Deck 10: Medical Emergencies

Question 1

An electrical shock called defibrillation may restore a normal heart rhythm. Each minute defibrillation is delayed reduces the victim's chance of survival by 10%.

A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Answer 1

Both statements are true.

Question 2

A ventilation mask has benefits over mouth-to-mouth resuscitation because it provides a barrier for prevention of disease transmission and creates a seal over the mouth and nose.

A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Answer 2

Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.

Question 3

Rescue breathing must begin as soon as possible because clinical death is cessation of the heart and brain death can begin within 4 minutes.

A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Answer 3

The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

Question 4

The most important part of BLS is providing chest compressions and defibrillation. The first cycle of compressions (30 per 18 seconds) is delivered without the delay.

A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Question 5

What is the term for a person who is not responding when spoken to and shaken gently?

A) Unconscious
B) Ventricular fibrillation
C) Dental fear and anxious
D) Immunosuppression

Question 6

Which medication is administered for a mild allergic reaction?

A) Diphenhydramine
B) Epinephrine
C) Amoxicillin
D) Nitrous oxide
E) Ammonia ampule

Question 7

Which of the following is the term used to describe the level of care or intervention used for victims of life-threatening illnesses or injuries until they can be given full medical care at a healthcare facility offering such services?

A) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
B) Rescue breathing
C) Conscious sedation
D) Basic Life Support (BLS)

Question 8

Which of the following signs is the most common one associated with severe choking?

A) A person cannot talk or breathe
B) Coughing
C) Bent over position
D) Pallor
E) Perspiration

Question 9

A good Samaritan is someone who renders aid in an emergency to an injured person on a voluntary basis. There is no need for consent for the care provided to a conscious or an unconscious person.

A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Question 10

A medical consultation should ask the client for very specific information regarding a client's diagnosis and health status. A facsimile machine is inadequate for legal documentation.

A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Question 11

What is the recommended depth of chest compressions for an adult?

A) 1 1/2 inches
B) 1 1/2 to 2 inches
C) At least 2 inches
D) 2 to 2 1/2 inches
E) At least 2 1/2 inches

Question 12

A medical consultation is performed by a dental professional after the client's medical and dental history is completed because legal liability is then the responsibility of the physician.

A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Question 13

The recommended rate for chest compressions in an adult is _____ per minute.

A) at least 20
B) 50
C) 60
D) 80
E) 100

Question 14

Preparation of all dental personnel in the office for management of medical emergencies should include training and current certification in Basic Life Support (BLS), practice in medical emergency drills, and an annual refresher course in emergency medicine. All office personnel should have emergency numbers memorized for use when needed.

A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Question 15

Any damage to the heart can disrupt the heart's electrical system and result in a cardiac arrhythmi a. The two most common interruptions in the heart rhythm are ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardi a.

A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Question 16

What is the recommended rate of rescue for a child who has a pulse but is unresponsive?

A) One breath every 5 to 6 seconds
B) Two breaths every 15 seconds
C) One breath every 30 seconds
D) Two breaths every 5 to 6 seconds
E) One breath every 3 seconds

Question 17

The head tilt-chin lift technique is the most important step in maintaining an open airway for rescue breaths because a blocked airway can be cleared with this technique.

A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Question 18

An ASA II classification indicates which of the following?

A) Normal, healthy client
B) Mild systemic disease
C) Moderate systemic disease
D) Severe systemic disease that limits activity but is not incapacitating
E) Incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life

Question 19

Reasons for the increased likelihood of medical emergencies during dental hygiene care include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?

A) The aging population
B) Increased number of drugs used in dentistry
C) Less time available for dental hygiene appointments
D) Increased number of medically compromised clients
E) Wholesome facial image

Question 20

If a client encounters a medical emergency during dental hygiene care, the dental hygienist has an option to provide emergency care or wait until emergency personnel are available. The health professional providing emergency care must be trained to provide any care given to the victim of an emergency.

A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Question 21

What are the four main risks related to dental hygiene care?

A) Hemostasis
B) Invasiveness of dental hygiene procedures
C) Drug reactions and interactions
D) Susceptibility to infection
E) Client's ability to tolerate stress of procedures planned
F) Expanded scope of dental hygiene practice
G) The oral-systemic link

Question 22

What sequence of emergency care should be provided for optimal emergency care of a nonresponsive client without a pulse?

A) AED, chest compressions, check airway, rescue breathing
B) Chest compressions, AED, check airway, rescue breathing
C) AED, check airway, rescue breathing, chest compressions
D) Check airway, rescue breathing, AED, chest compressions
E) Chest compressions, check airway, rescue breathing, AED

Question 23

Which is the correct rate of chest compressions and rescue breaths when providing single rescuer CPR for a child?

A) 30 compressions to 2 rescue breaths
B) 15 compressions to 2 rescue breaths
C) 30 compressions to 1 rescue breath
D) 15 compressions to 1 rescue breath
E) 60 compressions to 2 rescue breaths

Question 24

Which medical emergency would be characterized by slurred speech, confusion, and headache?

A) Syncope
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Uncontrolled angina
D) Cerebrovascular incident
E) Seizure

Question 25

Which of the following medical emergencies would be characterized by flushed skin, nausea, rapid heart rate, and pallor?

A) Syncope
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Uncontrolled angina
D) Cerebrovascular incident
E) Seizure

Question 26

What are the three signs or symptoms of a mild (partial) airway obstruction?

A) Possible cyanosis
B) Good air exchange
C) Coughing forcefully
D) Wheezing
E) High-pitched noise while inhaling
F) Increasing respiratory difficulty
G) Victim makes universal sign of choking

Question 27

Which of the following are signs of a client with moderate anxiety?

A) Cold sweaty palms
B) Pallor
C) Unnaturally stiff posture
D) White-knuckle syndrome
E) Xerostomia
F) Slow responses
G) History of emergency dental care only

Question 28

Which of the following are emergencies that would require placing the client in an upright position?

A) Syncope
B) Shock
C) Asthma attack
D) Congestive heart failure
E) Seizure
F) Adrenal crisis
G) Stroke

Question 29

Which of the following would be the correct emergency care to provide for a pregnant client with a foreign body obstruction?

A) Abdominal thrusts
B) Heimlich maneuver
C) Chest thrusts
D) Finger sweep
E) Rescue breathing

Question 30

Which of the following conditions would require administration of oxygen, 162 mg aspirin, and activation of emergency medical services (EMS)?

A) Syncope
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Uncontrolled angina
D) Cerebrovascular incident
E) Seizure