Deck 5: Lab Procedures

Question 1

A normal PCV for a horse falls in the range of .

A)15 - 25%
B)32 - 48%
C)45 - 60%
D)12 - 22%

Answer 1

32 - 48%

Question 2

What are red blood cells that have a membrane abnormality causing them to develop "burr" projections on the cell surface called?

A)Schistocytes
B)Reticulated
C)Agglutinated
D)Acanthocytes

Answer 2

Acanthocytes

Question 3

What is the proper term for the abnormal variations in size of red blood cells?

A)Anisochromatic
B)Anisocytosis
C)Anisogamy
D)Anisokaryosis

Answer 3

Anisocytosis

Question 4

Which RBC disorder viewed on a blood smear is commonly associated with splenic hemangiosarcoma?

A)Schistocytes
B)Leptocytes
C)Acanthocytes
D)Spherocytes

Question 5

When performing electrolyte assays, which elements are most commonly analyzed?

A)Calcium, Potassium, Phosphorus, Sodium, Chloride, and Magnesium
B)Calcium, Potassium, Copper, Chloride, and Magnesium
C)Iodine, Sodium, Iron, and Chlorine
D)Calcium, Potassium, Copper, Chloride, Magnesium, Sulphur, and Sodium

Question 6

When evaluating sperm morphology, abnormalities are classified as a "primary defect" if the appearance of the sperm has:

A)Tail-less heads, bent or broken tails, and protoplasmic droplets on the mid-piece
B)Increased viscosity of seminal fluid
C)Reduced mobility
D)Heads that are too large, too small, or oddly shaped; tails that are coiled; and swollen midpieces

Question 7

Which of the following statements adequately describes the period of time between which a parasite can infect a host and the time at which it can be diagnosed?

A)Post-latent period
B)Post-patent period
C)Pre-patent period
D)Recovery period

Question 8

Which objective(s)may be found on a basic laboratory microscope with high dry and oil immersion objective lenses?

A)10X
B)40X
C)100X
D)All of the above

Question 9

When using the 100X objective lens, which type of oil should be used on the slide?

A)Corn Oil
B)Mineral Oil
C)Immersion Oil
D)Hydraulic Oil

Question 10

What is a common use for a laboratory centrifuge?

A)Separating serum or plasma from red blood cells
B)Preparing urine sediments
C)Preparing fecal sediments
D)All of the above

Question 11

What is the term for a piece of laboratory equipment that is used to measure the refractive index of fluids for determination of protein concentration and specific gravity?

A)Refratifuge
B)Refractometer
C)Refractoscope
D)Refractology

Question 12

What is the term for the diagnostic exam that provides information on RBC count, WBC count, platelet count, and PCV?

A)Complete Blood Count
B)Total Blood Analysis
C)Basic Blood Work
D)All Inclusive Blood Count

Question 13

Sally is performing venipuncture to collect a whole blood sample for a CBC. Which color tube does she need to preserve her sample?

A)Green top
B)Red top
C)Purple top
D)Blue top

Question 14

What is the additive that prevents clotting in purple top sample collection vacutainers?

A)Ether diamine tetris acid
B)Ethylene diamine tetra-acetic acid
C)Ethanolamine diamniotic tetra-acetic acid
D)Ethaverine diamond tetra acid

Question 15

Sally is using a microcapillary tube, filled with anticoagulated blood, and placing it in a centrifuge. Which diagnostic test is she about to perform?

A)White Blood Cell Count
B)Plasma analysis
C)Packed Cell Volume
D)Platelet Cell Count

Question 16

Which value(s) can be determined by using the plasma from the top of a previously spun down microcapillary tube?

A)Plasma protein
B)Plasma fibrinogen
C)Plasma color
D)Plasma turbidity
E)All of the above

Question 17

A normal lymphocyte count in a dog falls between n/µL.

A)1500 - 5000
B)1000 - 4800
C)2500 - 7500
D)3000 - 8000

Question 18

What is the term for a piece of laboratory equipment that is used to manually determine the number of RBCs, WBCs, and platelets per microliter of whole blood?

A)Hemacytorefractometer
B)Hemacytocounter
C)Hemacytometer
D)Hemacytoliter

Question 19

What is the term used to describe the red blood cells of birds and reptiles?

A)Anisocyte
B)Metarubricyte
C)Leptocyte
D)Acanthocyte

Question 20

What is the term used to describe a decrease in the number of circulating platelets in the blood?

A)Thrombocytolysis
B)Thrombocythaemia
C)Thrombocytopenia
D)Thrombasthenia

Question 21

When examining a blood smear, under what power should the WBC differential be examined?

A)10X
B)40X
C)100X
D)None of the above

Question 22

Which species listed has the largest diameter RBCs?

A)Dog
B)Horse
C)Cow
D)Cat

Question 23

An example of a leptocyte is a .

A)Reticulocyte
B)Rouleaux Cell
C)Metarubricyte
D)Target Cell

Question 24

These fragmented RBCs are produced by the trauma associated with colliding with intravascular fibrin strands. What are they?

A)Schistocytes
B)Leptocytes
C)Acanthocytes
D)Spherocytes

Question 25

Which RBC disorder can be commonly seen following a blood transfusion?

A)Schistocytes
B)Leptocytes
C)Acanthocytes
D)Spherocytes

Question 26

The presence of polychromatophilic RBCs on a blood smear from a patient with anemia indicates what kind of anemia?

A)Nonregenerative Anemia
B)Regenerative Anemia
C)Standard Anemia
D)None of the above

Question 27

Polychromatophilic RBCs appear as what cell when stained with new methylene blue?

A)Reticulocytes
B)Metarubricytes
C)Schistocytes
D)Spherocytes

Question 28

Which two RBC disorders are not seen in equine blood due to the fact that horses do not release immature RBCs from the bone marrow?

A)Polychromasia
B)Reticulocytosis
C)Metarubricytes
D)A and B
E)A and C

Question 29

The increased area of central pallor resulting from an abnormally low amount of hemoglobin within the RBC causes RBCs.

A)Hyperchromic
B)Hypochromic
C)Hyperpalic
D)Hypopalic

Question 30

Rouleaux formation of RBCs resembles .

A)Spiny processes
B)Deflated balloons
C)Stacked coins
D)Soccer balls

Question 31

Rouleaux formation of RBCs is normal in which species?

A)Dog
B)Bird
C)Horses
D)Swine

Question 32

The feline RBC parasite that resembles a small coccoid or rod-like structure on the surface of the RBC is .

A)Haemobartonella felis
B)Eperthrozoon felis
C)Anaplasma felis
D)Babesia felis

Question 33

The bovine parasite of RBCs that appears as a small spherical body within the cell and close to the cell margin is .

A)Haemobartonella marginale
B)Eperthrozoon marginale
C)Anaplasma marginale
D)Babesia marginale

Question 34

The observation of increased numbers of Howell-Jolly bodies on a peripheral blood smear may indicate:

A)Lead poisoning
B)Regenerative anemia
C)Nonregenerative anemia
D)Lymphoma

Question 35

Neutrophils have an important role in inflammatory conditions based on which capability(ies)?

A)Phagocytic
B)Bactericidal
C)Virucidal
D)All of the above
E)A and B

Question 36

Immature neutrophils released from the bone marrow have a nuclei.

A)Rod shaped
B)C-shaped
C)Heart shaped
D)Band shaped

Question 37

What is the definition of neutropenia?

A)A reduction in circulating neutrophils
B)A reduction in size of the neutrophils
C)A reduction in the nuclei of the neutrophils
D)None of the above

Question 38

What do monocytes become after they enter the tissues to phagocytize large particles and cellular debris?

A)Macrocytes
B)Macrophages
C)Microphages
D)None of the above

Question 39

Which species has rod-shaped granules in the cytoplasm of their eosinophils?

A)Canine
B)Equine
C)Bovine
D)Feline

Question 40

The layer of WBCs and platelets in a spun capillary tube is referred to as the .

A)Cloudy layer
B)Buffy layer
C)Buffy coat
D)Cloudy coat

Question 41

When is the best time to collect voided urine for a urinalysis?

A)Morning
B)Lunch time
C)Right after a big bowl of water
D)Evening

Question 42

Which method is appropriate for collecting urine?

A)Free flow, mid-stream, voided sample
B)Cystocentesis
C)Bladder catheterization
D)All of the above

Question 43

The collection of urine by inserting a needle into the bladder and aspirating urine into a syringe is referred to as .

A)Catheterization
B)Cystocentesis
C)Aspiration
D)None of the above

Question 44

How soon should urine for a urinalysis be evaluated?

A)When you have time
B)After it sits for 30 minutes
C)As soon as it is collected
D)The next day

Question 45

Which parameter(s) should be evaluated in a routine urinalysis?

A)Color
B)pH
C)Sediment
D)All of the above

Question 46

At what magnification should urine sediment be viewed?

A)100X
B)40X
C)10X
D)None of the above

Question 47

Ketonuria indicates which metabolic issue(s)?

A)Excessive fat metabolism
B)Carbohydrate metabolism deficiency
C)A and B
D)Neither of the above

Question 48

A sample of urine is submitted for pH testing. The results indicate the urine is alkalotic. Is the pH above, at, or below 7?

A)pH is above 7
B)pH is at 7
C)pH is below 7
D)None of the above

Question 49

When requesting an ALT chemistry test, what does ALT stand for?

A)Alkaline phosphatase
B)Alanine aminotransferase
C)Aspartate aminotransferase
D)None of the above

Question 50

Ectoparasites include the following:

A)Mites
B)Lice
C)Fleas
D)All of the above

Question 51

The act of becoming infected by a parasite through the transplacental route describes what?

A)The travel of larvae through the placenta, infecting the offspring
B)The travel of larvae through the lungs
C)The travel of larvae through cardiovascular system
D)None of the above

Question 52

Features of ascarid eggs include:

A)Oval shape
B)Thick shell
C)All of the above
D)None of the above

Question 53

What type of parasite infects their host via skin penetration?

A)Ascarids
B)Hookworms
C)Tapeworms
D)Heartworms

Question 54

Uncinaria stenocephala occurs in which host(s)?

A)Dogs
B)Cats
C)Foxes
D)All of the above

Question 55

Trichuris vulpis is an example of what type of endoparasite?

A)Ascarid
B)Whipworm
C)Hookworm
D)Threadworm

Question 56

Which endoparasite infects the right ventricle and pulmonary arteries?

A)Toxocara canis
B)Ancylostoma Caninum
C)Dirofilaria immitis
D)Dipylidium Caninum

Question 57

When preparing a blood specimen for glucose testing, which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)Serum and plasma must be separated from erythrocytes immediately after collection
B)Whole blood specimens should "rest" at room temperature for 60 minutes before separation
C)The most accurate time for sample collection is immediately following ingestion of a meal.
D)Both B and C

Question 58

When discussing hematologic definitions, what is the term used to describe increased numbers of immature neutrophils in the blood?

A)Neutrophilapenia
B)Left Shift
C)Leukemoid Response
D)Glomeruli

Question 59

When measuring plasma protein concentrations using a handheld refractometer, an erroneously high protein measurement will result from which of the following?

A)Holding the refractometer up to a bright light source
B)Using a lipemic or hemolyzed plasma sample
C)Applying too much distilled water when cleaning the refractometer
D)Failure to store the refractometer properly between uses

Question 60

What is the ideal anticoagulant to use when obtaining serum samples?

A)Heparin, used at a rate of 20 units/ml of blood
B)EDTA, used at a rate of 1-2 mg / ml of blood
C)Sodium Fluoride, used at a rate of 6 mg / ml of blood
D)None

Question 61

For which of the following conditions is a cytological examination of a tracheal wash a useful diagnostic tool?

A)Evaluation of Peritoneal Contents
B)Kidney Failure
C)Prolonged Lameness
D)Pulmonary Disease

Question 62

What is an increase in the circulating white blood cells that occurs due to an epinephrine release (such as excitement, fear, or exercise) called?

A)Inflammatory Leukocytosis
B)Stress Erthrocytosis
C)Pseudo neutropenia
D)Physiological Leukocytosis

Question 63

A goat is presented with a draining mandibular abscess and a herd health history of Caseous Lymphadenitis. The veterinarian suspects that the abscess is caused by Corynebacterium. What diagnostic test would be the most likely to be requested for this animal?

A)Serum Chemistry Analysis, A PCV, and urine sediment stain
B)Bacterial Culture
C)Surgical excision of tissue and thorough flushing of tissue
D)WBC

Question 64

Which of the following statements is true about a Ziehl - Neelsen Acid Fast Stain?

A)It is made using Giemsa powder.
B)Crystal Violet is the primary stain.
C)Iodine is poured onto the slide and allowed to sit for 30 seconds.
D)The slide is flooded with carbol-fuchsin stain and heated.

Question 65

When microscopically evaluating a vaginal smear on a bitch, which of the following characteristics is an indication of estrus?

A)Squamous cells are noncornified.
B)There are no squamous cells present.
C)Squamous cells are a mixture of cornified and noncornified.
D)Squamous cells are cornified.

Question 66

When preparing synovial fluid for microscopic examination, thixotropy (gelling) may result if:

A)The sample is left undisturbed for a few hours
B)The fibrinogen concentration is too high
C)The sample is agitated
D)The volume of the sample is too large

Question 67

A coagulase test would most commonly be performed on which type of bacteria?

A)Gram-positive cocci
B)Fungi
C)Oxidase - positive bacteria
D)Any type of bacteria

Question 68

What is a normal range of values in a dog for a micro-hematocrit sample?

A)37 - 55
B)12 - 18
C)0 - 9
D)80 - 120

Question 69

If you are asked to collect a specimen from a dog for a Trypsin test, what type of sample are you most likely to need?

A)Epithelial swab
B)Feces
C)Skin scraping
D)Nasal exudate

Question 70

Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay tests are commonly performed in a Veterinary Hospital. When detecting viruses, parasites, or bacteria, what type of antibody technology does this test use to detect antigens?

A)Polyclonal
B)Superlative
C)Monoclonal
D)Paralytic

Question 71

When preparing serum for serum chemistry testing, blood samples should be collected in a red top or serum separator tube and centrifuged at what speed and for how long?

A)220 rpm for 20 min
B)2,200 rpm for 10 min
C)22,000 rpm for 15 min
D)620 rpm for 30 min

Question 72

When considering tumor morphology, changes in a cell population's characteristics are evaluated in order to determine if the tumor is malignant or benign. Generally, what are the characteristics of a malignant cell?

A)Uniform in size, with a uniform nucleus: cytoplasm ratio
B)Strongly resemble the cell of origin
C)Variation in cell size and shape, increased cell exfoliation, and increased nuclear size
D)Uniform population of lymphoid cells

Question 73

Which of the following is a parasite of the avian circulatory system?

A)Atoxoplasmosis
B)Babesia
C)Cytauxprotozoa
D)Avisarioplasmosis

Question 74

When collecting blood from healthy amphibians, what is the total volume of blood that should be collected, as a percentage of body weight?

A)1%
B)2%
C)0)05 %
D)2)5%

Question 75

Which term correctly refers to an intestinal protozoan's stage of the life cycle when it is capable of feeding and movement?

A)Micropyle
B)Cyst
C)Trophozoite
D)Oocyst

Question 76

What type of parasite uses snails or fish as an intermediate host for developing from a miracidium into a sporocyst?

A)Protozoa
B)Acanthocephalans
C)Nematodes
D)Trematodes

Question 77

A pet owner has reported seeing "white worms" crawling around on the feces of their pet. Assuming that the pet has a tapeworm infection, what part of the tapeworm is the owner seeing?

A)Proglottids
B)Scolex
C)Hexacanth embryos
D)Flagellum

Question 78

When collecting blood samples from pet birds, how is venipuncture accomplished?

A)A small gauge needle and 3cc syringe
B)An indwelling catheter is places and blood is suctioned using a syringe
C)A small gauge needle and micro-hematocrit tubes
D)A large gauge needle inserted into the wing vein and a small tube

Question 79

Which of the following is an example of a nematode of the blood in dogs?

A)Ancyclostoma
B)Ascrids
C)Dirofilaria immitis
D)Stephanurus dentatus

Question 80

Which of the following is a parasite that infects the red blood cells of dogs?

A)Dirofilaria immitis
B)Capillaria aerophila
C)Uncinaria
D)Babesia Canis