Deck 1: Anesthesia

Question 1

The anesthetic process can be divided into several steps. Which of the following demonstrates the desirable effect of the pre-medicating step in the anesthetic patient?

A)Reduces patient stress and anxiety
B)Saves the veterinarian time in surgery
C)Prolongs the action of the induction agent
D)All of the above

Answer 1

Reduces patient stress and anxiety

Question 2

In considering the timing of the administration of the pre-anesthetic meditation, which of the following represents the ideal interval between pre-sedation and induction?

A)15-20 minutes, if administered subcutaneously
B)30-45 minutes, if administered subcutaneously
C)45-60 minutes if administer intravenously
D)30-45 minutes if administered intramuscularly

Answer 2

30-45 minutes, if administered subcutaneously

Question 3

Technician Sally needs to anesthetize a fractious cat. She and the veterinary team are unable to perform venipuncture on this patient and have decided to use an anesthetic chamber. What are some of the disadvantages to both patient and personnel when using this piece of anesthetic equipment?

A)Unprotected airway in the patient
B)Contamination of the workplace from waste gases
C)Prolonged induction times
D)Increased use of oxygen and inhalant
E)All of the above

Answer 3

All of the above

Question 4

Technician Sally is hyperventilating an anesthetized patient because the patient was hypoventilating and became light. Sally's rebreathing bag has gone flaccid and needs additional oxygen and inhalant anesthetic so she can continue IPPV and return the patient back to an appropriate plane of anesthesia. Should Sally depress the flush valve to fill her rebreathing bag?

A)Yes, this is the fastest way to fill her rebreathing bag so she can continue IPPV.
B)No, the flush valve allows oxygen to flow at a higher pressure directly into the rebreathing bag and into the breathing circuit which could cause trauma to the patient.
C)Yes, everyone does it and it seems to work.
D)No, the flush valve bypasses the vaporizer and only delivers straight oxygen to the patient.
E)B and D

Question 5

Which is an acceptable way to determine blood pressure through noninvasive blood pressure measurement (NIBP)?

A)The placement of an arterial catheter and use of a transducer
B)The use of a Doppler unit over a peripheral artery
C)Palpation of arterial pulses digitally
D)The use of a blood pressure cuff and oscillometric monitor
E)B and D

Question 6

Which dissociative is an anesthetic and analgesic depending on dose, provides excellent somatic analgesia, and is contraindicated in patients with a history of seizures or for procedures that may induce seizures?

A)Midazolam
B)Ketamine
C)Acepromazine
D)Xylazine

Question 7

When anesthetizing an amphibian, which if the following anesthetics are usually administered by a bath method?

A)Tricaine methanesulfonate
B)Halothane
C)Diazepam
D)Xylazine

Question 8

The sedative-hypnotic effects of alpha-2 drugs work by inhibiting the release of which neurotransmitter from receptors?

A)Aldosterone
B)Acetylcholine
C)Norepinephrine
D)Tyrosine

Question 9

Which of the following actions will occur as the dose of an alpha-2 analgesic drug is increased?

A)Increased analgesic benefit; the degree of sedation increases
B)Decrease analgesic benefit; increase potential side effects
C)Increase analgesic benefit; decrease of potential side effects
D)No additional analgesic benefit; the degree of sedation increases

Question 10

What type of anesthetic block is used for numbing the maxilla, upper teeth, nose, and upper lip?

A)Maxillary Block
B)Mandibular Block
C)Zygomatic Arch Block
D)Dental Block

Question 11

Which of the following choices explains the benefit of balanced anesthesia?

A)Increase patient comfort
B)Increases patient safety
C)Better owner satisfaction
D)Both A and B

Question 12

Which of the following demonstrates the purpose of a patient anesthetic record?

A)To provide an accurate account of the anesthetic experience
B)To detail client contact information
C)To provide a record of patient medical history
D)To detail the results of pre anesthetic blood work results

Question 13

When ensuring proper patient intubation, what technique should be used to verify correct tube placement, if direct visualization is not possible?

A)Auscultation of bilateral lung sounds when bagging
B)Placing your mouth over the tube and blowing into it
C)Watching for the patient's chest cavity to inflate
D)Verifying the patient has an adequate SPO2 reading

Question 14

During anesthetic recovery, which of the following positions is preferred for brachycephalic breeds?

A)Sternal recumbency
B)Lateral recumbency
C)Dorsal ventral recumbency
D)Dorsal recumbency

Question 15

Which of the following is an example of a "noncircle" anesthetic delivery system?

A)In-the-circuit system
B)Non-rebreathing system
C)Out-of-circuit system
D)Rebreathing system

Question 16

When considering inhalant anesthetics, what is the most common route of elimination from a patient's body?

A)Liver
B)Lungs
C)Kidneys
D)Liver & Kidneys

Question 17

When determining what size endotracheal tube a patient will need, what is a general rule that can be used to determine the correct size?

A)A tube that, with the cuff deflated, is larger than the trachea's internal diameter
B)A tube that, with the cuff inflated, is the same size as the trachea
C)A tube that is just smaller than the trachea's internal diameter
D)A tube that is just larger than the trachea's internal diameter

Question 18

During the anesthetic process, maintaining an adequate tidal volume in a patient ensures proper tissue profusion and ventilation. In general, what is a normal tidal volume for an anesthetic depressed patient?

A)6-14 mL/kg
B)30-45 mL/kg
C)15-20 mL/kg
D)8-12 mL/kg

Question 19

Which of the following statements would represent the correct advice to give a client upon discharging a normal, healthy patient from the hospital following an anesthetic event?

A)Withhold water for 24 hours following an anesthetic event.
B)Two hours post recovery, the patient can be given a full bowl of water.
C)Allow the patient to settle at home at least one hour before offering water.
D)Dehydration will occur if water consumption is limited in any way.

Question 20

Technician Sally is about to administer an injectable anesthetic to a feline patient. She plans to intubate her patient and administer inhalant anesthetic. She will need an endotracheal tube and has several sizes to choose from. When selecting the correct size endotracheal tube (ET), which measurement on the tube should be considered when placing the endotracheal tube orally?

A)Outer Diameter (O.D.)
B)Internal Diameter (I.D.)
C)The length of the ET tube
D)A and C
E)B and C

Question 21

Technician Sally has intubated a feline patient and now needs to inflate the cuff on the ET tube. What are the precautions she should take when inflating the cuff?

A)None, the ET tube should be inflated to its fullest to prevent the escape of inhalant and waste gases, as well as prevent aspiration of regurgitated fluids.
B)She should inflate the cuff until the pilot balloon is as fat as a tick.
C)She should inflate slowly, listening closely until she creates a seal with the cuff and can no longer hear or smell escaping oxygen or inhalant.
D)She shouldn't inflate the cuff unless the patient starts to regurgitate.

Question 22

The types of endotracheal tubes used in small animal anesthesia include Cole, Magill, and Murphy. Which type is the most commonly used, considered the safest, is cuffed, and includes an eye at the distal end of the tube opposite of the bevel?

A)Murphy
B)Magill
C)Cole
D)All of the above

Question 23

What are the purposes of an anesthetic machine and breathing system when in use during a surgical procedure?

A)Delivery of oxygen and inhalant anesthetic
B)Removal of exhaled waste gases, including carbon dioxide
C)Provides the ability to perform Intermittent Positive Pressure Ventilation (IPPV)
D)All of the above

Question 24

Soda lime is a chemical carbon dioxide absorbent used to absorb expired carbon dioxide as a patient exhales under anesthesia. The absorbent granules experience a pH change as they absorb carbon dioxide. How often should soda lime be changed?

A)Only when the color changes to purple or pink and stays that color
B)Every 24 to 48 hours of use
C)Once a month
D)Every 6 to 8 hours of use

Question 25

Technician Sally has a 4 kg patient that she needs to anesthetize. What are some of the reasons to use a non-rebreathing (NRB) system instead of standard breathing system, such as an F circuit?

A)Decreased breathing resistance
B)Less dead space
C)Lower fresh gas rates
D)Less waste of anesthetic inhalant
E)A and B

Question 26

Technician Sally needs to use an anesthesia ventilator for one of her patients. Where does Sally connect the ventilator into the breathing system?

A)Between the endotracheal tube and the breathing circuit
B)At the rebreathing bag port
C)Between the inhalation port and the breathing circuit
D)Between the exhalation port and the breathing circuit

Question 27

What is the definition of Tidal Volume (V_T)?

A)The amount of Tide one should use to wash a load of towels
B)The amount of gas exchanged in one respiratory cycle
C)The amount of gas in a rebreathing bag
D)The amount of blood in the heart between beats

Question 28

What is the definition of Paco₂?

A)Pac Man the sequel
B)Pre-arterial carbon dioxide
C)Post-arterial carbon dioxide
D)Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood

Question 29

Technician Sally is experiencing anesthesia ventilator malfunction with collapsed bellows. Which of the following would NOT be a cause for collapsed bellows or a leak in the system?

A)Loss of a seal due to an improperly inflated ET tube cuff
B)Loss of electricity to the anesthesia ventilator
C)A closed pop-off valve on the anesthesia machine
D)Someone turned off the oxygen in the supply room

Question 30

What size oxygen cylinder would be used for a portable anesthesia machine?

A)E cylinder
B)D cylinder
C)H cylinder
D)F cylinder

Question 31

Technician Sally's flowmeter has a ball shaped indicator. She wants to administer 2L/min oxygen to her patient. Where should Sally adjust the amount of oxygen flow on her indicator?

A)At the top of the ball
B)At the bottom of the ball
C)It doesn't matter, all anesthesia machines flow oxygen at 2L/min
D)At the middle of the ball

Question 32

What is the difference between VOC (Vaporizers out of circle) and VIC (Vaporizers in circle) systems?

A)VOC has precision-type vaporizers.
B)VIC systems use the animal's breathing to move oxygen through the vaporizer.
C)VIC systems have more difficulty in maintaining proper surgical plane of anesthesia.
D)All of the above

Question 33

The palpation of pulses, observation of respiration and mucous membrane color, and the auscultation of lungs and heart are considered methods of monitoring anesthesia.

A)Texture
B)Sensory
C)Physical
D)Old school

Question 34

With consideration to what premedication and induction agents may have been used, an animal exhibiting an eyeball position of ventral rotation is considered to be in a plane of anesthesia.

A)Light
B)Slow
C)Surgical
D)Deep

Question 35

What is an inexpensive piece of monitoring equipment that can auscultate the heart and lungs from within the patient?

A)Alien probe
B)Esophageal stethoscope
C)Temperature probe
D)Electrocardiopulmonagram

Question 36

The term ECG stands for and performs the following:

A)Egg Centric Gamma ray - forces a chicken to increase egg production
B)Electrocarcinogram - uses electricity to vaporize cancerous cells
C)Electrocardiogram - measures the electrical activity of the heart
D)Extracellular goniometry - the measurement of range of motion outside a joint's normal range of motion

Question 37

What is the term for placing an arterial catheter and connecting it to a transducer and monitor to measure blood pressure?

A)Arterial Blood Pressure
B)Catheter Blood Pressure
C)Invasive Blood Pressure
D)None of the above

Question 38

Central venous pressure (CVP) is defined as and is measured with a/an .

A)Pressure of blood in the middle of the body; ultrasound probe
B)Pressure of blood within the right atrium; jugular catheter
C)Pressure of blood within the left atrium; jugular catheter
D)Pressure of blood within the cephalic vein; blood pressure cuff

Question 39

Which factor(s) may directly affect the accuracy of the readings of a pulse oximeter?

A)Motion
B)Skin pigmentation
C)Vasoconstriction
D)All of the above

Question 40

The continuous measurement of carbon dioxide concentrations in exhaled breath is .

A)Capnography
B)Capnometry
C)Sniff test
D)Capnoximetry

Question 41

The product of the tidal volume and the respiratory rate is .

A)Minute ventilation
B)Minute volume
C)Minute capacity
D)A and B

Question 42

During extubation of ruminants, the tube cuff should remain inflated or only partially deflated for what reason?

A)Ruminants are more prone to chewing while awakening from anesthesia.
B)Ruminants are more prone to aspiration.
C)Ruminants wake up more slowly from anesthesia.
D)Ruminants wake up more quickly from anesthesia.

Question 43

Hyperventilation causes a due to carbon dioxide in the blood.

A)Respiratory acidosis; decreased
B)Respiratory acidosis; increased
C)Respiratory alkalosis; increased
D)Respiratory alkalosis; decreased

Question 44

Hypoventilation causes a due to carbon dioxide in the blood.

A)Respiratory acidosis; decreased
B)Respiratory acidosis; increased
C)Respiratory alkalosis; increased
D)Respiratory alkalosis; decreased

Question 45

What is the indicator for the appropriate time to remove an endotracheal tube from a small animal patient?

A)When pedal reflex returns
B)When the patient is fully awake and struggling
C)Immediately after disconnection of inhalant agents
D)When the swallowing reflex returns

Question 46

Which of the following is a complication associated from IPPV (Intermittent Positive-Pressure Ventilation)?

A)Patient becoming too deep
B)Respiratory Alkalosis
C)Barotrauma
D)Impaired cardiovascular function
E)All of the above

Question 47

What are the normal pH values for arterial blood gases?

A)7)35 to 7.45
B)6)0 to 7.0
C)7)50 to 8.50
D)None of the above

Question 48

Bicarbonate (HCO₃^-) reflects what status on an arterial blood gas during anesthesia?

A)Respiratory
B)Metabolic
C)Thermal
D)Cardiac

Question 49

On an arterial blood gas, a respiratory acidosis is determined by a Paco₂ of .

A)35 mm Hg or less
B)35 mm Hg or more
C)45 mm Hg or less
D)45 mm Hg or more

Question 50

Venous return during IPPV is during inspiration.

A)Increased
B)Remains the same
C)Decreased
D)None of the above

Question 51

Inspiratory pressure during IPPV should not exceed in most healthy patients.

A)15cm H₂O
B)40cm H₂O
C)60cm H₂O
D)20cm H₂O

Question 52

Technician Sally has a patient with decreased lung capacity and a high Paco₂. She is already performing IPPV up to 30cm H₂O at 8 bpm. How can Sally correct the respiratory acidosis without increasing tidal volume?

A)Hypoventilate
B)Decrease tidal volume
C)Hyperventilate
D)Ask the surgeon to hurry up

Question 53

Technician Sally's anesthetized patient has a respiratory acidosis and metabolic acidosis on arterial blood gas analysis. Which acidosis should be treated first?

A)Respiratory acidosis
B)Metabolic acidosis
C)They can be treated together.
D)Nothing can be done until the patient is recovered.

Question 54

What do brick red mucous membranes during anesthesia indicate?

A)Exceptional blood volume
B)Exceptional oxygen saturation
C)Excessive CO₂ in the blood
D)Normal pigment of the mucous membranes

Question 55

Mean arterial blood pressure should be maintained above in heavily muscled or pregnant animals.

A)60 mm Hg
B)80 mm Hg
C)50 mm Hg
D)100 mm Hg

Question 56

Which is a pre- and post-anesthetic concern when anesthetizing brachycephalic patients?

A)Elongated soft palate
B)Laryngeal function
C)Respiratory distress
D)All of the above

Question 57

Technician Sally has a greyhound for a surgical patient today. Which condition should she be aware of when anesthetizing this patient?

A)Von Willebrand's disease
B)Malignant hyperthermia
C)Sight hound myelopathy
D)Speed Racer malabsorption

Question 58

Which vital sign(s) should be noted during a pre-anesthetic exam?

A)Body Temperature
B)Heart Rate
C)Respiratory Rate
D)Pain Score
E)All of the above

Question 59

Technician Sally's surgical patient is suddenly experiencing a period of acute bradycardia. Which differential(s) does Sally need to work through to determine the cause of this condition?

A)Hypertension
B)Hypothermia
C)Vagally stimulated reflexes
D)Hypoxemia
E)All of the above

Question 60

Technician Sally has a surgical patient presenting with dyspnea. Which differential(s) should she rule out prior to anesthetizing this patient?

A)Laryngeal paralysis
B)Airway obstruction
C)Pneumothorax
D)All of the above

Question 61

How should patients with increased intracranial pressure be ventilated?

A)Hyperventilated
B)Hypoventilated
C)Allowed to ventilate spontaneously
D)None of the above

Question 62

Which anesthetically-induced condition should be avoided in patients with renal disease?

A)Hypertension
B)Hypotension
C)Hypoxia
D)Hyperventilation

Question 63

A patient with heartworm disease is presented to Technician Sally's clinic for a surgical procedure. This patient is not showing any outward signs of this disease. Into which ASA Class should Sally categorize this patient prior to surgery?

A)Class 2
B)Class 3
C)Class 4
D)Class 5

Question 64

What is the benefit of fasting a surgical patient prior to anesthesia?

A)Reduced vomiting
B)Decreased bloating
C)Decreased impairment of venous return
D)All of the above

Question 65

Technician Sally is about to recover a patient that she fears will go into respiratory arrest following extubation. What should she have immediately available should this occur?

A)Laryngoscope
B)ET tube
C)Induction agent
D)All of the above

Question 66

Which is a common anticholinergic commonly administered to a patient as part of an anesthetic plan?

A)Glycopyrrolate
B)Ketamine
C)Propofol
D)Xylazine

Question 67

Which is a commonly used phenothiazine that provides a calming effect, is used as an antiemetic, and can cause marked hypotension?

A)Diazepam
B)Ketamine
C)Acepromazine
D)Propofol

Question 68

Which product may be used as an induction agent or a CRI for anesthesia, and causes a marked apnea immediately following induction?

A)Propofol
B)Xylazine
C)Ketamine
D)Etomidate

Question 69

Which inhalant anesthetic would be the correct choice for masking down or using an induction chamber?

A)Halothane
B)Isoflurane
C)Sevoflurane
D)All of the above

Question 70

Which inhalant anesthetic reacts with soda lime to produce Compound A, a nephrotoxic product?

A)Halothane
B)Sevoflurane
C)Isoflurane
D)All of the above

Question 71

There are several benefits to using local anesthesia in combination with routine general anesthetic procedures. These benefits include:

A)Decreasing the minimum alveolar concentration of inhalant
B)Minimizing the amount of injectable analgesic required
C)Decreasing the intensity of post-operative pain
D)All of the above

Question 72

Which local anesthetic is chosen for its long duration of action, less motor dysfunction, and should never be given intravenously due to the risk of seizures and cardiac arrest?

A)Lidocaine
B)Cetacaine
C)Bupivacaine
D)Procaine

Question 73

What is the importance of the hepatic system in regards to anesthesia?

A)The condition of the hepatic system can indicate the presence of gastrointestinal disease.
B)The hepatic system provides general indicators of patient health.
C)The hepatic system is responsible for the excretion and metabolism of the anesthetics.
D)The condition of the hepatic system can indicate complications with prior anesthetic events.

Question 74

Which of the following is not part of the preanesthetic assessment?

A)Physical examination
B)Preanesthetic agents
C)Patient history
D)Diagnostic tests

Question 75

Which of the following dog breeds is more susceptible to complications during anesthesia due to brachycephalic airway syndrome?

A)Boston terriers
B)Greyhounds
C)Great Pyrenees
D)Australian Shepherd

Question 76

According to the scale of the American Society of Anesthesiologists, which anesthesia risk category is described as having systemic disturbances or disease with mild clinical signs?

A)Slight risk
B)Moderate risk
C)High risk
D)Emergency

Question 77

Which of the following can be measured in order to monitor the central nervous system during anesthesia?

A)Capillary refill time
B)Hypovolemia
C)Rate and depth of ventilation
D)Pedal reflex

Question 78

What state of anesthesia is characterized by profound sedation and analgesia as a result of simultaneous administration of an opioid and a tranquilizer?

A)General anesthesia
B)Sedation
C)Neuroleptanalgesia
D)Tranquilization

Question 79

What type of anesthetic agent calms a patient by reducing anxiety but does not reduce awareness?

A)Tranquilizer
B)Sedative
C)Anticonvulsant
D)Antagonist

Question 80

What process would be used to diminish the sensation in a localized area of the body without the loss of consciousness?

A)Relaxation
B)Sedation
C)Local anesthesia
D)General anesthesia