Deck 10: Critical Care

Question 1

Which condition should an "Emergency Drug Sheet" prepare for?

A)Tracheal irritation
B)Heartworm disease
C)Cardiovascular collapse
D)Parvovirus

Answer 1

Cardiovascular collapse

Question 2

If an animal is presenting for surgery and is graded as critical, what does this indicate?

A)The animal's prognosis is favorable, but guarded.
B)The animal is not expected to survive more than 24 hours, with or without surgery.
C)The animal is debilitated, but surgical intervention can improve the prognosis.
D)That while medical treatment may improve the animal's condition, surgery is preferred.

Answer 2

The animal is not expected to survive more than 24 hours, with or without surgery.

Question 3

Technician Sally has just received a Hit By Car through emergency with a partially amputated limb. This patient needs immediate surgical intervention to prevent shock and death. What is the first thing Sally needs to do before anesthetizing this patient?

A)Set up the surgical suite
B)Take thoracic radiographs
C)Order pizza because it's going to be a long night
D)Start a new load of towels

Answer 3

Take thoracic radiographs

Question 4

During CPCR of a small dog, what is the name of the model thought to explain the pumping action of blood through the heart?

A)Thoracic pump
B)Cardiac pump
C)Cardiovascular pump
D)Effusion pump

Question 5

Which of the following conditions is caused by a traumatic event that causes all or part of the abdominal contents to invade the thoracic cavity?

A)Diaphragmatic hernia
B)Pyloric stenosis
C)Thoracic hernia
D)Hiatal hernia

Question 6

During emergencies, a technician should be able to evaluate specific patient parameters in order to determine if a condition is immediately life threatening. What parameters are evaluated in order to make this determination?

A)Capillary refill time and mucus membrane color
B)Pulse rate and character
C)Respiratory rate and character
D)All of the above

Question 7

When treating acute hypovolemia or shock, it is often beneficial to administer a synthetic colloid volume expander. Which of the choices below is an example of a synthetic colloid volume expander?

A)Lactated Ringers
B)Normal Saline
C)Hypertonic Saline
D)Hydroxyethyl starch (HES)

Question 8

Which of the following is not a part of the triage phase of emergency care?

A)Patient history
B)Evaluation of major organ systems
C)Secondary disease conditions
D)Duration of emergent problem

Question 9

What are the four major organ systems that are of concern during the clinical evaluation of an emergency patient?

A)Respiratory, cardiovascular, central nervous and renal
B)Respiratory, cardiovascular, central nervous and hepatic
C)Respiratory, central nervous, renal and hepatic
D)Respiratory, endocrine, renal and hepatic

Question 10

Which condition is indicated by brown mucous membrane color?

A)Hepatic dysfunction
B)Hyperemia
C)Nystagmus
D)Methemoglobinemia

Question 11

What is a sign of paradoxical respiration?

A)Abducted elbows and lifted head
B)Chest wall and abdominal wall moving asynchronously
C)Extended neck and open mouth
D)Short breaths with several seconds of pause in between each breath

Question 12

When evaluating respiratory status during an emergency, what respiratory status is indicated by tachypnea interspersed with apnea?

A)Cheyne-Stokes
B)Pneumothorax
C)Miosis
D)Nystagmus

Question 13

Which eye condition is described by the word anisocoria?

A)Pinpoint pupils
B)Dilated pupils
C)Unequal pupils
D)Rapid eye movement

Question 14

During what level of consciousness does the patient fail to respond to environmental stimuli, but continue to respond to painful stimuli?

A)Alert
B)Delirious
C)Comatose
D)Stuporous

Question 15

Which of the following does not represent appropriate supplies to have on hand in preparation for emergency situations?

A)Endotracheal tubes
B)Laryngoscope
C)Drugs predrawn into labeled syringes
D)Electrocardiographic monitor

Question 16

When performing a cardiovascular assessment, what is normal capillary refill time?

A)Less than one second
B)One to two seconds
C)Greater than two seconds
D)Varied, based on breed

Question 17

In what position should cats be placed while performing external cardiac massage?

A)Sternal
B)Dorsal recumbency
C)Right lateral recumbency
D)Left lateral recumbency

Question 18

Which of the following is a serious, but uncommon, trauma event in animal patients?

A)Hit by car
B)Pyometra
C)Heat stroke
D)Arterial bleeding

Question 19

What is indicated by the patient posturing in a bowed down position, with the forelimbs crouched down and the hind quarter elevated?

A)Dizziness
B)Head trauma
C)Abdominal pain
D)Weakness in the forelimbs

Question 20

If a technician is examining an emergency patient and notices petechiae in the inguinal area and on the mucous membranes, what blood disorder may be present?

A)Disseminated intravascular coagulation
B)Paradoxical leukemia
C)Hepatitis
D)Ecchymoses

Question 21

Technician Marcus has a patient with poor blood flow and impaired oxygen delivery to tissues. What does Marcus suspect might be causing these signs?

A)Cancer
B)Cardiovascular failure
C)Dehydration
D)Shock

Question 22

If a patient presents with brick red mucous membranes, bounding pulses, and increased heart and respiratory rate, the technician should treat for:

A)Shock
B)Congestive heart failure
C)Heat stroke
D)Toxicity

Question 23

Which type of shock is the most common form in small animal patients?

A)Cardiogenic
B)Hypovolemic
C)Distributive
D)Septic

Question 24

What is the highest treatment priority when treating shock?

A)Stopping bleeding, whether internal or external
B)Maintaining body temperature by external heating source
C)Preventing circulatory collapse using fluid therapy
D)Administering antibiotics to prevent secondary infection

Question 25

What is the most immediate and common treatment for the ingestion of toxic substances?

A)Gastric lavage
B)Inducing vomiting
C)Stomach pumping
D)Fluid therapy

Question 26

What is one of the most common emergencies in equine practice?

A)Colic
B)Pyometra
C)Toxin ingestion
D)Fractures

Question 27

For which of the following toxicants is the induction of vomiting not recommended?

A)Chocolate
B)Acetaminophen
C)Ethylene glycol
D)Cationic detergents

Question 28

A client brings in a dog that has potentially ingested ethylene glycol within the past 45 minutes. What form of decontamination should the technician use in treatment of this ingestion?

A)Activated charcoal
B)Ocular irrigation
C)Enema
D)Enterogastric lavage

Question 29

What emergent condition should be suspected in an intact female dog with fever, lethargy, vaginal discharge, and inappetence or vomiting?

A)Late term pregnancy
B)Pyometra
C)Parvo virus
D)Corona virus

Question 30

Because of increased difficulty in maintaining balance, a horse with a fractured forelimb should be transported in what way?

A)Facing in the normal direction
B)Facing in the rear direction
C)Facing however they appear comfortable when loaded into the trailer
D)Lying in a recumbent position

Question 31

Technician Marcus examines an emergency patient and sees signs of bloody respiratory discharge, increased respiratory effort, and upper airway noise. What traumatic injury does Marcus suspect?

A)Head injury
B)Shock
C)Upper airway trauma
D)Abdominal trauma

Question 32

The level of oxygenation provided by mouth-to-mouth resuscitation is inadequate to support life for any length of time. What percentage of oxygen is provided by this form of artificial ventilation?

A)100%
B)40%
C)21%
D)16%

Question 33

Technician Marcus is performing cardiopulmonary cerebrovascular resuscitation on a patient. He has already ascertained that there is no airway blockage, but the patient is not breathing. What is the next step in order to successfully maintain life?

A)Begin compressions
B)Listen for breath sounds
C)Begin assisted ventilation
D)Administer 5mg epinephrine

Question 34

When providing assisted ventilation, what is the best approach to prevent further respiratory complications once treatment has progressed?

A)Ventilation via an endotracheal tube
B)Ventilation via oxygen mask
C)Ventilation via canula
D)Ventilation via oxygen chamber

Question 35

Under what circumstances would the use of a tourniquet be appropriate for stemming acute blood loss?

A)Under any circumstance where applying pressure proves inadequate
B)When the bleeding has saturated through gauze squares
C)When the pet has lost consciousness
D)When the distal limb is no longer salvageable

Question 36

What phase of wound healing begins about 6 hours after the wound occurs and is characterized by the appearance of neutrophils and monocytes?

A)Inflammatory
B)Debridement
C)Fibroblastic
D)Maturation

Question 37

Which of the following is not a primary bandage layer?

A)Adherent
B)Hypertonic
C)Nonadherent semiocclusive
D)Nonocclusive elastic

Question 38

Which factor is facilitated by bandaging a wound, helps to prevent carbon dioxide loss, and increases oxygen dissociation at the wound site?

A)Bandaging creates a moist environment around the wound
B)Bandaging creates a dry environment around the wound.
C)Bandaging keeps wound free of debris.
D)Bandaging promotes an acidic environment.

Question 39

What type of immobilization is required for a horse with a fracture to the third metacarpal bone?

A)A Robert Jones bandage with 2 splints at 90-degree angles
B)A Kimzey Leg Savers splint
C)A compression bandage
D)A Jen Chung splint

Question 40

What is the last chosen route of medication administration in a patient that is receiving advanced life support via closed-chest CPCR?

A)Intramuscular
B)Subcutaneous
C)Intracardiac
D)intravenous

Question 41

When treating a dog that has just undergone pelvic surgery, what type of immobilization is used?

A)Velpeau's sling
B)A compression bandage
C)Ehmer sling
D)90-90 Flexion sling

Question 42

When a cat presents with a puncture wound showing significant contamination and dead space within the wound, what type of treatment should be instituted following the initial exploration, debridement, and lavage?

A)Open wound drain
B)Closed suction wound drain
C)Application of hobbles
D)Hydrophilic primary bandaging

Question 43

What type of condition requires crystalloid and colloid fluid administration due to significantly increased metabolic demands?

A)Severe burns
B)Malnutrition
C)Cancer
D)Heat stroke

Question 44

If a 20kg dog presents with 7% dehydration and fluid therapy is ordered, what amount of fluids should be given?

A)0)4L
B)1)4L
C)2)0L
D)3)2L

Question 45

Which type of arrhythmia is characterized by electrical complexes but no cardiac contractions?

A)Electromechanical dissociation
B)Asystole
C)Bradycardia
D)Ventricular arrhythmia

Question 46

Cats with which blood type have naturally high levels of antibodies against blood type A, which can result in fatal allergic reactions if transfused with this mismatched type?

A)A
B)B
C)AB
D)ABO

Question 47

What part of blood consists of small cellular particles active during clotting?

A)Red blood cells
B)White blood cells
C)Platelets
D)Plasma

Question 48

Though not a hard and fast rule, at what hematocrit value do veterinarians begin considering transfusion as a treatment option?

A)Less than 50%
B)Less than 40%
C)Less than 30%
D)Less than 20%

Question 49

Which blood plasma product has clotting factors and can be stored frozen up to 5 years?

A)Frozen plasma
B)Fresh frozen plasma
C)Cryoprecipitate
D)Cryopoor plasma

Question 50

What drug is considered an osmotic diuretic and is used to treat renal failure and cerebral edema?

A)Mannitol
B)Furosemide
C)Dobutamine
D)Lodocaine

Question 51

What is the cause of neonatal isoerythrolysis, or "fading kitten syndrome"?

A)Incompatible blood transfusion in kittens
B)Blood cells found in the urine of newborn kittens
C)Blood type B mother cat's incompatibility with the kitten's blood type
D)A litter of kittens with mixed blood types causing complications during delivery

Question 52

Anxiousness, flaring nostrils, abnormal posture with extended head and neck, and reluctance to move are signs of what dangerous condition in a horse?

A)Colic
B)Gastroenteritis
C)Encephalitis
D)Respiratory distress

Question 53

What type of healing tissue fills the space of a tissue defect and protects the wound while it continues the healing process?

A)Necrotic tissue
B)Granulation tissue
C)Epithelial tissue
D)Epidermal tissue

Question 54

Which of the following is used to measure the effectiveness of fluid therapy?

A)Central venous pressure
B)Blood pressure
C)Coagulation status
D)Volumetric pressure

Question 55

Which of the following do not decrease the intensity of chest sounds when auscultating?

A)Obesity
B)Hypovolemia
C)Pleural effusion
D)Asthma