Deck 1: Private Pilot

Question 1

PVT
What two things determine the term `angle of attack?

A)The wing and the relative flow of the wind
B)The chord of the wing and the relative wind direction across it
C)The lateral roll of the wing
D)The attitude of the pilot when confronted with bad weather

Answer 1

The chord of the wing and the relative wind direction across it

Question 2

PVT
Which statement relates to Bernoulli`s principle?

A)Mass is always conserved in an equation
B)Every action has an equal and opposite reaction
C)Air moving over a wing causes a high pressure to develop under the wing drawing the plane upward into the air
D)The airfoil (wing) splits an air mass causing the air to move faster over the top of the wing and causing a low pressure above the wing and pulling the wing skyward

Answer 2

The airfoil (wing) splits an air mass causing the air to move faster over the top of the wing and causing a low pressure above the wing and pulling the wing skyward

Question 3

PVT
When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on?

A)The emergency alert network
B)121.5 and 243.0 MHz
C)120.2 and 115 MHz
D)122.8 and 243 MHz

Answer 3

121.5 and 243.0 MHz

Question 4

PVT
Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a recreational pilot should squawk which VFR code?

A)1500
B)7500
C)1200
D)1212

Question 5

PVT
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?

A)1200
B)7500
C)7676
D)The last squawk code issued on the last flight
E)1185
F)1700
G)7700

Question 6

PVT
What is one purpose of wing flaps?

A)Allows the pilot to approach at a steeper angle without increasing the speed of the plane.
B)Changes the weight and balance of the plane.
C)Contracts the wing to make the pilot land at a slower flight
D)They are used only on take-off

Question 7

PVT
What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?

A)The best landing speed of the airplane
B)Maneuvering speed or turbulent weather penetration speed
C)Best glide speed
D)Never exceed speed

Question 8

PVT
Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by

A)The electromagnetic effects of the instruments and equipment in the plan
B)The difference between true north and magnetic north
C)The turning of the aircraft to the right
D)No compass is always true; you should expect a degree or two difference in any compass

Question 9

PVT
Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

A)The air traffic controller
B)The passengers
C)The FAA
D)The Pilot

Question 10

PVT
A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

A)A steady green light
B)A pulsating red light that you are below the glideslope
C)A steady white light
D)A pulsating white light

Question 11

PVT
What does the 'yellow demarcation bar' marking indicate?

A)Hold short line, as the other side of the line is the active runway
B)The engine run-up area
C)Emergency vehicle positioning area
D)Aircraft positioning location

Question 12

PVT
The radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally

A)10NM
B)15NM
C)20 NM
D)5NM

Question 13

PVT
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

A)Watch the show of military aircraft fighting each other
B)Contact a controlling agency for a clearance
C)Use extreme caution
D)VFR has no need to talk to anyone

Question 14

PVT
The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when

A)operating in Class B airspace
B)operating in areas of reduced visibility or 10 NM of an airport
C)operating on days when heavy air traffic can be expected
D)operating at night on the ground

Question 15

PVT
When executing an emergency approach to land a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because it allows for...

A)Cooling the engine down
B)Improving your odds of making a sound judgment where to land
C)Maintaining a constant descent angle
D)Having less chance of being injured in an emergency landing

Question 16

PVT
Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers for a flight is the responsibility of

A)The Pilot in Command
B)The passengers
C)The person designated as the flight attendant
D)The is no responsibility it is every person for themselves when flying in a private aircraft

Question 17

PVT
What should a pilot do if he/she has a hazardous attitude such as 'impulsivity'?

A)Get it down now no matter the cost or problem
B)Take some sort of sedative
C)Have a beer
D)Use the principle 'not so fast, think first'

Question 18

PVT
A pilot with two passengers on board landed on a 2,100 foot east-west gravel strip having an elevation of 1,800 feet. The temperature is warmer than expected and after computing the density altitude, the pilot determined the takeoff distance over a 50 foot obstacle to be 1,980 feet. The airplane is 75 pounds under gross weight. What would be the best choice?

A)Go for the flight as there is a leeway of 120 feet for takeoff
B)Have the pilot take off by himself and see how the takeoff performance was without the weight of the passengers.
C)Call the tower and see if anyone else has reported climb-out performance problems
D)Postpone the flight and wait for cooler temperatures to recalculate takeoff performance

Question 19

PVT
The destination airport has one runway, 08-26, and the wind is calm. The normal approach in calm wind is a left hand pattern to runway 08. There is no other traffic at the airport. A thunderstorm about 6 miles west is beginning to develop to its mature stage, and rain is starting to reach the ground. The pilot decides to

A)Fly normal approach to runway 8
B)Fly a right hand approach to runway 8
C)Fly the approach to runway 26
D)Fly to the west for a fun ride

Question 20

PVT
A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in his/her body by

A)Talking out loud, breathe into a bag, or slow your breathing
B)Breathe rapidly to increase oxygen to the lungs
C)Breathe deeply
D)Use the aircraft's portable oxygen system

Question 21

PVT
A lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as

A)Pilot Error
B)Oxygen narcosis
C)Spatial disorientation
D)Situation awareness

Question 22

PVT
How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with a ground speed of 114 knots?

A)5 NM
B)14.50 NM
C)14.25 NM
D)20 NM

Question 23

PVT
When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read

A)The reading should be 090 if the pilot is east of the test signal
B)0/ 180 degree radials, with the 0 degree being the "to" signal and the 180 being the "from" indication
C)0/180 degree radials, with the 0 degree being the "from" signal and the 180 being the "to" indication
D)The true reading of the plane in relation to the VOR, i.e. 030 then the 030 radial should be the "to" indication.

Question 24

PVT
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

A)Runway number and ILS information
B)A proper flare
C)Obstruction clearance for the approach area of the runway
D)Right or left of centerline clearance

Question 25

PVT
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?

A)B757, B747, Airbus 320
B)Single engine land, Multi engine sea
C)Airplane, Rotorcraft, Lighter-than-air, glider
D)Cessna, Piper, Beech craft

Question 26

PVT
The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is

A)1.5 NM
B)gets smaller as it get closer to the VOR
C)4 NM
D)8 NM

Question 27

PVT
A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

A)3409.5 hours
B)3402.5 hours
C)3359.5 hours
D)3408.5 hours

Question 28

PVT
In which class of airspace is aerobatic flight prohibited?

A)In Class E airspace not designated for Federal Airways above 1,500 feet AGL.
B)In Class G airspace
C)Under 1500 feet AGL
D)At an airshow

Question 29

PVT
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is

A)1 mile
B)3 miles
C)5 miles
D)10 miles

Question 30

PVT
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is

A)500 feet
B)2000 feet
C)1000 feet
D)Clear of clouds

Question 31

PVT
Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

A)Class C
B)Class G
C)Class F
D)Class B

Question 32

PVT
A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to

A)Cleared for Takeoff
B)Proceed to the Runway
C)Return to the starting point on the airport
D)Recycle your anti-collision lights as they are not being seen by the tower

Question 33

PVT
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2010. The next inspection will be due no later than

A)January 1 2013
B)September 2, 2011
C)August 31, 2012
D)September 30, 2012

Question 34

PVT
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days?

A)1 Day
B)10 Days
C)30 Days
D)5 Days

Question 35

PVT
To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, the pilot should refer to the

A)Weather Channel
B)All reporting stations along the planned route
C)Area Forecast
D)Weather Depiction Chart

Question 36

PVT
The section of the Area Forecast entitled 'VFR CLDS/ WX' contains a general description of

A)Clouds and weather significant to VFR flight operations broken down by States or other geographical areas.
B)Forecast sky cover, cloud tops, visibility, and obstructions to vision along specific routes.
C)Weather that could impact VFR operation for the whole country
D)VFR flight not recommended as clouds and weather are not favorable for that type of flight.

Question 37

PVT
To best determine general forecast weather conditions covering a flight information region, the pilot should refer to

A)Weather Depiction Charts
B)Local weather forecasts
C)Aviation Area Forecast
D)Local TV weatherperson

Question 38

PVT
The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a

A)Frontogenesis
B)The collision line
C)Front
D)Squall-line

Question 39

PVT
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?

A)Frost disrupts the smooth flow of wind over the wing causing reduced lift.
B)It increases the weight of the aircraft and changes the weight and balance.
C)Frost changes the basic aerodynamics of the airfoil, thereby causing reduced lift.
D)There is no hazard only ice on the wings cause a hazard.

Question 40

PVT
A sailplane pilot can differentiate between a spin and a spiral dive because in a spiral dive:

A)The airspeed does not increase
B)A spiral is caused by a stall
C)The g-loads increase
D)They are the same thing

Question 41

PVT
In the Northern Hemisphere, if a glider is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally

A)Be correct when turning from a Easterly or Westerly course
B)Be in the opposite direction when the glider turns from a Northerly direction
C)Be in a turn to the North when accelerating from or to the South when decelerating when the glider is turning away from an Easterly or Westerly path
D)No change whatsoever

Question 42

PVT
If your glider is equipped with 4096 code radar beacon transponder, the code utilized for normal operations is

A)1202
B)1200
C)7500
D)No code is needed

Question 43

PVT
What would be a proper action or procedure to use if the pilot is getting too low on a cross-country flight in a sailplane?

A)Climb where and when you can
B)Once you reach 1000 feet AGL look for a place to land
C)At 2000 feet AGL, have a suitable landing area chosen and at 1500 feet AGL have a specific landing field chosen
D)You should never fly cross country in a non-powered plane

Question 44

PVT
A pilot unintentionally enters a steep diving spiral to the left. What is the proper way to recover from this attitude without overstressing the glider?

A)Pull back hard on the stick
B)Turn hard to the left and invert the glider
C)Relax the back pressure on the stick
D)Relax the back pressure while leveling the wings. Then slowly pull back of on the stick to level the descent.

Question 45

PVT
The sailplane has become airborne and the towplane loses power before leaving the ground. The sailplane should release immediately and

A)Land to the left of direction
B)Land to the right of direction
C)Land straight ahead
D)Try and fly over the towplane and then land in front of the towplane

Question 46

PVT
A sailplane has a best glide ratio of 23:1. How many feet will the glider lose in 8 nautical miles?

A)2400 feet
B)1840 feet
C)1 mile
D)2100 feet

Question 47

PVT
The minimum allowable strength of a towline used for an aerotow of a glider having a certificated gross weight of 700 pounds is

A)560 pounds
B)700 pounds
C)1400 pounds
D)2100 pounds

Question 48

PVT
When using a towline having a breaking strength more than twice the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider, an approved safety link must be installed at what point(s)?

A)On the glider
B)At the points where the towline is attached to the glider and to the towplane
C)On the towplane where the line is connected
D)There is no requirement

Question 49

PVT
For the aerotow of a glider that weighs 700 pounds, which towrope tensile strength would require the use of safety links at each end of the rope?

A)850 pounds.
B)1,040 pounds.
C)1,450 pounds.
D)700 pounds

Question 50

PVT
In addition to the standard briefing, what additional information should be asked of the weather briefer in order to evaluate soaring conditions?

A)The Thermal indexes
B)The winds aloft
C)The moisture index
D)Where dry line are in the atmosphere.

Question 51

PVT
The lift differential that exists between the advancing main rotor blade and the retreating main rotor blade is known as

A)P factor
B)Dissymmetry of lift
C)Ground effect
D)Transverse flow effect

Question 52

PVT
With calm wind conditions, which flight operation would require the most power?

A)Hovering in a right turn
B)Hovering in a left turn
C)Hovering out of ground effect
D)Autorotation

Question 53

PVT
Select the UNICOM frequencies normally assigned to stations at landing areas that are used exclusively as heliports.

A)121.5 MHz
B)118.4 MHz
C)123.05 and 123.075 MHz
D)121.5 and 133 MHz

Question 54

PVT
What action is most appropriate when an envelope over-temperature condition occurs?

A)Throw all extra weight overboard
B)Land as soon as possible to let the engine cool off
C)Hover in ground effect until the envelop cools
D)Climb to cooler temperatures

Question 55

PVT
What action should the pilot take if engine failure occurs at altitude?

A)Pull back on the cyclic
B)Lower the collective pitch control to descend, to maintain rotor RPM
C)Pull up on the collective to maintain rotor RPM
D)Pull up on the cyclic and the collective to slow the forward motion

Question 56

PVT
Ground resonance is most likely to develop when

A)Taking off in a calm wind
B)Landing in gusty winds
C)When a hard landing causes shocks to the helicopter, thereby causing the rotor blades to become unbalanced
D)Is caused by the blades while the helicopter is hovering in ground effect.

Question 57

PVT
If the pilot were to make a near-vertical power approach into a confined area with the airspeed near zero, what hazardous condition may develop?

A)Autorotation
B)Ground resonance when landing
C)Bouncing the landing causing the tailrotor to strike the ground
D)A settling with power condition

Question 58

PVT
Which is appropriate for a helicopter approaching an airport for landing?

A)Remain below the traffic pattern at about 500 feet AG and from the opposite side of the traffic flow
B)Flow with fixed wing aircraft
C)Approach under fixed wing but on the same side as their normal traffic pattern.
D)Approach the airport from the departure end of the runway so taking off fixed wing aircraft can see and avoid

Question 59

two things determine the term 'angle of attack'?

A)The wing and the relative flow of the wind
B)The chord of the wing and the relative wind direction across it
C)The lateral roll of the wing
D)The attitude of the pilot when confronted with bad weather

Question 60

statement relates to Bernoulli's principle?

A)Mass is always conserved in an equation
B)Every action has an equal and opposite reaction
C)Air moving over a wing causes a high pressure to develop under the wing drawing the plane upward into the air
D)The airfoil (wing) splits an air mass causing the air to move faster over the top of the wing and causing a low pressure above the wing and pulling the wing skyward

Question 61

activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on?

A)The emergency alert network
B)121.5 and 243.0 MHz
C)120.2 and 115 MHz
D)122.8 and 243 MHz

Question 62

otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a recreational pilot should squawk which VFR code?

A)1500
B)7500
C)1200
D)1212

Question 63

making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?

A)1200
B)7500
C)7676
D)The last squawk code issued on the last flight

Question 64

making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?

A)1185
B)1700
C)1200
D)7700

Question 65

is one purpose of wing flaps?

A)Allows the pilot to approach at a steeper angle without increasing the speed of the plane.
B)Changes the weight and balance of the plane.
C)Contracts the wing to make the pilot land at a slower flight
D)They are used only on take-off

Question 66

does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?

A)The best landing speed of the airplane
B)Maneuvering speed or turbulent weather penetration speed
C)Best glide speed
D)Never exceed speed

Question 67

Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by

A)The electromagnetic effects of the instruments and equipment in the plan
B)The difference between true north and magnetic north
C)The turning of the aircraft to the right
D)No compass is always true; you should expect a degree or two difference in any compass

Question 68

has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

A)The air traffic controller
B)The passengers
C)The FAA
D)The Pilot

Question 69

below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

A)A steady green light
B)A pulsating red light that you are below the glideslope
C)A steady white light
D)A pulsating white light

Question 70

does the 'yellow demarcation bar' marking indicate?

A)Hold short line, as the other side of the line is the active runway
B)The engine run-up area
C)Emergency vehicle positioning area
D)Aircraft positioning location

Question 71

radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally

A)10NM
B)15NM
C)20 NM
D)5NM

Question 72

action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

A)Watch the show of military aircraft fighting each other
B)Contact a controlling agency for a clearance
C)Use extreme caution
D)VFR has no need to talk to anyone

Question 73

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when

A)operating in Class B airspace
B)operating in areas of reduced visibility or 10 NM of an airport
C)operating on days when heavy air traffic can be expected
D)operating at night on the ground

Question 74

executing an emergency approach to land a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because it allows for...

A)Cooling the engine down
B)Improving your odds of making a sound judgment where to land
C)Maintaining a constant descent angle
D)Having less chance of being injured in an emergency landing

Question 75

Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers for a flight is the responsibility of

A)The Pilot in Command
B)The passengers
C)The person designated as the flight attendant
D)The is no responsibility it is every person for themselves when flying in a private aircraft

Question 76

antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of impulsivity?

A)"Do it quickly to get it over with."
B)"It could happen to me."
C)"Not so fast, think first."

Question 77

pilot with two passengers on board landed on a 2,100 foot east-west gravel strip having an elevation of 1,800 feet. The temperature is warmer than expected and after computing the density altitude, the pilot determined the takeoff distance over a 50 foot obstacle to be 1,980 feet. The airplane is 75 pounds under gross weight. What would be the best choice?

A)Go for the flight as there is a leeway of 120 feet for takeoff
B)Have the pilot take off by himself and see how the takeoff performance was without the weight of the passengers.
C)Call the tower and see if anyone else has reported climb-out performance problems
D)Postpone the flight and wait for cooler temperatures to recalculate takeoff performance

Question 78

destination airport has one runway, 08-26, and the wind is calm. The normal approach in calm wind is a left hand pattern to runway 08. There is no other traffic at the airport. A thunderstorm about 6 miles west is beginning to develop to its mature stage, and rain is starting to reach the ground. The pilot decides to

A)Fly normal approach to runway 8
B)Fly a right hand approach to runway 8
C)Fly the approach to runway 26
D)Fly to the west for a fun ride

Question 79

pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in his/her body by

A)Talking out loud, breathe into a bag, or slow your breathing
B)Breathe rapidly to increase oxygen to the lungs
C)Breathe deeply
D)Use the aircraft's portable oxygen system

Question 80

lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as

A)Pilot Error
B)Oxygen narcosis
C)Spatial disorientation
D)Situation awareness