Deck 8: Antifungal and Antiviral Agents
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Deck 8: Antifungal and Antiviral Agents
1
The following statements are true of ketoconazole except which one?
A) Ketoconazole is an imidazole that is used in dentistry.
B) Hepatoxicity subsequent to the administration of ketoconazole is thought to be an idiosyncratic reaction.
C) Ketoconazole has a masculinizing effect by increasing testosterone levels.
D) At least 2 hours should pass between the ingestion of an antacid and the administration of ketoconazole.
E) Ketoconazole is available as a cream.
A) Ketoconazole is an imidazole that is used in dentistry.
B) Hepatoxicity subsequent to the administration of ketoconazole is thought to be an idiosyncratic reaction.
C) Ketoconazole has a masculinizing effect by increasing testosterone levels.
D) At least 2 hours should pass between the ingestion of an antacid and the administration of ketoconazole.
E) Ketoconazole is available as a cream.
Ketoconazole has a masculinizing effect by increasing testosterone levels.
2
Which of the following is a synthetic antifungal agent available in the form of a slowly dissolving, sugar-containing lozenge for oral use?
A) Clotrimazole
B) Ketoconazole
C) Fluconazole
D) Nystatin
A) Clotrimazole
B) Ketoconazole
C) Fluconazole
D) Nystatin
Clotrimazole
3
Topical acyclovir:
A) will prevent the transmission of herpes labialis.
B) has been effective in the treatment of herpes labialis infections in nonimmunocompromised patients.
C) does not prevent the recurrence of herpes labialis.
D) Both a and b are correct.
E) Both b and c are correct.
A) will prevent the transmission of herpes labialis.
B) has been effective in the treatment of herpes labialis infections in nonimmunocompromised patients.
C) does not prevent the recurrence of herpes labialis.
D) Both a and b are correct.
E) Both b and c are correct.
does not prevent the recurrence of herpes labialis.
4
Ketoconazole should not be used with _____ because it could reduce the absorption of ketoconazole.
A) penicillin V
B) metronidazole
C) anticholinergic agents
D) acyclovir
A) penicillin V
B) metronidazole
C) anticholinergic agents
D) acyclovir
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5
Which of the following is the usual adult dose of ketoconazole for the treatment of Candida species?
A) 5 ml of aqueous suspension (100,000 U/ml)four times daily
B) 200 to 400 mg orally daily
C) One pastille four to five times daily
D) One troche one to five times daily
A) 5 ml of aqueous suspension (100,000 U/ml)four times daily
B) 200 to 400 mg orally daily
C) One pastille four to five times daily
D) One troche one to five times daily
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6
Which dose form of acyclovir has been effective for the treatment of herpes labialis?
A) Oral
B) Topical
C) Pastille
D) Troche
A) Oral
B) Topical
C) Pastille
D) Troche
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7
Nystatin is used for both the treatment and the prevention of _____ in susceptible cases.
A) blastomycosis
B) histoplasmosis
C) oral candidiasis
D) tinea
A) blastomycosis
B) histoplasmosis
C) oral candidiasis
D) tinea
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8
The most frequent adverse reaction(s)associated with ketoconazole is (are):
A) diarrhea.
B) nausea and vomiting.
C) xerostomia.
D) premature ventricular contractions.
A) diarrhea.
B) nausea and vomiting.
C) xerostomia.
D) premature ventricular contractions.
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9
The main advantage of nystatin pastilles over the aqueous suspension is that:
A) the pastilles do not contain sugar like the suspension.
B) 15 minutes are required for the lozenge to dissolve in the mouth.
C) the pastilles have twice rather than four times dosing a day as in the suspension, improving compliance.
D) the pastilles are swallowed, whereas the suspension should be spit out.
A) the pastilles do not contain sugar like the suspension.
B) 15 minutes are required for the lozenge to dissolve in the mouth.
C) the pastilles have twice rather than four times dosing a day as in the suspension, improving compliance.
D) the pastilles are swallowed, whereas the suspension should be spit out.
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10
Which of the following is true of acyclovir?
A) It works by inhibiting replication of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
B) It should be taken on an empty stomach because food affects the drug's absorption.
C) The antiviral action of acyclovir includes herpes simplex viruses types 1 and 2 (HSV-1 and HSV-2), but it is not effective against varicella-zoster virus or Epstein-Barr virus.
D) The most common adverse effects associated with oral acyclovir are anorexia and a funny taste in the mouth.
A) It works by inhibiting replication of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
B) It should be taken on an empty stomach because food affects the drug's absorption.
C) The antiviral action of acyclovir includes herpes simplex viruses types 1 and 2 (HSV-1 and HSV-2), but it is not effective against varicella-zoster virus or Epstein-Barr virus.
D) The most common adverse effects associated with oral acyclovir are anorexia and a funny taste in the mouth.
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11
The mechanism of action of nystatin involves binding to the:
A) 30S ribosomal subunit of bacterial rRNA.
B) 50S ribosomal subunit of bacterial rRNA.
C) sterols in the fungal cell membrane.
D) enzymes in the nucleus of molds.
A) 30S ribosomal subunit of bacterial rRNA.
B) 50S ribosomal subunit of bacterial rRNA.
C) sterols in the fungal cell membrane.
D) enzymes in the nucleus of molds.
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12
Viruses are difficult to treat because they cooperate with the host's cells.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true; the second part is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false; the second part is true.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true; the second part is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false; the second part is true.
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13
Which of the following is not an imidazole?
A) Clotrimazole
B) Ketoconazole
C) Fluconazole
D) Nystatin
A) Clotrimazole
B) Ketoconazole
C) Fluconazole
D) Nystatin
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14
Which of the following statements is true concerning clotrimazole?
A) It is available in the form of an aqueous suspension for oral use.
B) It is the only antifungal for oral use that does not contain sugar.
C) Clotrimazole has been reported to produce elevated liver enzyme levels in approximately 85% of patients.
D) Systemic clotrimazole should not be administered to a pregnant woman.
A) It is available in the form of an aqueous suspension for oral use.
B) It is the only antifungal for oral use that does not contain sugar.
C) Clotrimazole has been reported to produce elevated liver enzyme levels in approximately 85% of patients.
D) Systemic clotrimazole should not be administered to a pregnant woman.
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15
The most serious adverse reaction associated with ketoconazole is:
A) tachycardia.
B) hepatotoxicity.
C) hypotension.
D) achlorhydria.
A) tachycardia.
B) hepatotoxicity.
C) hypotension.
D) achlorhydria.
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16
Which of the following agents has poor oral absorption?
A) Nystatin
B) Itraconazole
C) Terbinafine
D) Griseofulvin
A) Nystatin
B) Itraconazole
C) Terbinafine
D) Griseofulvin
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17
All of the following are antifungal agents that are useful in dentistry except:
A) miconazole.
B) docosanol.
C) clotrimazole.
D) ketoconazole.
A) miconazole.
B) docosanol.
C) clotrimazole.
D) ketoconazole.
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18
Which of the following is used prophylactically against candidiasis in immunocompromised patients or for the treatment of candidal infections that do not respond to other agents?
A) Nystatin
B) Ketoconazole
C) Fluconazole
D) Clotrimazole
A) Nystatin
B) Ketoconazole
C) Fluconazole
D) Clotrimazole
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19
Thrush is:
A) an allergic reaction.
B) an idiosyncrasy.
C) oropharyngeal candidiasis.
D) a serious systemic fungal infection.
A) an allergic reaction.
B) an idiosyncrasy.
C) oropharyngeal candidiasis.
D) a serious systemic fungal infection.
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20
Which of the following antifungal agents is produced by Streptomyces noursei?
A) Fluconazole
B) Clotrimazole
C) Ketoconazole
D) Nystatin
A) Fluconazole
B) Clotrimazole
C) Ketoconazole
D) Nystatin
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21
Oral candidal infections are often treatable with oral antifungal lozenges and rinses.
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22
Docosanol 10% has been shown to decrease healing time by about _____ in patients with recurrent orolabial herpes when started within 12 hours of the appearance of prodromal symptoms.
A) One half day
B) 2 days
C) 5 days
D) 7 to 10 days
A) One half day
B) 2 days
C) 5 days
D) 7 to 10 days
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23
Which of the following classes of drugs used to treat human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)block the progression from HIV infection to AIDS by preventing the passage of the virus across the human cell membrane?
A) Integrase inhibitor
B) Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C) Nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D) Entry inhibitor
E) Protease inhibitor
A) Integrase inhibitor
B) Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C) Nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D) Entry inhibitor
E) Protease inhibitor
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24
No acyclovir products are approved for the treatment of recurrent herpes labialis in the immunocompetent patient.
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25
What is integrase in the context of infection with human immunodeficiency virus?
A) It measures the CD4 lymphocyte count to determine the health of the patient.
B) It is a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.
C) It prevents the cleavage of viral protein precursors needed to generate functional structural proteins in and modulation of reverse transcriptase activity.
D) It terminates the synthesis of viral DNA.
A) It measures the CD4 lymphocyte count to determine the health of the patient.
B) It is a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.
C) It prevents the cleavage of viral protein precursors needed to generate functional structural proteins in and modulation of reverse transcriptase activity.
D) It terminates the synthesis of viral DNA.
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26
Most antiviral agents are protein synthesis inhibitors.
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27
Which of the following agents is a nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor used to treat HIV infection?
A) Saquinavir
B) Nevirapine
C) Zidovudine
D) Raltegravir
A) Saquinavir
B) Nevirapine
C) Zidovudine
D) Raltegravir
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28
Which of the following groups of drugs used to treat HIV can interfere with the action of the HIV-infected cells?
A) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
C) Protease inhibitors
D) Both a and b
E) Both b and c
A) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
C) Protease inhibitors
D) Both a and b
E) Both b and c
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29
Which of the following describes ketoconazole? (Select all that apply.)
A) It binds to sterols in the fungal cell membrane.
B) It requires an acidic environment for adequate systemic absorption.
C) It may interact with warfarin.
D) It is the drug of choice for treatment of tinea.
A) It binds to sterols in the fungal cell membrane.
B) It requires an acidic environment for adequate systemic absorption.
C) It may interact with warfarin.
D) It is the drug of choice for treatment of tinea.
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30
Which of the following statements is true of zidovudine (AZT, Retrovir)?
A) It prevents cells containing human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)from replicating.
B) The toxicity of zidovudine is related to bone marrow depression.
C) It has no effect on the number and frequency of opportunistic infections.
D) Both a and b are true.
E) Both b and c are true.
A) It prevents cells containing human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)from replicating.
B) The toxicity of zidovudine is related to bone marrow depression.
C) It has no effect on the number and frequency of opportunistic infections.
D) Both a and b are true.
E) Both b and c are true.
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31
Which of the following types of HIV drugs are also used to treat hepatitis B? (Select all that apply.)
A) Nucleoside analog or nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) Nonnucleoside analogs or nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C) Protease inhibitor
D) Fusion/entry inhibitor
E) Integrase inhibitor
A) Nucleoside analog or nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) Nonnucleoside analogs or nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C) Protease inhibitor
D) Fusion/entry inhibitor
E) Integrase inhibitor
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32
Which of the following two types of hepatitis account for almost two-thirds of all cases of hepatitis?
A) A and B
B) A and C
C) B and C
D) C and D
A) A and B
B) A and C
C) B and C
D) C and D
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33
Topical acyclovir can prevent the recurrence of herpes labialis.
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34
The most common FDA-approved use of interferons is for the treatment of which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hepatitis B
B) Hepatitis C
C) Multiple sclerosis
D) Emphysema
E) Sarcoidosis
A) Hepatitis B
B) Hepatitis C
C) Multiple sclerosis
D) Emphysema
E) Sarcoidosis
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35
Nystatin is available in the form of a(n)_____ for the treatment of oral candidiasis. (Select all that apply.)
A) intramuscular injection
B) 200-mg oral tablet
C) aqueous suspension
D) pastille
A) intramuscular injection
B) 200-mg oral tablet
C) aqueous suspension
D) pastille
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36
HIV-2 is only transmitted:
A) from a woman to her child while the child is in the womb.
B) via sexual intercourse.
C) by intravenous substance abuse.
D) by sharing of bodily fluids.
A) from a woman to her child while the child is in the womb.
B) via sexual intercourse.
C) by intravenous substance abuse.
D) by sharing of bodily fluids.
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37
A person with hepatitis _____ is most likely to develop chronic hepatitis.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
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38
All currently available interferons are parenteral.
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