Deck 14: The Modulation of Celullar Growth and Proliferation

Question 1

A premixed combination of trimethoprim and sulphamethoxazole is called:

A) trimethoxazole.
B) co-trimoxazole.
C) sulphaprim.
D) blephamide.

Answer 1

co-trimoxazole.

Question 2

Which one of the following statements is relevant regarding antimicrobial drugs that are time-dependent?

A) It is important to measure peak and trough plasma concentrations.
B) The plasma drug concentration must be 60% of the maximum effective concentration for it to be effective.
C) An increase in dose will result in an increased effect.
D) The period above the minimum effective concentration determines the effectiveness of treatment.

Answer 2

The period above the minimum effective concentration determines the effectiveness of treatment.

Question 3

Which one of the following antibacterial drug groups acts by inhibiting microbial cell wall synthesis?

A) Quinolones.
B) Macrolides.
C) Nitroimidazoles.
D) Glycopeptide antibacterials.

Answer 3

Glycopeptide antibacterials.

Question 4

How often should aminoglycoside antimicrobial agents be administered?

A) Once daily.
B) Two times a day.
C) Three times a day.
D) Four times a day.

Question 5

What should a person be advised to do when taking sulfonamide therapy?

A) Ensure an adequate fluid intake.
B) Monitor folate status during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
C) Have a full blood examination during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
D) All of the above.

Question 6

An antimicrobial drug mechanism of action generally regarded as bacteriostatic is one that:

A) interferes with metabolic processes.
B) inhibits cell wall synthesis.
C) promotes protein synthesis.
D) disrupts cell membranes.

Question 7

When a person commences therapy with tetracycline, they should be advised to:

A) cease therapy when they feel better.
B) avoid ingestion just before bedtime.
C) take with meals.
D) regard abdominal pain as a tolerable side effect and not to bother their doctor about it.

Question 8

What medication regime is ineffective in treating microorganisms that are part of the ESCAAPPM group?

A) A carbapenem agent.
B) A penicillin agent.
C) An aminoglycoside agent.
D) A fluoroquinolone agent.

Question 9

Which drug group is considered a suitable alternative to penicillins when there is a known allergy?

A) The macrolides.
B) The cephalosporins.
C) Gycopeptide antibacterials such as vancomycin.
D) The quinolones.

Question 10

The antiretroviral drug zidovudine belongs to the following group:

A) protease inhibitors.
B) fusion inhibitors.
C) non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors.
D) nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors.

Question 11

The actions of the sulfonamides and trimethoprim:

A) are considered bactericidal.
B) are identical, as they interrupt the process at the same point.
C) interfere with nucleic acid synthesis.
D) are not influenced by folic acid stores.

Question 12

An antimicrobial agent with a narrow spectrum of activity reflects a drug that has:

A) only a weak antibiotic action.
B) effectiveness against a relatively small number of microbes.
C) a low potency.
D) a narrow margin of safety.

Question 13

When using hydroxychloroquine as a preventative form of therapy for malaria, it is:

A) started one week before entering and continued for one week after leaving a malaria-affected area.
B) started two weeks before entering and continued for two weeks after leaving a malaria-affected area.
C) started three weeks before entering and continued for three weeks after leaving a malaria-affected area.
D) started one week before entering and continued for four weeks after leaving a malaria-affected area.

Question 14

When using the anthelmintic albendazole to treat intestinal parasites, the person should be advised to take it:

A) with meals.
B) after meals.
C) with milk.
D) before meals.

Question 15

Which of the following antimicrobial agents has a dose-dependent activity on microorganisms?

A) The glycoprotein, vancomycin.
B) The glycoprotein, teicoplanin.
C) The penicillin, amoxycillin.
D) The aminoglycoside, gentamicin.

Question 16

If the antifungal terbinafine is administered orally for more than 6 weeks for a fungal nail infection, the person should be advised to have:

A) blood cholesterol levels monitored.
B) liver enzyme levels and blood count monitored.
C) respiratory function monitored.
D) aural function monitored.

Question 17

Which one of the following is not a common adverse effect of treatment with penicillin?

A) Photosensitivity.
B) Nausea or vomiting.
C) Oedema.
D) The appearance of a rash or urticaria.

Question 18

The desired therapeutic effect of colony stimulating factors are to:

A) increase the rate of colonisation of bacteria within a suspension.
B) increase the numbers of circulating leukocytes.
C) increase the heart rate.
D) increase the rate of platelet aggregation.

Question 19

During treatment with selected sulfonamides a client may experience diarrhoea. This usually indicates:

A) a change in the balance of gut flora.
B) gastrointestinal tract bleeding.
C) drug crystallisation.
D) an allergic reaction.

Question 20

Interferon is indicated in the treatment of the following except:

A) myasthenia gravis.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) selected leukemias.
D) genital warts.

Question 21

Which one of the following is not considered a current problem associated with gene therapy?

A) Viral vectors are the only means of delivering genes to cells.
B) The treatment may induce cancer in the client receiving gene therapy.
C) The proportion of target cells in a tissue that receive the inserted gene is low.
D) Defective genes cannot be replaced or removed.

Question 22

Which one of the following drug groups directly targets the intracellular cascade of reactions leading to proliferation and survival of cancerous cells?

A) S-phase inhibitors.
B) Monoclonal antibodies.
C) Radioactive samarium.
D) Protein kinase inhibitors.

Question 23

An example of a disinfectant is:

A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.

Question 24

An example of an antiseptic is:

A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.

Question 25

A clinical use of colony stimulating factors is to treat:

A) neutropenia.
B) some forms of leukaemia.
C) renal cell carcinoma.
D) chronic hepatitis.

Question 26

Which one of the following is a cell cycle specific cytotoxic drug group?

A) Alkylating agents.
B) Vinca alkaloids.
C) Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone analogues.
D) Cytotoxic antibiotics.

Question 27

The form of gene therapy characterised by direct insertion of genes into particular cells within the body is known by the term:

A) in vitro procedures.
B) in vivo procedures.
C) ex vivo procedures.
D) in situ procedures.

Question 28

Antibiotic-type cytotoxic agents such as doxorubicin and dactinomycin should only be administered:

A) orally.
B) intrathecally.
C) subcutaneously.
D) intravenously.

Question 29

In isoniazid treatment for tuberculosis, supplementation with ________ may be required:

A) niacin
B) riboflavin
C) thiamine
D) pyridoxine

Question 30

The benefit of combining PEG with interferon is because:

A) the dose interval is reduced.
B) influenza type symptoms are reduced.
C) it can be produced by recombinant DNA technology.
D) it increases the activity of interferon.

Question 31

In regard to the adverse effects associated with vaccination, a significant concern is:

A) that convulsions and brain damage are relatively common consequences.
B) there is no prophylactic treatment for the febrile state and local reactions that commonly develop.
C) the onset of anaphylactic reactions.
D) there is no information readily available to families about the risks of this treatment.

Question 32

Cetrimide inhibits bacterial growth because of its ________ properties.

A) detergent
B) oxidising
C) alkylating
D) reducing

Question 33

Somatic gene therapy is regarded as:

A) ethically unacceptable in most countries.
B) a form of selective breeding.
C) a form of therapy where genes are inserted into body cells rather than sex cells.
D) a means to treat the next generation in a family affected by a severe hereditary disease.

Question 34

A common primary target for most immunosuppressant drugs is:

A) all cytokine production.
B) macrophages.
C) T cell activation.
D) immunoglobulin function.

Question 35

When administering non-human antisera to provide temporary immunity for viral or bacterial infection, make sure that ________ is available in case of anaphylaxis.

A) hydrocortisone
B) promethazine
C) noradrenaline
D) adrenaline

Question 36

Mrs Debere, suffering from tuberculosis, noticed a deterioration in visual acuity. This was most likely related to:

A) ethambutol.
B) streptomycin.
C) isoniazid.
D) rifampicin.

Question 37

An unusual consequence of rifampicin antituberculotic therapy is that:

A) faeces turn black.
B) faeces turn white.
C) urine turns red.
D) urine turns bright yellow.

Question 38

An example of a sterilant is:

A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) ethylene oxide.
D) penicillin.

Question 39

Tapeworms are:

A) cestodes.
B) nematodes.
C) cathodes.
D) trematodes.

Question 40

The stage of the cell cycle characterised by RNA synthesis and rapid growth is called the:

A) G₁ phase.
B) S phase.
C) G₂ phase.
D) M phase.

Question 41

The antifungal amphotericin can be used:

A) topically, intravenously and in lozenge form.
B) intramuscularly, intrathecally and transdermally.
C) intramuscularly and intravenously.
D) topically and orally.

Question 42

It is recommended that surgical prophylaxis with antibiotics is not undertaken with a:

A) mastectomy.
B) coronary bypass surgery.
C) splenectomy.
D) large bowel resection.

Question 43

Apart from its use as an amoebicide, metronidazole is useful for:

A) malaria.
B) leprosy.
C) anaerobic bacterial infections.
D) staphylococcal infections.

Question 44

Individuals need to remain within a medical facility for about ________ minutes after vaccination.

A) 5
B) 15
C) 60
D) 90

Question 45

Enteric-coated capsules of the reverse transcriptase inhibitor didanosine, which can inhibit the replication of the HIV virus, should be taken:

A) on an empty stomach about 30 minutes before food.
B) with the midday meal.
C) with a fatty meal.
D) with a glass of milk.

Question 46

Trimethoprim is best taken:

A) as a single daily dose in the morning.
B) as a single daily dose at midday.
C) as a single daily dose in the mid afternoon.
D) as a single daily dose at bedtime.

Question 47

Tinea cruris is also known as:

A) athlete's foot.
B) ringworm.
C) onychomycosis.
D) jockstrap itch.

Question 48

________ should be assessed before and following a long-term course of therapy using chloroquine or its derivatives.

A) Liver enzyme levels
B) Visual acuity
C) Cardiac enzyme levels
D) Urea and creatinine levels

Question 49

The species of malaria that causes the most infections is.

A) P. ovale
B) P. malariae
C) P. vovax
D) P. falciparum

Question 50

Ancestim, a colony stimulating factor, should not be given ________ before or after cytotoxic therapy dosing.

A) 6 hours
B) 12 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 48 hours

Question 51

A drug used to treat amoebiasis is:

A) vancomycin.
B) tinidazole.
C) niclosamide.
D) pyrantel.

Question 52

Which of the following reverse transcriptase inhibitors can cause pancreatitis?

A) Didanosine.
B) Zidovudine.
C) Delaviridine.
D) Nevirapine.

Question 53

________, which occur in about one-third of individuals on voriconazole, should be regularly monitored. These changes are reversible when voriconazole therapy is completed.

A) Hearing and vestibular changes
B) Vision changes
C) Muscle strength changes
D) Taste changes

Question 54

Which tests should be regularly undertaken during rifampicin therapy?

A) Monitor the full blood count and liver function during the course of therapy.
B) Monitor electrolyte levels and cardiac function during the course of therapy.
C) Monitor renal function and exercise tolerance during the course of therapy.
D) Monitor hearing and eye function during the course of therapy.

Question 55

Systemic candidiasis can be treated with parenteral:

A) amphotericin.
B) griseofulvin.
C) itraconazole.
D) terbinafine.

Question 56

The DNA polymerase inhibitor aciclovir can suppress the symptoms of several viral infections except:

A) chickenpox.
B) herpes type I.
C) measles.
D) Epstein-Barr infections.

Question 57

Malaria can be caused by at least ________ species of Plasmodium.

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

Question 58

Administration of the antibacterial agent ________ may cause prolongation of the QT interval and development of serious ventricular dysrhythmias.

A) erythromycin or clarithromycin
B) benzylpenicillin or amoxycillin
C) tetracycline or doxycycline
D) gentamicin or tobramycin

Question 59

All vinca alkaloids are administered:

A) orally.
B) intravenously.
C) intrathecally.
D) intramuscularly.

Question 60

Viruses are best defined as:

A) infectious agents.
B) primitive bacteria.
C) microorganisms.
D) mycoplasma.

Question 61

An example of a broad-spectrum penicillin is:

A) amoxycillin.
B) clavulanic acid.
C) flucloxacillin.
D) procaine penicillin.

Question 62

An antituberculotic drug with a sterilising action is:

A) isoniazid.
B) ethambutol.
C) rifampicin.
D) gentamicin.

Question 63

Tea tree oil has been proven to have a therapeutic effect for people suffering from:

A) acne.
B) vaginitis.
C) migraine headache.
D) osteoarthritis.

Question 64

In the context of antituberculotic drug action, a bactericidal drug:

A) kills all tuberculosis bacteria.
B) targets dividing bacteria.
C) kills persistent dormant bacteria.
D) targets bacteria in the lungs.

Question 65

Which of the following is not a likely cause of antimicrobial resistance?

A) Using narrow-spectrum antibiotics instead of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
B) Excessive use of antibiotics in animals bred for human consumption.
C) Failure to conform to the dosing regime.
D) Spraying excess antibiotic in the air after drawing it up for injection.

Question 66

The actions of streptomycin and amikacin:

A) are considered first-line for tubercolosis.
B) are ineffective for the bactericidal phase.
C) interfere with protein synthesis.
D) are best mediated by the oral route.

Question 67

Individuals with antibiotic-associated colitis should be treated with:

A) codeine.
B) cholestyramine.
C) loperamide.
D) tetracycline.

Question 68

The most active agent for leprosy is:

A) dapsone.
B) rifampicin.
C) thalidomide.
D) streptomycin.

Question 69

The action of reverse transcriptase, the enzyme used by retroviruses, is:

A) transcription from DNA to RNA.
B) blockage of transcription.
C) increased transcription in the host cell.
D) lysis of the host cell.

Question 70

A typical drug combination in the first-line treatment of leprosy is:

A) thalidomide and ofloxacin.
B) minocycline and prednisolone.
C) clofazimine and cycloserine.
D) dapsone and rifampicin.

Question 71

An example of an antibacterial agent that attacks the cell wall is:

A) nitrofurantoin.
B) tetracycline.
C) neomycin.
D) penicillin.

Question 72

An example of an antimalarial agent that alters mitochondrial function is:

A) chloroquine.
B) mefloquine.
C) primaquine.
D) proguanil.

Question 73

An advantage of the retroviruses as vectors in gene therapy is that:

A) a wide variety of cells can be infected with the therapeutic gene.
B) genes can be inserted into chromosomes.
C) both dividing and non-dividing cells can be infected.
D) the gene expression is long-lasting.

Question 74

What is the key difference between the common cold and influenza?

A) Influenza is a respiratory tract infection.
B) There is a vaccine for influenza.
C) The symptom of a headache is typical of influenza only.
D) The common cold can be treated with antiviral medications.

Question 75

The antiviral agents called neuraminidase inhibitors are useful in treating:

A) HIV/AIDS infection.
B) respiratory syncytial virus infection.
C) herpes infection.
D) influenza infection.

Question 76

If a microbe has developed resistance to a certain antimicrobial preparation the prescriber should:

A) increase the frequency of the dose of the antimicrobial.
B) increase the dose of the antimicrobial.
C) determine which antimicrobial the microbe may be sensitive to.
D) prescribe topical preparations only.

Question 77

Which of the following antimicrobial agents inhibits DNA replication?

A) Linezolid.
B) Mupirocin.
C) Colistin.
D) Norfloxacin.

Question 78

Which one of the following are adverse effects of the influenza drug zanamivir?

A) Nausea.
B) Bronchospasm.
C) Dyspnoea.
D) All of the above.

Question 79

What should a woman who is pregnant be advised to do when taking atovaquone therapy?

A) Supplement with vitamin D.
B) Supplement with calcium.
C) Supplement with vitamin A.
D) Supplement with folic acid.

Question 80

It has been estimated that the carrier rate of Entamoeba hystolitica in poorly sanitised areas is:

A) 50%.
B) 20%.
C) 10%.
D) 75%.