Deck 16: Union List, State List, and Centre-State Relations

Question 1

Which of the following matters are not included in the Union List?
I. Defence
II. Prisons
III. Liquor policy
IV. Ports
V. Irrigation

A)III and IV
B)III, IV and V
C)II, III, IV and V
D)II, III and V

Answer 1

II, III and V

Question 2

Which of the following is not in the State List under the Constitution of India?

A)Fisheries
B)Agriculture
C)Insurance
D)Gambling

Answer 2

Insurance

Question 3

Railways is a subject on the:

A)Concurrent List
B)Union List
C)State List
D)Residual List

Answer 3

Union List

Question 4

Which of the following is regarded as an essential function of the State ?

A)To run schools for education
B)To provide defence against external attacks
C)To prevent diseases
D)To maintain good roads

Question 5

Which of the following taxes is exclusively and totally assigned to the Central Government by the Constitution

A)Estate Duty
B)Sales Tax
C)Corporation Tax
D)Taxes on Railway fares and freight

Question 6

Which of the following is not included in the State List in the Constitution of India?

A)Police
B)Prison
C)Law and Order
D)Criminal Procedure Code

Question 7

Which of the following items comes under the Concurrent List?

A)Inter-State rivers
B)Trade Unions
C)Citizenship
D)Local Government

Question 8

The first State to become bifurcated after independence was:

A)Madras
B)Bombay
C)Punjab
D)Assam

Question 9

When was the Madras State renamed Tamil Nadu?

A)1969
B)1970
C)1968
D)1971

Question 10

Which of the following did India acquire from France?

A)Yanam
B)Mahe
C)Karaikal
D)All of these

Question 11

Which one of the following is not administered by a Lieutenant Governor?

A)Delhi
B)Puducherry
C)Chandigarh
D)Andaman and Nicobar

Question 12

The old name of which State/Union Territory is wrongly given?

A)Karnataka - Mysore
B)Tamil Nadu - Madras
C)Lakshadweep - Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindiv Islands
D)Meghalaya - Eastern Hill Province

Question 13

Which of the following States and the year of their creation is incorrectly matched?

A)Andhra Pradesh : 1956
B)Maharashtra : 1960
C)Arunachal Pradesh : 1987
D)Goa : 1987

Question 14

The Sarkaria Commission dealing with the Centre-State .relationship has not laid down which of the following regarding the appointment of Governors?

A)A politician from the ruling party at the Centre should not be appointed to a State run by some other party
B)The person should not be too closely connected with the politics of the State where he is to be posted
C)He should have travelled extensively in and out of India
D)He should be eminent in some walk of life

Question 15

English is the official language of which of the following States?

A)Manipur
B)Nagaland
C)Karnataka
D)Andhra Pradesh

Question 16

Which one of the following was an associate State of India before becoming a full fledged State?

A)Meghalaya
B)Mizoram
C)Sikkim
D)Manipur

Question 17

Which of the following features is/are contrary to the norms of a federal polity?
1) Common All India Service
2) Single integrated judiciary
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A)1 only
B)2 only
C)Both 1 and 2
D)Neither 1 nor 2

Question 18

A special category State invariably

A)is a border State
B)has harsh terrain
C)has low literacy rate
D)has poor infrastructure

Question 19

The vesting of 'residuary' powers in the central government by the Constitution of India indicates

A)that India is a federal polity
B)that India is neither federal nor unitary
C)that India is quasi federal
D)unitary character of Indian polity

Question 20

Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?

A)The President of India
B)The Speaker of Lok Sabha
C)The Prime Minister of India
D)The Union Finance Minister

Question 21

In the Constitution of India, the word 'Federal' is used in

A)the Preamble
B)Part III
C)Article 368
D)Nowhere

Question 22

Which of the following statements with regard to the Federal System' is/are correct?
1) In a federation, two sets of governments co-exist and there is distribution of power.
2) There is a written constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A)1 only
B)2 only
C)Both 1 and 2
D)Neither 1 nor 2

Question 23

Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched?

A)Union List : Banking
B)State List : Agriculture
C)Concurrent List : Marriage
D)Residuary List : Education

Question 24

In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India gave verdicts which have a direct bearing on the Centre-State relations?

A)Keshavananda Bharati case
B)Vishakha case
C)S. R. Bommai case
D)Indira Sawhney case

Question 25

Which one among the following pairs of level of government and legislative power is not correctly matched?

A)Central government : Union List
B)Local governments : Residuary powers
C)State governments : State List
D)Central and State governments : Concurrent List

Question 26

With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?

A)It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
B)It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings
C)It ensures transparency in financial administration
D)None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

Question 27

Which of the following Union Territories attained statehood in February, 1987 ?

A)Goa
B)Arunachal Pradesh
C)Pondicherry
D)Daman and Diu

Question 28

The State of Bombay was bifurcated into Maharashtra and Gujarat on May 1, in the year:

A)1958
B)1959
C)1962
D)1960

Question 29

What was the status of Sikkim at the commencement of the Constitution?

A)A part B State
B)An independent State
C)An independent kingdom attached to India by a special treaty
D)A part C State

Question 30

When did the first linguistic State of Andhra come into existence?

A)October 2, 1953
B)October 1, 1953
C)April 1, 1953
D)January 5, 1953

Question 31

For those Union Territories, which have no Legislative Councils of their own, laws are passed by:

A)Union Ministry
B)President, through the appointed Administrator
C)Parliament
D)Appointed Administrator

Question 32

Which of the following does not give correctly the name of the original State out of whose territory the new State was created?

A)Andhra Pradesh from the State of Madras
B)Arunachal Pradesh from Assam
C)Meghalaya from Assam
D)Goa from Maharashtra

Question 33

The States Reorganisation Act created ______ States and _______ Union Territories.

A)14;7
B)14;6
C)15;7
D)15;6

Question 34

Which of the following were Union Territories before becoming States?
I. Himachal Pradesh
II. Manipur
III. Sikkim
IV. Tripura

A)I, II and IV
B)I and II
C)II and III
D)I and III

Question 35

The first general elections in India were held in:

A)1949
B)1950
C)1951
D)1947

Question 36

The Congress lost its monopoly of power in the States for the first time after the elections of:

A)1967
B)1971
C)1977
D)1955

Question 37

The State Election Commission can be removed from office:

A)only by the Governor
B)in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court
C)only by the President on the advice of the Chief Justice of the concerned State
D)in the same manner as the Vice-President of India

Question 38

Electioneering has to stop in a constituency:

A)one day before the election
B)48 hours before election starts
C)36 hours before a poll commences
D)48 hours before the closing hour of polling

Question 39

Who is responsible for the registration of voters?

A)Government
B)Voters
C)Political parties
D)Election Commission

Question 40

Who can cast their votes by postal ballot?
I. Members of the Armed Forces.
II. Officials on election duty.
III. Foreign Service personal when posted abroad.

A)I and III
B)II and III
C)III only
D)I, II and III

Question 41

A political party is recognised by the Election Commission only if:
I. it has been engaged in political activity for a continuous period of five years.
II. has returned at least one member of the Lok Sabha for every 2Smembers of that House or any fraction of that number elected from that State.
III. has polled not less than six percent of the total number of valid votes polled by all contesting candidates at the general elections.
IV. has contested election in four or more States in three consecutive general elections.

A)I and II
B)I, III and IV
C)I, II and III
D)I, II, III and IV

Question 42

What is the correct sequence of steps in electoral procedure?
I. Filing of nominations.
II. Presidential notification.
III. Scrutiny of nomination papers.
IV. Withdrawal of candidature.
V. Allotment of symbols.

A)I, III, IV, V, II
B)II, I, IV, V, III
C)I, III, V, IV, II
D)II, I, III, IV, V

Question 43

Recognition to a political party is accorded by:

A)the Speaker of the Lok Sabha in the case of national parties and the Speaker of Legislative Assemblies in the case of regional parties
B)the Election Commission
C)the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
D)a Committee of Whips

Question 44

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A)The Election Commissioner scan not be removed from their office except on recommendations by the Chief Election Commissioner
B)In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and other 'Election Commissioners, the matter is decided by the Law Commission
C)The Chief Election Commissioner and' other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers
D)The term of office of an Election Commissioner is six years from the date he assumes office or till the day he attains the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier

Question 45

With reference to India, consider the following electoral systems:
1) System of direct election on the basis of adult suffrage.
2) System of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
3) List system of proportional representation.
4) Cumulative system of indirect representation.
Which of these have been adopted for various elections in India?

A)1 and 2
B)2 and 3
C)1, 3 and 4
D)1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 46

State funding of elections takes place in :

A)USA and Canada
B)Britain and Switzerland
C)France and Italy
D)Germany and Austria

Question 47

Consider the following tasks:
1) Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections.
2) Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State-Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President.
3) Giving recognition to political parties, allotting election symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election.
4) Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes.
Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?

A)1, 2 and 3
B)2, 3 and 4
C)1 and 3
D)1, 2 and 4

Question 48

The conditions of service and tenure of the Election Commissioner is prescribed by:

A)the Constitution
B)Parliament
C)the President
D)Government

Question 49

Who has the power to decide an election petition?
I. District Court
II. Supreme Court
III. High Courts
IV. Tribunals

A)I, II and III
B)IV only
C)II and IV
D)II and III

Question 50

A person is eligible to vote in the general elections if he or she:
I. is a citizen of India.
II. is not less than 21 years of age.
III. does not hold any office of profit under the Government.
IV. is not disqualified on grounds of unsound mind.

A)I, II and III
B)I and IV
C)I and II
D)I, II and IV

Question 51

The Area of Lok Sabha Constituency for the purpose of general election is determined by the :

A)Delimitation Commission
B)Election Commission
C)Census Commission
D)President

Question 52

Which of the following is not correct?

A)The Election Commission consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners as President may fix
B)The Election Commission conducts the elections to the Parliament, the State Legislatures, the offices of the President and Vice-President and all local bodies
C)The Chief Election Commissioner is the Chairman of the Election Commission
D)The conditions of service of the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be varied to his disadvantage

Question 53

The declaration which outlines the future programme and policy of a political party issued on the eve of a general election is called:

A)white paper
B)manifesto
C)yellow paper
D)mandate

Question 54

The jurisdiction of the Finance Commission does not extend to:

A)recommendation of the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes
B)recommendation of the allocation to the States of the respective shares of such tax proceeds
C)recommendation of the allocation of funds among the various heads of expenditure in the Union and State budgets
D)recommendation of the principles which govern the Grants-in-aid of the revenue of the States out of the . Consolidated Fund of India

Question 55

The first Law Officer of the Government of India is:

A)Chief Justice of India
B)Law Minister
C)Attorney General
D)Auditor General

Question 56

Who is the highest Law Officer of a State?

A)Attorney General
B)Advocate General
C)Solicitor General
D)Secretary General Law Department

Question 57

Which of the following is not true regarding the Attorney General of India?

A)He represents Government in any reference made by the President under Article 143
B)His consent is necessary for initiating proceedings for contempt in certain cases
C)His consent is necessary for finalization of appointment of Judges to State High Courts
D)He appears in courts of law on behalf of the Houses of Parliament or the Speaker

Question 58

In the discharge of his functions, the Attorney General is assisted by :

A)a Solicitor General
B)two Solicitors-General and four Additional Solicitors-General
C)a Solicitor General and two Additional Solicitors General
D)None of the above

Question 59

The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in :

A)any High Court
B)Supreme Court
C)any Sessions Court
D)any Court of law within the territory of India

Question 60

Which of the following are true regarding the Attorney General of India?
I. He is the first Law Officer of the Government of India.
II. He has the right of audience in all Courts in India.
III. He has the right to speak and vote in the Houses of Parliament or any Parliamentary Committee.
IV. He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the High Court.

A)I and II
B)I, II and III
C)II, III and IV
D)I, II, III and IV

Question 61

Which of the following is/are correct with regard to the office of Attorney General of India?
I. He is a member of the Cabinet.
II ) He can speak in either House of Parliament and vote on any issue.
III. He must be qualified to become a Judge of the Supreme Court.
IV. His remuneration is fixed by Parliament.

A)II and IV
B)I, II and IV
C)III only
D)III and IV

Question 62

The functions of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India include auditing and reporting on the receipts and expenditure of:

A)Union Government only
B)State Government only
C)Union and State Governments
D)Union and State Governments and companies substantially financed by both

Question 63

Term of Comptroller and Auditor General of India is:

A)6 years
B)65 years of age
C)6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
D)None of the above

Question 64

State which of the following statements is incorrect?

A)Comptroller and Auditor General controls all disbursements and audits the accounts of both the Union and the State Governments
B)He annually submits a report to the President relating to the accounts of Union
C)The annual report of the Comptroller and Auditor General is considered by Public Accounts Committee of Parliament
D)No money by the Union and State Governments can be spent without prior approval of the Comptroller and Auditor General

Question 65

Which of the following are true regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
I. The office of the CAG has been created by the Constitution.
II. He holds office for a term of five years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier.
III. He can be removed from office only by impeachment.
IV. He has to audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India and of each State and Union Territory having a Legislative Assembly and see whether expenditure has been in accordance with the law.

A)I, II, III and IV
B)I, III and IV
C)II and III
D)III and IV

Question 66

The Comptroller and Auditor General can be removed from office:

A)in the same way as the President can be removed
B)in the same manner as that prescribed for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge
C)by the President on a report by the Supreme Court
D)in none of the above ways

Question 67

In case of which of the following, the method of removal from office is the same?
I. Judge of the Supreme Court.
II. Chief Election Commissioner.
III. President of India.

A)I and II
B)II and III
C)I and III
D)I, II and III

Question 68

Which of the following political parties came into being before independence?
I. Communist Party of India (Marxist)
II. Communist Party of India
III. Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
IV. Bharatiya Janata Party

A)I and II
B)II only
C)I, II and III
D)II and IV

Question 69

Zonal Council are provided:

A)by the Constitution
B)by Parliamentary Act
C)under the 42nd Amendment Act
D)by Presidential ordinance

Question 70

The Ex-officio Chairman of a Zonal Council is:

A)one of the Union Ministers
B)the Governor of the State where the Zonal Council meets
C)the Chief Minister of the State where the Council meets
D)elected by the member-State Chief minister

Question 71

The main purpose of Zonal Councils is to:

A)settle disputes between States in a Zone
B)advise on matters of common interest to States in a Zone
C)ensure that laws passed by various States do not conflict with each other
D)devise best ways of utilising available resources of States

Question 72

An Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 under Article 263 of the Constitution by the:

A)President
B)Parliament
C)Government
D)Planning Commission

Question 73

The duties envisaged by the Constitution for the Inter-State Council are to :
I. inquire into and advise on disputes between States
II. investigate matters of common interest for two or more States
III. make recommendation for coordination of policy and action relating to any subject
IV. enforce provisions relating to the freedom of trade and commerce

A)I, II and IV
B)I, II and III
C)II and IV
D)II, III and IV

Question 74

The members of the Inter-State Council are:
I ) Six cabinet ministers nominated to it
II) Chief Ministers of all States
III) Secretaries of Union Ministries
IV) Governors of all States

A)I and II
B)I, II and III
C)II only
D)II and IV

Question 75

The Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers and Council of Ministers are all members of :

A)Planning Commission
B)National Development Council
C)Zonal Council
D)Regional Council

Question 76

National Development Council is :

A)political body
B)non-political body
C)statutory body
D)None of the above

Question 77

According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the following can be its Chairman?

A)Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
B)Any serving Judge of the High Court
C)Only a retired Chief Justice of India
D)Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court

Question 78

Which of the following is not true about the Lok Pal Bill ?

A)The Lok Pal is institutionalised set-up to put curbs on erring Ministers
B)Once appointed, the Lok Pal can hold office for a maximum period of five years
C)Complaints to the Lok Pal can be made by any citizen other than a public servant
D)The Lok Pal is appointed by the Chief Justice of Supreme Court

Question 79

Who among the following cannot be removed from office except in the manner prescribed in the Constitution of India?

A)The Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
B)The Governor of a State
C)The Chief Election Commissioner
D)The Chairman, Finance Commission

Question 80

Consider the following statements:
1) The Attorney General of India can be a member of any Parliamentary Committee.
2) The Attorney General of India can take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament.
3) To be appointed as the Attorney General of India, a person must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

A)1 and 2
B)2 and 3
C)1 and 3
D)1, 2 and 3