Deck 15: Emergency Management and Disaster Preparedness: A Comprehensive Guide

Question 1

Mitigation activities are designed to reduce losses.

Answer 1

True

Question 2

Most cities assign a high priority to emergency management.

Answer 2

False

Question 3

When considering the management structure, the command system is defined in the:

A) Emergency Operations Plan (EOP)
B) National Incident Management System (NIMS)
C) Emergency Operations Center (EOC)
D) NFPA 1600 Standard

Answer 3

Emergency Operations Plan (EOP)

Question 4

Panic flight is to be expected during a disaster.

Question 5

Short-term stress reactions to disasters:

A) Cause victims to panic
B) Often lead to post-traumatic stress syndrome
C) Lead to confusion among victims
D) Do not interfere with victims' ability to act responsibly

Question 6

Warning messages should:

A) Only come from elected officials
B) Be strongly worded and only released once to the public to make an impact
C) Be available in all the languages that the community residents speak
D) Always urge people to evacuate

Question 7

Stress effects are more likely to arise among people who have witnessed or handled death than among those who did not.

Question 8

Experience with disaster demands creates good emergency preparedness.

Question 9

High quality team organizational climates can only be achieved by large organizations.

Question 10

After a disaster, there is a good chance that which percentage of businesses will not reopen?

A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 80%
D) 40%

Question 11

An emergency plan is revised:

A) at least once a year
B) at least twice a year
C) at least once every other year
D) once every five years

Question 12

The group with the lowest level of social vulnerability is:

A) middle-class men
B) affluent women
C) elderly men
D) women who live alone

Question 13

Which of the following is the most likely to provide shielding from gamma radiation:

A) trailers
B) cars
C) tents
D) concrete building

Question 14

Drug treatment can be used to reduce the body's absorption of radioactive exposure.

Question 15

Evacuations in the United States often rely on:

A) Busses
B) Trains
C) Personal vehicles
D) Rented vehicles

Question 16

Physical vulnerability includes agricultural vulnerability.

Question 17

Social vulnerability related to a person's ability to prepare for and cope with disasters.

Question 18

An organizational capability analysis is a review of threat circumstances.

Question 19

Many cities have enough money in their budget to improve their organizational capability within a year after completing an analysis.

Question 20

A Community Vulnerability Assessment Tool (CVAT) is:

A) A plan on how to protect the community
B) A series of seven modules that a planner completes to produce a local vulnerability assessment
C) A tool that determines what threats are present in a community
D) A series of forms to fill out to submit to the State Emergency Management Agency that detail the threats that face the community

Question 21

Temporary shelter is an unplanned and spontaneously sought location that protects people from the elements.

Question 22

The weight or force resulting from the weight of the occupants, furniture, upper stories, and roof is the:

A) vertical load
B) horizontal load
C) bearing load
D) hazard force

Question 23

Accumulated exposure is the total amount of toxic or radiological dose an individual receives over a defined period of time.

Question 24

A Citizen Emergency Response Team is a:

A) Group of volunteers who have no training by will show up at a disaster.
B) Team of volunteers that is assembled from those who automatically converge on the site of a disaster.
C) A team of volunteers who set up medical triage at the site of a disaster.
D) Group of volunteers who have been given professional training in disaster response and management.

Question 25

The following is an example of personal protective equipment (ppe):

A) cars
B) homes
C) regular clothes
D) self-contained breathing apparatus

Question 26

The presence of guilt among people who do survive a disaster when others did not is:

A) disaster syndrome
B) survivor syndrome
C) post-traumatic stress
D) anxiety

Question 27

Emergency responders often abandon their roles in the face of disasters to take care of their families.

Question 28

An agent that is designed and deployed with the intent of injuring and disrupting emergency responders is a:

A) primary device
B) handheld device
C) explosive device
D) secondary device

Question 29

Population protection analysis defines the available warning mechanisms and threat circumstances.

Question 30

Which of the following tests all of the aspects of an EOC in a realistic field setting?

A) Full scale exercise
B) Functional exercise
C) Drill
D) Table top exercise

Question 31

_______annexes address special demands associated with specific disaster agents.

Question 32

Personnel responsibilities are addressed in a _______ ________ plan.

Question 33

___________protects lives and property when threats cannot be controlled.

Question 34

_______ hazards are risks that are caused by or associated with a primary hazard.

Question 35

What is turnover time?

Question 36

The highest level of impurities present in the air is the ______ _______.

Question 37

The _________ is the professional association standard that sets criteria for creating and operating successful emergency management programs.

Question 38

_________ _______ is the amount of risk exposure that individuals, organizations, or jurisdictions deem appropriate to tolerate.

Question 39

An incorrect belief is a _______.

Question 40

What is an emergency damage assessment?

Question 41

What are some common disaster myths and why are they dangerous?

Question 42

What should pre-impact planning address?

Question 43

The most critical feature that promotes COO planning success is a strong commitment by the chief executive.

Question 44

The process chain is the sequence of actions by individuals and organizations, with added resources, that ends with successful service delivery.

Question 45

The federal government has conducted continuity of operations planning since:

A) World War I
B) World War II
C) The Cold War
D) September 12, 2001

Question 46

In October 1998, President Clinton issued Top Secret Presidential Decision Directive 67 assigning FEMA the lead responsibility in an intensive 12-month effort to establish COOPs for every agency in the executive branch.

Question 47

The COO planning team should be led by a:

A) technical specialist
B) elected leader
C) highest-ranking person on the team
D) first responder

Question 48

Businesses and houses using design standards for new structures that reduce damage from hazards is an example of:

A) Preparedness
B) Mitigation
C) Response
D) Recovery

Question 49

Risk communication about environmental hazards is a long-term process

Question 50

The Hazard Mitigation Grant Program funds only short-term projects in connection with recovery from disasters declared under the provisions of the Stafford Act.

Question 51

Households and businesses may not resume normal functioning because of the lack of potable water, sewer, electric power, fuel, telecommunications, or transportation.

Question 52

Evaluations of the LEMA are:

A) completed often
B) complex and not often done
C) simple
D) only done when requested by the federal government

Question 53

The person's threat belief or decision that the information indicates an extreme event is about to occur that could threaten safety, health, property, or routine activities is a:

A) risk identification
B) risk assessment
C) protective action search
D) protective action assessment

Question 54

What begins when the decision maker concludes it is time to begin to take the protective action?

A) risk assessment
B) protective action search
C) protective action assessment
D) protective action implementation

Question 55

What drives warning recipients to try to reinterpret cues of pending danger to mean that all is really normal?

A) normalcy bias
B) fatalism
C) lack of faith in the source
D) risk assessment

Question 56

Warning content captures the warning recipients' assessments of the existence of a threat, its seriousness, and what should be done in response to it.

Question 57

Identifying the audience for communications in terms of defined characteristics-age, gender, and others-with the intent to tailor messages is referred to as:

A) audience segmentation
B) audience identification
C) vulnerability identification
D) risk segmentation

Question 58

It is very difficult to prevent or correct message distortions.

Question 59

Mass media sometimes give an official message verbatim, they prefer to editorialize.

Question 60

Effective messages are not too long or mired in details.

Question 61

The regulation of land use and building codes are usually handled by the:

A) local government
B) state government
C) federal government
D) neighborhood and trade associations

Question 62

The EOC design team should possess expertise in preparedness, information technology, ergonomics, and architecture.

Question 63

To triage patients means to:

A) set up many medical stations and treat all patients at the same time
B) take the patients to the hospital
C) separate and classify the patients according to the severity of the patient's injuries
D) use volunteers to treat the patients with few injuries and send all the seriously injured patients to the hospital

Question 64

The IMS provides flexibility in response by activating and staffing sectors based on incident demands, not preset criteria.

Question 65

An officer is responsible for managing safety at the incident. A large part of this work is creating and implementing plans for rescue, scene safety practice, and environmental mitigation following operations. This officer is referred to as a:

A) EOC administrator
B) safety officer
C) first responder
D) commanding officer

Question 66

The intent of NIMS was to create a nationwide framework for all-hazard response by all disciplines.

Question 67

CBRNE agents can arise from:

A) Hurricanes
B) Technological accidents and terrorism
C) Earthquakes
D) Floods

Question 68

The initial purpose of which program was to enhance local efforts to manage mass casualty incidents from terrorist use of CBRNE agents?

A) MMRS
B) IMS
C) NIMS
D) NFPA 1600

Question 69

An emergency planner is:

A) an emergency manager
B) a first responder
C) a civil defense director
D) all of the above

Question 70

Most practitioners would agree that emergency management is a profession.

Question 71

Which of the following test the knowledge and experience of emergency professionals and provide documentation of performance:

A) certification programs
B) FEMA
C) NFPA 1600
D) accrediting bodies

Question 72

One area of legal liability concerning emergency managers is failure to plan and is addressed under tort law.

Question 73

A _______ ________ ______ addresses the measures that will be used to preserve business operability and market share during and after a disaster.

Question 74

What is communications interoperability?

Question 75

An area not at risk but evacuated by residents is _______ ________.

Question 76

The ________ _________ _______ is dedicated to supporting scene operations with food and supplies, fuel and equipment, facilities and transport, and communications.

Question 77

_____ ______ _______ are personnel who have extended PPE, agent-specific training, and extensive specialized equipment.

Question 78

The initial commitment of resources needed for a particular adjustment following individual awareness and choice of an acceptable adjustment is _______ _______ _______ .

Question 79

The terms emergency planner and emergency manager are________.

Question 80

The lack of a trained staff is one barrier to emergency managers making full use of _______.