Deck 4: General Aspects of Pharmacology

Question 1

Which form of hypersensitivity reaction is characterised by antibody-antigen complexes that precipitate out of the blood and lodge in tissues such as skin and joints, inducing an inflammatory response?

A) Type I hypersensitivity reactions.
B) Type II hypersensitivity reactions.
C) Type III hypersensitivity reactions.
D) Type IV hypersensitivity reactions.

Answer 1

Type III hypersensitivity reactions.

Question 2

In a pharmacogenetic context, the potential negative clinical consequences of being classified as a 'responder' is:

A) ineffectiveness of the drug treatment.
B) less frequent drug dosing.
C) drug toxicity.
D) that the drug has a narrower therapeutic index.

Answer 2

ineffectiveness of the drug treatment.

Question 3

Drugs are metabolised by the liver to make them more:

A) amphipathic.
B) hydrophilic.
C) lipophilic.
D) hydrophobic.

Answer 3

hydrophilic.

Question 4

Which one of the following factors is likely to result in higher plasma drug levels?

A) Taking a water-soluble drug during a meal.
B) Administering a drug orally when a client is experiencing an episode of severe diarrhoea.
C) Administering the narcotic analgesic morphine to a person with cirrhosis of the liver.
D) Administering a drug that is subject to significant metabolism to a person whose occupation involves handling chemicals that induce microsomal enzymes.

Question 5

Drugs that are liver enzyme inducers may:

A) increase a drug's half-life.
B) increase a drug's metabolism.
C) inhibit a drug's therapeutic effect.
D) increase tissue distribution of another drug.

Question 6

The final decision to approve a drug for marketing in Australia and New Zealand rests with the:

A) Medicines Assessment Advisory Committee.
B) Ministerial council (Health).
C) Australian Drug Evaluation Committee.
D) Pharmaceutical Society.

Question 7

A client that you are caring for has advanced kidney disease and is about to commence drug therapy. In order to maintain safe plasma drug levels, the prescriber might have to consider:

A) increasing the dosage.
B) decreasing the dosage.
C) increasing the frequency of dosing.
D) increasing the dose and frequency of administration.

Question 8

Which of the following therapies would result in relatively lower plasma drug levels in neonates compared to an older child?

A) Glucocorticoid treatment when the mother received this therapy during late pregnancy.
B) Topically administered therapy applied to the skin.
C) Orally administered penicillin G.
D) Treatment with a fat-soluble drug.

Question 9

In paediatric settings, it is desirable to:

A) leave medications on the bedside locker for later administration.
B) use the vastus lateralis muscle for intramuscular injection.
C) prepare medicines for injection in front of the child.
D) advise the child that injections are painless.

Question 10

Which of the following tests characterises the drug screening process?

A) Testing for drug potency in humans.
B) The monitoring of adverse effects after the drug is released into the marketplace.
C) The identification of a chemical with potential therapeutic action.
D) The assessment of drug toxicity in animals.

Question 11

Drugs are best absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract if they are:

A) hydrophilic.
B) amphipathic.
C) lipophobic.
D) lipophilic.

Question 12

Determining the kind or dosage of drug therapy on the basis of an individual's genetic status:

A) is an example of genetic polymorphism.
B) may increase the cost of health insurance for the whole community.
C) is called drug striation.
D) may decrease the incidence of serious drug adverse reactions for some clients.

Question 13

To elicit a rapid systemic effect, the route that will enable the maximum bioavailability is:

A) intramuscular.
B) oral
C) intravenous.
D) intradermal.

Question 14

By which route are drugs not subject to the physiological process of absorption through a blood vessel wall?

A) Intramuscularly.
B) Intradermally.
C) Intravenously.
D) Subcutaneously.

Question 15

Subacute toxicity tests are characterised by:

A) repeated drug doses over a period of days to reveal tissue targets for damage.
B) tissue targets for damage associated with high single drug doses.
C) repeated drug doses for a period of months in order to assess the toxic dose ranges.
D) the effects of the drug on fertility, implantation and the developing human.

Question 16

Clearance of an acidic drug by the kidneys may be increased by:

A) alkalising the urine.
B) administering amphetamines.
C) administering ascorbic acid.
D) administering sodium hydrogen carbonate.

Question 17

In geriatric settings, it is desirable to:

A) arrange for all drugs to be dispensed to clients in childproof containers.
B) administer all drugs to all clients so that they can concentrate on resting and getting better.
C) encourage the client to learn about their medications prior to discharge.
D) use the deltoid muscle for intramuscular injection in a client with muscle wasting.

Question 18

Into which 'medicines in pregnancy' category is a drug that has caused or is suspected of causing fetal harm, but not malformations?

A) Category B.
B) Category C.
C) Category D.
D) Category X.

Question 19

Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name used in Australia and New Zealand?

A) Frusemide.
B) Furomide.
C) Furosemide.
D) Lasix.

Question 20

After a single dose of a drug with a half-life of 8 hours, how much of the drug remains after 16 hours?

A) 50%
B) 12.5%
C) 100%
D) 25%

Question 21

When a drug acts through non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme it:

A) can be overcome by giving more of the enzyme substrate.
B) is usually reversible.
C) binds to a distinct site away from the active site.
D) is lethal to the person receiving treatment.

Question 22

Glyceryl trinitrate is almost 96 per cent destroyed by the liver on its first journey through. It is therefore referred to having a:

A) low hepatic first-pass effect.
B) medium hepatic first-pass effect
C) high hepatic first-pass effect.
D) high metabolic first-pass effect.

Question 23

Individual drugs can be classified according to the following except:

A) therapeutic use.
B) mode of action.
C) molecular structure.
D) adverse drug reaction.

Question 24

When suxamethonium and thiopentone are mixed in the same syringe, the drug-drug interaction that results is:

A) summation.
B) chemical drug incompatibility.
C) potentiation.
D) augmentation.

Question 25

Which one of the following statements about pharmacodynamics is true?

A) A partial agonist can be as effective as an antagonist.
B) Ion channels do not have receptors.
C) Second messenger systems always involve G-proteins.
D) The antiasthma agent theophylline acts via a tyrosine kinase-linked receptor.

Question 26

The drug interactions that occur with cimetidine are usually due to:

A) enzyme inhibition.
B) enzyme induction.
C) protein binding.
D) summation.

Question 27

What does it mean when a medication is sold under patent?

A) The medication can only be marketed by the pharmaceutical company that manufactured it.
B) The medication can be marketed by pharmaceutical companies that did not manufacture it as long as they use a different trade name from the pharmaceutical company that made the medication.
C) The medication can be marketed by pharmaceutical companies that did not manufacture it as long as they use the same trade name as the pharmaceutical company that made the medication.
D) The medication can be marketed by any pharmaceutical company without restrictions placed on its trade name.

Question 28

In disrupting the synthesis of folic acid in bacteria, sulfonamides act:

A) as competitive inhibitors.
B) as non-competitive inhibitors.
C) by physical action.
D) by none of the above.

Question 29

Highly lipophilic substances can cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB). Which of the following cannot cross the BBB in normal circumstances?

A) Alcohol.
B) Penicillin.
C) Glucose.
D) Antihistamines.

Question 30

In neonates and infants, drug absorption through the skin is:

A) enhanced because the surface area to body weight is less than that of adults.
B) enhanced because the surface area to body weight is greater than that of adults.
C) reduced because the surface area to body weight is less than that of adults.
D) reduced because the surface area to body weight is greater than that of adults.

Question 31

A common drug-food interaction is between grapefruit juice and:

A) aspirin.
B) paracetamol.
C) felodipine.
D) ibuprofen.

Question 32

Drugs with generic names that end in the suffix -pril are members of the drug group called:

A) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) serotonin receptor antagonists.
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.

Question 33

Which of the following drugs is not excreted by the lungs?

A) Ethanol.
B) Salbutamol.
C) Isoflurane.
D) Metoprolol.

Question 34

Which one of the following factors would not be expected to increase the rate of drug absorption from the small intestines?

A) A small-sized drug molecule.
B) Delayed gastric emptying.
C) An increase in gut blood flow.
D) The majority of drug molecules in an un-ionised state.

Question 35

Compared to a young adult, which of the following tends to increase in the elderly?

A) The rate of gastric emptying.
B) Plasma protein concentration.
C) Metabolic processes.
D) Adipose tissue levels.

Question 36

A drug mechanism that works to neutralise stomach acid is considered to be:

A) an action targeting ion channels.
B) a chemical action.
C) an agonist action.
D) a physical action.

Question 37

Competitive inhibition slows down the rate of normal chemical reactions because:

A) the normal substrate is malfunctioning.
B) the target enzyme binds temporarily with a 'look-alike' substrate rather than its actual substrate.
C) it takes a long time for the enzyme to develop memory or recognition of the competing substances.
D) it causes enzyme confusion.

Question 38

Pharmacological effect is achieved by:

A) the portion of free or unbound drug.
B) the portion of protein-bound drug.
C) ionisation.
D) penetrating the blood-brain barrier.

Question 39

Phase 1 metabolism of a drug can involve:

A) glucuronisation.
B) sulphation.
C) conjugation.
D) oxidation.

Question 40

The extent of binding of a drug to a receptor is termed:

A) potency.
B) specificity.
C) affinity.
D) efficacy.

Question 41

A type of hypersensitivity reaction to a drug, described as anaphylaxis, which is mediated by IgE antibodies is a:

A) Type I hypersensitivity reaction.
B) Type II hypersensitivity reaction.
C) Type III hypersensitivity reaction.
D) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction.

Question 42

Pharmacodynamics describes the physiological processes that act on a drug once it enters the body, or how the body handles the drug.

Question 43

During pregnancy, drug absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is variable and unpredictable due to slowed peristalsis and gastric emptying.

Question 44

The transfer of drugs from the maternal circulation into fetal circulation depends on the dose and physicochemical properties of the drug, and transplacental transport systems.

Question 45

Paediatric drug dosage can be calculated by using the body surface area, age, and body weight.

Question 46

The ability of a drug to produce an effect at a receptor is referred to as:

A) affinity.
B) specificity.
C) efficacy.
D) potency.

Question 47

If a drug accumulates in one tissue (that is, the drug is extensively bound to a tissue), its volume of distribution is low.

Question 48

A protein-bound drug may get displaced by another drug through competition for binding sites on plasma proteins. The displaced drug may then exert toxicity if it has a lower margin of safety.