis; depression
B) narcissism; neurosis
C) neurosis; psychosis
D) depression; mania

Question 56

The term "borderline personality" was originally coined to describe patients who

A) were on the borderline between normal and abnormal behavior.
B) did not fit into either the neurotic or psychotic category.
C) constantly pushed the borders and limits of acceptable moral behavior.
D) were disliked by most people in their communities.

Question 57

Which of the following is NOT a trait that is associated with people suffering from borderline personality disorder?

A) Self-destructive behaviors
B) Obsessive thinking
C) Fear of abandonment
D) Schizoid personality disorder

Question 58

Lori becomes angry and hostile when her boyfriend chooses to spend a night out with his friends. She views him as "bad" and tries to manipulate him in order to make him stay home. Occasionally, when this occurs he threatens to break off the relationship, but Lori will do almost anything to keep him. She has on occasion threatened to commit suicide. Lori's behavior pattern is characteristic of _____ personality disorder.

A) borderline
B) schizoid
C) antisocial
D) paranoid

Question 59

The tendency to behave impulsively in areas such as sexuality, spending, or reckless driving is characteristic of _____ personality disorder.

A) paranoid
B) obsessive-compulsive
C) antisocial
D) borderline

Question 60

Risky activities like speeding and bungee-jumping that may be undertaken by psychopaths may be a manifestation of their

A) grandiose self-worth.
B) superficial charm.
C) lack of remorse.
D) impulsivity.

Question 61

The formation of intense and demanding relationships with others is characteristic of _____ personality disorder.

A) antisocial
B) schizoid
C) avoidant
D) borderline

Question 62

A disturbed childhood family environment that involves abuse or neglect may contribute to the development of _____ personality disorder.

A) passive-aggressive
B) borderline
C) obsessive-compulsive
D) antagonistic

Question 63

The tendency for an individual to perceive people, others or one's self, as either all good or all bad is referred to as

A) dichotomizing.
B) splitting.
C) dualism.
D) aggrandizing.

Question 64

Which of the following is a symptom of borderline personality disorder?

A) Splitting
B) Delusions
C) Hallucinations
D) Lack of remorse

Question 65

An attempt to take one's life that is often a call for attention is called

A) splitting.
B) parasuicide.
C) narcissistic suicide.
D) deindividuation.

Question 66

When asked why she tried to kill herself, Calista responded, "These past few days I haven't really been sure about myself. I wasn't really sure I was alive. It was a test." Calista's intent would be best described as

A) splitting.
B) parasuicidal.
C) dichotomizing.
D) hysterical.

Question 67

Which part of the brain plays a role in aversive conditioning and is involved in processing emotion?

A) Amygdala
B) Thalamus
C) Cerebellum
D) Pons

Question 68

Gillian has been diagnosed as having borderline personality disorder. When her therapist arrived late for an appointment, she flew into a rage at the office, claiming that he must hate her and that she wants to stop seeing him. What might be the best strategy to deal with this situation?

A) Because people with borderline personality disorder need discipline, the therapist should yell back at her and tell her how wrong she is to think this way.
B) The therapist should let her leave because she is attempting to manipulate him.
C) The therapist should ignore Gillian's outburst and the things she is saying until she calms down.
D) The therapist should explain to her in a gentle but firm manner that his tardiness is not due to anything about her.

Question 69

The emotional disturbances seen in people with borderline personality disorder are characterized by

A) emotional dysregulation.
B) antisocial behavior.
C) goal-directed behavior.
D) avoidance of interpersonal relationships.

Question 70

Which of the following is NOT a component of emotional dysregulation?

A) The inability to control the intensity or duration of emotions
B) An unwillingness to experience emotional distress as an aspect of pursuing goals
C) Interpersonal instability and impaired relationships
D) The inability to engage in goal-directed behaviors when experiencing distress

Question 71

Andrew's inability to engage in goal-directed behaviors when experiencing distress has led to several problems for him at work. His lack of awareness, understanding, or acceptance of emotions has led to people disliking him. Which of the following term explains Andrew's inability to regulate emotions?

A) Affective catharsis
B) Dialectical numbness
C) Metacognitive exhaustion
D) Emotional dysregulation

Question 72

Treatment approach for people with borderline personality disorder that integrates supportive and cognitive-behavioral treatments to reduce the frequency of self-destructive acts and to improve the client's ability to handle disturbing emotions, such as anger and dependency is known as

A) rational-emotive therapy.
B) dialectical behavior therapy.
C) psychoanalysis.
D) person-centered therapy.

Question 73

Dr. Laskey is currently treating a client with borderline personality disorder. She is attempting to reframe her client's dysfunctional impulsive behaviors in order to identify their origins. She is also helping the client find new ways to analyze problems and to develop healthier solutions. Dr. Laskey is using a therapy known as

A) rational-emotive therapy.
B) dialectical behavior therapy.
C) psychoanalysis.
D) person-centered therapy.

Question 74

Supportive therapeutic approaches to the treatment of borderline personality disorder emphasize

A) that the therapist take a primary role in treatment and involve the client in the therapeutic process.
B) aggressive and confrontational shouting matches between the client and the therapist.
C) the development of a highly dependent relationship between client and therapist.
D) the sharing of highly personal information between the client and the therapist.

Question 75

Using a process called _____, DBT clinicians teach their clients to balance their emotions, reason, and intuition as they approach life's problems.

A) rational-emotive therapy
B) core mindfulness
C) psychoanalysis
D) person-centered therapy

Question 76

Campbell has been diagnosed with a personality disorder and his clinician suggests a transference-focused psychotherapy that uses the client-clinician relationships as the framework for helping clients achieve greater understanding of their unconscious feelings and motives. Using a process called core mindfulness, his clinician teaches Campbell to balance his emotions, reason, and intuition as he approach life's problems. It is most likely that Campbell would be diagnosed as having _____ personality disorder.

A) avoidant
B) dependent
C) schizoid
D) borderline

Question 77

Which personality disorder is characterized by an unrealistic, inflated sense of self-importance and an sensitivity toward the needs of other people?

A) Borderline personality disorder
B) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
C) Passive-aggressive personality disorder
D) Narcissistic personality disorder

Question 78

Calum often boasts about how talented a teacher he is and he continually notes that the reason he never gets promoted is because no one fully appreciates him. He resents other teachers who have been promoted before him and claims that they are self-promoting. He demands that other people fulfill his wishes but is insensitive when it comes to other people's feelings. Calum would most likely be diagnosed as having _____ personality disorder.

A) borderline
B) passive-aggressive
C) narcissistic
D) obsessive-compulsive

Question 79

According to psychoanalytic theories, the narcissist's inflated self-image is a result of

A) a paradoxical attempt to overcome insecurity.
B) the effects of negative reinforcement.
C) an increase in dopamine levels.
D) applications of conditions of worth.

Question 80

The personality disorder in which the primary symptom is constant efforts by the individual to attract attention with exaggerated displays of emotion is called _____ personality disorder.

A) histrionic
B) borderline
C) antisocial
D) paranoid