Deck 24: Disorders of White Blood Cells and Lymphoid Tissues

Question 1

A 5th grade elementary student asks the school nurse how much blood is in an entire body. The nurse should respond that the average grown-up adult has

A) 2 to 4 cups of blood in his or her body.
B) 3 pints of blood in total.
C) 3 to 4 quarts of blood in his or her body.
D) 5 to 6 L of blood throughout his or her body.

Answer 1

5 to 6 L of blood throughout his or her body.

Question 2

A hospital laboratory technician is performing routine blood analysis as part of an inpatient's assessment and is examining the sample in a test tube following processing in a centrifuge and the addition of an anticoagulant. Which of the following observations would the technician most likely interpret as an anomaly?

A) The bottom layer of blood in the tube accounts for around one third of the total volume.
B) The middle layer of cells appears white to gray in color.
C) The top layer of cells is too thin to visualize without microscopy.
D) The yellowish fluid on the top of the sample appears to constitute around one half of the total volume.

Answer 2

The bottom layer of blood in the tube accounts for around one third of the total volume.

Question 3

During science class, a student asks, "What's the difference between plasma and serum in the blood?" The nurse responds that the primary difference between plasma and serum is that plasma contains

A) fibrinogen.
B) heparin.
C) white blood cells.
D) hydrogen ions.

Answer 3

fibrinogen.

Question 4

A student makes the statement to a colleague, "Blood plasma is essentially just a carrier for the formed elements like red blood cells and white blood cells." What would be the most accurate response to this statement?

A) "That's not really true. Plasma is crucial in the immune and inflammatory responses."
B) "Actually, plasma plays a significant role in nutrient and waste transport."
C) "Not really. Plasma also contributes to the processes of protein synthesis and hematopoiesis."
D) "Actually, plasma is integral to the proper function of the liver and maintenance of acid-base balance."

Question 5

The blood work of a 44-year-old male patient with a diagnosis of liver disease secondary to alcohol abuse indicates low levels of albumin. Which of the following phenomena would a clinician be most justified in anticipating?

A) Impaired immune function
B) Acid-base imbalances
C) Impaired thermoregulation
D) Fluid imbalances

Question 6

A nurse practitioner is providing care for a client with low levels of the plasma protein gamma globulin. The nurse would recognize that the client is at risk of developing which of the following health problems?

A) Jaundice
B) Anemia
C) Infections
D) Blood clots

Question 7

Which of the following statements best conveys a characteristic of red blood cells?

A) They lack organelles and soluble enzymes.
B) They contribute to the maintenance of blood pH.
C) They help maintain the body's fluid balance.
D) They are self-replicating.

Question 8

When looking at a granulocyte under a microscope, the anatomy student would describe it as a cell

A) lacking granules.
B) having a kidney-shaped nucleus.
C) having no nuclei.
D) shaped like a sphere with multilobar nuclei.

Question 9

Following an injury resulting in a small cut from a knife, the first cells to go to the area of the cut would be the

A) neutrophils.
B) erythrocytes.
C) albumin.
D) basophils.

Question 10

A 29-year-old construction worker got a sliver under his fingernail 4 days ago. The affected finger is now reddened, painful, swollen, and warm to touch. Which of the following hematological processes is most likely occurring in the bone marrow in response to the infection?

A) Proliferation of immature neutrophils
B) High circulatory levels of myeloblasts
C) Increased segmented neutrophil production
D) Phagocytosis by myelocytes

Question 11

When talking about the lifespan of various blood components, the students should know that once a neutrophil moves into tissue, it lives approximately for how long?

A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 2 days
D) 4 days

Question 12

When talking about the various types of granulocytes, which granule contains heparin, an anticoagulant?

A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Basophils
D) Lymphocytes

Question 13

A physician is explaining to a 40-year-old male patient the importance of completing his course of antibiotics for the treatment of tuberculosis. The physician explains the damage that could occur to lung tissue by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Which of the following phenomena would underlie the physician's explanation?

A) Tissue destruction results from neutrophil deactivation.
B) Nonspecific macrophage activity leads to pulmonary tissue destruction and resulting hemoptysis.
C) Macrophages form a capsule around the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria, resulting in immune granulomas.
D) Neutrophils are ineffective against the Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigens.

Question 14

A couple who is expecting their first child has been advised by friends to consider harvesting umbilical cord blood in order to have a future source of stem cells. The couple has approached their caregiver with this request and is seeking clarification of exactly why stem cells are valuable and what they might expect to gain from harvesting it. How can their caregiver best respond to the couple's enquiry? Stem cells can

A) "help correct autoimmune diseases and some congenital defects."
B) "be used to regenerate damaged organs should the need ever arise."
C) "be used as source of reserve cells for the entire blood production system."
D) "help treat some cancers and anemias, but they must come from your child himself or herself."

Question 15

Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of the process of hematopoiesis?

A) Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) produce cytokines that activate progenitor cells.
B) Progenitor cells differentiate into precursor cells.
C) Various subtypes of pluripotent stem cells eventually differentiate into the cellular components of blood.
D) Self-replicating precursor cells differentiate into specific CSFs.

Question 16

Which of the following colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) is given to ESRD patients to help with their chronic anemia?

A) Erythropoietin (EPO)
B) Thrombopoietin (TPO)
C) Neupogen
D) Interleukin

Question 17

A nurse is providing care for several patients on an acute medical unit of a hospital. Which of the following patients would be most likely to benefit from hematopoietic growth factors?

A) A 51-year-old female patient with liver failure secondary to hepatitis
B) A 61-year-old female patient with end-stage renal cancer
C) A 55-year-old obese male patient with peripheral neuropathy secondary to diabetes
D) A 44-year-old man with a newly diagnosed brain tumor

Question 18

A geriatrician is following a number of clients on a subacute geriatric medical unit, some of whom require diagnostic blood work. Which of the following clients would be most likely to have an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) screening test ordered? An adult with

A) a diagnosis of Alzheimer disease and depression
B) orthostatic hypotension and syncopal episodes.
C) congestive heart failure.
D) systemic lupus erythematosus.

Question 19

An oncologist has ordered a bone marrow biopsy for a client and is explaining the reasons for the test and what the client might expect during the test. Which of the following explanations best reflects an aspect of a bone marrow biopsy?

A) "I'll take a sample of your bone marrow from your breastbone or your spine."
B) "I will be harvesting a sample of your stem cells for examination."
C) "I need a more accurate count of your blood components than normal blood work is able to provide."
D) "I need to get samples of the types of blood cells that your body is producing."

Question 20

Following a bone marrow biopsy, which of the following assessments would indicate the patient is experiencing a complication as a result of this diagnostic procedure?

A) BP 90/60, heart rate 132, excess bleeding, and hematoma noted at the insertion site
B) BP 130/80, oxygen saturation 95%, and crackles heard on inspiration
C) Respiratory rate 24 and complaining of pain at insertion site
D) Heart rate regular 64 beats/minute and temperature 99.6°F orally