Deck 38: Restorative Therapy

Question 1

In a normally spaced dentition, how much space should be left between the punched holes in the rubber dam material?

A) 1 to 2 mm
B) 3 to 4 mm
C) 5 to 6 mm
D) 7 to 8 mm

Answer 1

3 to 4 mm

Question 2

Ideally, amalgam restorations should be finished and polished:

A) after 24 hours.
B) after 1 week.
C) after 1 month.
D) at time of placement.

Answer 2

after 24 hours.

Question 3

Finishing and polishing an amalgam increases the likelihood that:

A) plaque will not adhere to the restoration.
B) the restoration will be free of voids.
C) proper trituration was used.
D) All of the above are correct.

Answer 3

plaque will not adhere to the restoration.

Question 4

When placing a rubber dam, what is the definition of the anchor tooth?

A) The tooth being restored
B) The tooth being extracted
C) The distal-most tooth in the arch
D) The tooth the retainer is placed on

Question 5

Which of the following is true of composite restoration placement?

A) Composite restoration placement is very technique sensitive.
B) Composite restorations can be placed in the presence of saliva.
C) Composite restorations are best placed with metal instruments.
D) All of the above are true.

Question 6

When placing a Class II restoration, a wedge is typically placed from the:

A) lingual.
B) buccal.
C) mesial.
D) distal.

Question 7

A tooth-colored restorative material that releases fluoride but is not as durable as composite is called:

A) amalgam.
B) flowable composite.
C) condensable composite.
D) resin-modified glass ionomer.

Question 8

Silver has what function in an amalgam?

A) Increases strength and corrosion resistance
B) Decreases strength and corrosion resistance
C) Increases oxidation
D) Decreases oxidation

Question 9

Which of the following is (are) part(s) of the rubber dam retainer?

A) Bow
B) Prongs
C) Forceps holes
D) All of the above

Question 10

A retainer that has a "W" on it indicates that it is _____ retainer.

A) a wingless
B) a winged
C) both a winged and a wingless
D) neither a winged nor a wingless

Question 11

Burrs incorporated with abrasives are commonly used to finish and polish composite restorations. It is recommended to start with a fine-grit abrasive and progress to course-grit abrasives.

A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.

Question 12

Which of the following is NOT a material used in direct restorations?

A) gold
B) glass ionomer
C) amalgam.
D) composite resin

Question 13

Ideally, composite restorations should be finished and polished:

A) after 24 hours.
B) after 1 week.
C) after 1 month.
D) at time of placement.

Question 14

A dental cement that is used for caries control is:

A) glass ionomer.
B) zinc phosphate.
C) polycarboxylate.
D) all of the above.

Question 15

Which of the following is true of matrix bands?

A) Prevents overhangs
B) Provides a framework for reconstruction of missing anatomy
C) Supports establishment of proximal contacts
D) All of the above

Question 16

Which of the following rubber dam equipment allows the operator to place the retainer on the tooth?

A) Rubber dam forceps
B) Rubber dam punch
C) Rubber dam frame
D) Rubber dam stamp

Question 17

Amalgam has what element as the largest amount?

A) Aluminum
B) Tin
C) Copper
D) Mercury

Question 18

Which of the following polishing agents is used to polish amalgam restorations to a shiny surface?

A) Zirconium silicate
B) Aluminum oxide
C) Garnet
D) Tin oxide

Question 19

Rubber dam placement is indicated for all of the following except:

A) moisture control.
B) visibility.
C) client protection.
D) client with severe asthma.

Question 20

Cements are more soluble than the overlying restoration. Secondary decay can occur where the cement dissolves.

A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are false.
D) Both statements are true.

Question 21

Which of the following is not a principal of cavity preparation?

A) Collaboration
B) Establish outline form
C) Resistance and retention form
D) Convenience form

Question 22

The main purpose of using a rubber dam frame is for:

A) securing the edges of the rubber dam.
B) enhanced isolation.
C) increased tooth accessibility.
D) none of these; rubber dam frames are not used when placing a rubber dam.

Question 23

When comparing zinc phosphate and glass ionomer cement, which of the following is true of zinc phosphate?

A) More acidic
B) More compatible with dental pulp
C) Releases fluoride
D) All of the above

Question 24

A properly mixed amalgam has what characteristic in appearance?

A) Crumbly
B) Dry
C) Grainy
D) Shiny

Question 25

Which of the following is true of zinc oxide eugenol (ZOE) cement?

A) Releases fluoride
B) Strong
C) Newest cement
D) Protects the pulp

Question 26

Which of the following is an example of an indirect restoration?

A) Amalgam restoration
B) Composite restoration
C) Gold foil
D) Porcelain crown

Question 27

When polishing amalgams, green and brown cups and points are used to:

A) remove large voids.
B) remove excess amalgam.
C) prepare the surface for finishing.
D) polish amalgam to a high luster.

Question 28

The process of abrading the surface of an amalgam to reduce the size of the scratches until the surface appears shiny is called:

A) polishing.
B) finishing.
C) cutting.
D) abrading.

Question 29

Which of the following components act as a "coating" for the filler particles in composite material?

A) Adhesives
B) Polymers
C) Matrix
D) Silane coupling agent

Question 30

A Tofflemire retainer and metal matrix band would most likely be used to place what class of restoration?

A) II
B) III
C) IV
D) V