Deck 11: Reproductive System

Question 1

Which male gland lies just beneath the bladder and surrounds the urethra?

A) Seminal.
B) Testicle.
C) Prostate.
D) Vas deferens.

Answer 1

Prostate.

Question 2

Radiographic evidence of gonorrhea is

A) periosteal reaction with dense sclerosis
B) septic arthritis with articular erosion and joint space narrowing
C) aortic calcification
D) none of these. Gonorrhea does not present on radiographs.

Answer 2

septic arthritis with articular erosion and joint space narrowing

Question 3

What is the function of the seminal vesicles?

A) Produce sperm.
B) Store sperm until ejaculation.
C) Secrete a thin, alkaline liquid essential to sperm motility.
D) Secrete a thick, fructose-rich liquid, which is a sperm energy source.

Answer 3

Secrete a thick, fructose-rich liquid, which is a sperm energy source.

Question 4

What is (are)the function(s)of the prostate gland?

A) Secrete a thin, alkaline fluid essential to sperm motility.
B) Secrete a thick, fructose-rich liquid, which serves as an energy source for sperm.
C) Store sperm until ejaculation.
D) Secrete nutrients essential to sperm maturation and store immature sperm during maturation.

Question 5

Which of the following is a serious complication of gonorrhea in females?

A) Fibrous scarring of fallopian tubes.
B) Aortic calcification.
C) Osteomyelitis.
D) Urethral stricture.

Question 6

Sperm go through the final stage of maturation in the _____.

A) epididymis
B) prostate
C) vas deferens
D) seminal vesicles

Question 7

Which of the following are radiographic imaging procedures of the female reproductive system that are commonly used today?
(1)Mammography.
(2)Pelvimetry.
(3)Hysterosalpingography.

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Question 8

Which imaging modality has become the primary modality for imaging of both the male and female reproductive systems?

A) Computed tomography (CT).
B) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
C) Positron emission tomography (PET).
D) Ultrasound (US).

Question 9

The most common site of hematogenous metastasis of prostate cancer is

A) lung
B) brain
C) kidneys
D) bone

Question 10

Which stage of syphilis produces radiographic evidence of this disease?

A) Primary.
B) Secondary.
C) Tertiary.
D) Radiographic abnormalities of syphilis are evident in all stages.

Question 11

Refer to the image below obtained during an excretory urogram on a male patient.What condition is indicated in this image?

A) Testicular torsion.
B) Benign prostatic hyperplasia.
C) Epididymitis.
D) Testicular tumor.

Question 12

Which of the following body systems may be affected by the tertiary stage of syphilis?
(1)Skeletal.
(2)Cardiovascular.
(3)CNS.

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Question 13

Which imaging modality is the most effective screening technique for skeletal metastasis of prostate carcinoma?

A) Radiography.
B) Ultrasound.
C) Nuclear medicine.
D) CT.

Question 14

Common complications seen in infants with congenital syphilis include

A) dwarfism and blue sclera
B) increased incidence of pediatric cancers and bleeding disorders
C) gonadal agenesis and sterility
D) mental retardation and deafness

Question 15

Transrectal ultrasound is the preferred imaging modality for detection of

A) epididymitis
B) carcinoma of the prostate
C) undescended testis
D) testicular torsion

Question 16

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)can be demonstrated via

A) ultrasound (US) or CT
B) radiography or nuclear medicine (NM)
C) NM or single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)
D) none of these. PID cannot be demonstrated on images.

Question 17

Which stage of syphilis is incurable?

A) Primary.
B) Secondary.
C) Tertiary.
D) All stages of syphilis are incurable.

Question 18

Which of the following is characteristic of the secondary stage of syphilis?

A) Neuropathic joint disease.
B) Nonitching skin rash.
C) Chancre on the genitals.
D) Chronic osteomyelitis.

Question 19

A _____ is characteristic of the primary stage of syphilis.

A) chancre on the genitals
B) nonitching skin rash
C) cardiovascular calcification
D) neuropathic joint disease

Question 20

Which of the following is the second most common malignancy in men?

A) Seminoma.
B) Teratoma.
C) Orchioma.
D) Carcinoma of the prostate.

Question 21

Which imaging modality is used as a screening technique when a testis is not palpated in the scrotal sac?

A) MRI.
B) NM.
C) Radiography.
D) US.

Question 22

Which of the following develops after ovulation?

A) Graafian follicles.
B) Corpus luteum.
C) Corpus albicans.
D) Fetus.

Question 23

Estrogen is secreted by the

A) ovaries
B) pituitary gland
C) corpus luteum
D) thymus gland

Question 24

How does testicular torsion present on static NM images?

A) An area of decreased uptake (cold spot).
B) An area of increased uptake (hot spot).
C) An area of mixed uptake.
D) None of the above. Testicular torsion cannot be demonstrated on static NM scans.

Question 25

The twisting of the gonad on its pedicle is known as

A) vesiculation
B) gonadal distension
C) testicular torsion
D) cryptorchidism

Question 26

The corpus luteum secretes

A) estrogen
B) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C) luteinizing hormone (LH)
D) progesterone

Question 27

Which of the following imaging modalities may be used to diagnose testicular tumors?
(1)Radiography.
(2)MRI.
(3)US.

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Question 28

Which of the following are causes of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)in women?
(1)Venereal disease.
(2)Complication of intrauterine devices (IUDs).
(3)Multiple sexual partners.

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Question 29

The cyclic changes in the ovaries are controlled by a variety of substances secreted by the

A) ovaries
B) anterior pituitary gland
C) breasts
D) corpus luteum

Question 30

The proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle occurs

A) between the end of menses and ovulation
B) between ovulation and the onset of menses
C) at the onset of LH secretion and end of progesterone production
D) at the onset of ovulation until fertilization

Question 31

What is cryptorchidism?

A) The condition of an ectopic or undescended testis.
B) Inflammation of the seminal vesicles.
C) Agenesis of the prostate.
D) Malposition of the epididymis, vas deferens, and seminal vesicles.

Question 32

A condition of an undescended testis is known as

A) testicular torsion
B) cryptorchidism
C) hypogonadism
D) testicular anteversion

Question 33

What condition is associated with cryptorchidism?

A) Testicular torsion.
B) Epididymitis.
C) Hypogonadism.
D) Malignancy.

Question 34

What is the most common germ cell tumor in women?

A) Leiomyoma.
B) Dermoid cyst.
C) Seminoma.
D) Uterine fibroid.

Question 35

Which phase of the menstrual cycle occurs between the end of menses and ovulation?

A) Menstrual.
B) Proliferative.
C) Secretory.
D) Preovulatory.

Question 36

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

A) Fertilization that does not produce a viable fetus.
B) Another term for an embryo.
C) A pregnancy that spontaneously terminates in the first trimester.
D) A pregnancy that implants somewhere other than the uterus.

Question 37

The secretory phase of the menstrual cycle occurs

A) between the end of menses and ovulation
B) between ovulation and the onset of menses
C) at the onset of estrogen production until the end of progesterone production
D) at the onset of FSH until ovulation

Question 38

Fertilization normally occurs in the

A) ovaries
B) uterus
C) fallopian tubes
D) vagina

Question 39

Which phase of the menstrual cycle occurs between ovulation and the onset of menses?

A) Postovulatory.
B) Premenstrual.
C) Secretory.
D) Proliferative.

Question 40

The preferred imaging modality for demonstration of testicular torsion depends upon

A) time of symptom onset
B) age of patient
C) degree of swelling
D) all of the above

Question 41

Which term refers to a very small volume of amniotic fluid?

A) Polyhydramnios.
B) Oligohydramnios.
C) Choriohydramnios.
D) Anhydramnios.

Question 42

Refer to the image below.This magnified compression spot of a mammogram demonstrates the characteristic appearance of a

A) simple cyst
B) calcific adenoma
C) fibrocystic lesion
D) breast malignancy

Question 43

Which of the following most commonly occurs in postmenopausal women?

A) Uterine fibroid.
B) Leiomyoma.
C) Simple ovarian cyst.
D) Endometrial carcinoma.

Question 44

What is trophoblastic disease?

A) A disease that affects sterile females, usually secondary to endometriosis.
B) A spectrum of pregnancy-related disorders causing either benign or malignant neoplasms.
C) A disease that affects males and causes decreased sperm count.
D) A spectrum of disorders that affect males with low fertility or complete infertility.

Question 45

Which of the following are image characteristics of a malignancy in the breast?

A) Poorly defined mass with fine, radiating spicules.
B) Smooth, well-defined mass.
C) Large, tubular calcifications.
D) None of these. Breast malignancies do not produce definite image characteristics.

Question 46

Which of the following is used to diagnose cervical cancer?

A) Ultrasound.
B) NM.
C) PAP smear.
D) MRI.

Question 47

Fetal urinary tract disorders are often indicated by

A) choriohydramnios
B) hyperhydramnios
C) oligohydramnios
D) polyhydramnios

Question 48

On ultrasound (US)simple cysts in the breast demonstrate as

A) "snowstorm" appearance
B) hyperechoic areas with mixed signals surrounding lesion
C) well-defined hyperechoic area with surrounding anechoic shadow
D) anechoic center with thin echogenic capsule

Question 49

How does a ruptured silicone breast implant demonstrate on ultrasound (US)?

A) Anechoic center with a thin, well-defined echogenic capsule.
B) Snowstorm appearance.
C) Well-defined hyperechoic area with surrounding anechoic shadow.
D) None of these. US cannot demonstrate a ruptured silicone implant.

Question 50

Which of the following are US evidence of an ectopic pregnancy?
(1)Fluid in the cul-de-sac.
(2)Large,soft mass of placental tissue ("bunch of grapes").
(3)Enlarged uterus without a gestational sac.

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Question 51

What is gynecomastia?

A) Abnormal breast enlargement in males.
B) Inflammatory breast disease that occurs in both sexes.
C) Absence of normal breast tissue in females.
D) The growth and development of breast tissue in an abnormal location.

Question 52

Which is the most accurate US measurement of fetal age in later pregnancy (second and third trimesters)?

A) Fetal age cannot be determined via US measurement in the second or third trimesters.
B) Biparietal diameter (BPD).
C) Crown-to-rump length.
D) Fetal femoral length.

Question 53

Which imaging modality is best for demonstration of breast tissue surrounding breast implants?

A) US.
B) Mammography.
C) MRI.
D) PET.

Question 54

Which is the most accurate US measurement of fetal age in early pregnancy (<11 weeks)?

A) Biparietal diameter (BPD).
B) Fetal femoral length.
C) Crown-to-rump length.
D) Fetal age cannot be determined via US measurements before 12 weeks of gestation.

Question 55

A painful condition in which endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus is termed

A) endometriosis
B) endometrial carcinoma
C) leiomyoma
D) uterine fibroid

Question 56

Which ultrasound (US)fetal measurement is most accurate for determining fetal age between 12 to 16 weeks?

A) Biparietal diameter (BPD).
B) Fetal femoral length.
C) Crown-to-rump length.
D) Fetal age cannot be determined from any of these US measurements.

Question 57

An excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid is termed

A) polyhydramnios
B) hyperhydramnios
C) choriohydramnios
D) oligohydramnios

Question 58

Leiomyomas are

A) the most common benign germ cell tumors in women
B) the most common gynecologic malignancy
C) benign, smooth muscle tumors of the uterus
D) malignant, smooth muscle tumors of the uterus

Question 59

Which of the following is the most common malignancy in women ages 44 to 50?

A) Endometrial carcinoma.
B) Breast cancer.
C) Leiomyoma.
D) Seminoma.

Question 60

Fetal abnormalities of the central nervous system can often cause

A) oligohydramnios
B) hyperhydramnios
C) choriohydramnios
D) polyhydramnios

Question 61

Match the definition to each term.
Graafian follicle

A)A type of testicular tumor
B)A pus-filled,inflamed fallopian tube
C)A small cavity in the ovary in which the ovum matures before expulsion
D)A progesterone-secreting mass that develops after the mature ovum is expelled

Question 62

Hydatidiform mole is a malignancy of the pregnant uterus.

Question 63

Match the definition to each term.
Choriocarcinoma

A)The most common benign tumor of the breast
B)The most common type of germ cell tumor
C)A benign,smooth muscle tumor of the uterus
D)A malignancy following a faulty fertilization

Question 64

Testicular torsion demonstrates with increased uptake of the radionuclide on an NM scan.

Question 65

Match the definition to each term.
Leiomyoma

A)The most common benign tumor of the breast
B)The most common type of germ cell tumor
C)A benign,smooth muscle tumor of the uterus
D)A malignancy following a faulty fertilization

Question 66

Match the definition to each term.
Dermoid cyst (teratoma)

A)The most common benign tumor of the breast
B)The most common type of germ cell tumor
C)A benign,smooth muscle tumor of the uterus
D)A malignancy following a faulty fertilization

Question 67

The two primary categories of testicular tumors are seminomas and teratomas.

Question 68

Choriocarcinoma is the most common gynecologic malignancy.

Question 69

Uterine fibroids are also known as leiomyomas.

Question 70

Cryptorchidism is associated with increased risk of malignancy in the affected testis.

Question 71

What hormone is secreted by the testes?

A) Progesterone.
B) Testosterone.
C) Follicular stimulating hormone (FSH).
D) Spermatogone.

Question 72

Prostate cancer is the leading cause of cancer death in men.

Question 73

The tertiary stage of syphilis is incurable.

Question 74

What is a common cause of an inability to empty the urinary bladder in males?

A) Carcinoma of the prostate.
B) Bladder carcinoma.
C) Benign prostatic hyperplasia.
D) Epididymitis.

Question 75

Match the definition to each term.
Fibroadenoma

A)The most common benign tumor of the breast
B)The most common type of germ cell tumor
C)A benign,smooth muscle tumor of the uterus
D)A malignancy following a faulty fertilization

Question 76

A hydatidiform mole is a

A) malignant tumor of the pregnant uterus
B) malignant tumor of the ovary that arises during pregnancy as a result of increased HCG
C) benign tumor caused by an abnormal fertilization
D) benign tumor arising from an ectopic pregnancy

Question 77

Breast cancer is the leading cause of cancer death in women.

Question 78

What is a choriocarcinoma?

A) A malignant form of trophoblastic disease.
B) A malignant tumor of the ovary.
C) A malignant tumor of the fallopian tube.
D) A malignancy that occurs in a normally developing fetus, usually during the second trimester.

Question 79

The characteristic US presentation of a hydatidiform mole is a

A) large complex mass of central hemorrhage with necrosis
B) purely anechoic lesion with hyperechoic shadowing
C) large, soft tissue mass resembling a "bunch of grapes"
D) moderately echogenic lesion punctuated with tiny hyperechoic areas

Question 80

Biparietal diameter (BPD)is an accurate measure of fetal age in later pregnancy (more than 33 weeks).