Deck 2: The Constitution

Question 1

_____________ are best known as the years in which the American Revolution took place.

A) 1697-1713
B) 1776-1789
C) 1861-1864
D) 1775-1783
E) 1753-1776

Answer 1

D

Question 2

According to the Declaration of Independence, human beings possess rights

A) granted them by the government.
B) protected by local authorities.
C) established by secular law.
D) endowed by their Creator.
E) guaranteed by their neighbors.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

A ____________ is a loose association of states or territorial units formed for a common purpose is known as

A) confederation.
B) republic.
C) democracy.
D) social contract.
E) constitution.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

An excess of democracy in the states was a worry that was

A) addressed during the Constitutional Convention.
B) a concern of the Anti-federalists.
C) remedied by the Bill of Rights.
D) a concern of Thomas Jefferson when he wrote the Declaration of Independence.
E) none of the above

Question 5

Which of the following was NOT a problem resulting from the weakness of the central government under the Articles of Confederation?

A) The central government had no way of raising money to finance its activities.
B) The central government could not prevent the outbreak of civil war among the states over the issue of slavery.
C) States could coin their own money, making trade between states inefficient.
D) The state governments under the confederation were too strong.
E) The national government had no way to put down such insurgencies like Shays's Rebellion.

Question 6

Under the Articles of Confederation, all national laws had to be approved by how many states?

A) thirteen
B) nine
C) six
D) three
E) none

Question 7

Signing statements are

A) unconstitutional, according to the US Supreme Court.
B) found in Article II of the US Constitution.
C) issued by presidents to set out their thinking on a law.
D) have only been used by recent presidents.
E) none of the above

Question 8

England decided to impose taxes on sugar and tea during the Colonial Era in order to

A) put down the impending colonial rebellion.
B) raise an army to put down Shays's Rebellion.
C) pay for raising an army to protect England against the French in Europe.
D) establish a prominent role of parliament under the new English government.
E) pay for the military protection against the Native Americans and their French allies.

Question 9

The author of Common Sense was

A) John Locke.
B) James Madison.
C) Alexander Hamilton.
D) Thomas Paine.
E) Thomas Jefferson.

Question 10

According to your text, which of the following presidents have issued signing statements?

A) George W. Bush
B) Teddy Roosevelt
C) Franklin Roosevelt
D) Harry Truman
E) All of the above

Question 11

The phrase, "We hold these truths to be self evident…" is found in what document??A) The Magna Carta
B) The US Constitution
C) The Articles of Confederation
D) The Declaration of Independence
E) The Federalist Papers

Question 12

Which of the following was a feature of the Articles of Confederation?

A) States could only prevent national action with nine states in support.
B) The legislature had no power to regulate commerce between the states.
C) The chief executive of the national government was subservient to the Continental Congress.
D) The states had no power to control the militia or interstate commerce.
E) States could not coin their own money.

Question 13

The Articles of Confederation

A) established a loose organization of independent states with a weak central government.
B) established a strong central government with certain powers reserved to the states.
C) created a legislature with powers to make war, levy taxes, and regulate commerce.
D) created an independent executive to carry out its provisions.
E) centralized executive powers in a national governor's office.

Question 14

America's first constitution was the

A) U.S. Constitution as ratified in 1789.
B) Articles of Confederation.
C) Declaration of Independence.
D) Magna Carta.
E) several state constitutions.

Question 15

How many of the original thirteen states had to approve an amendment to the Articles of Confederation before the amendment passed?

A) thirteen
B) three-fourths
C) two-thirds
D) one-half
E) none

Question 16

Initially, the American Revolution was fought primarily to

A) establish a basis for popular sovereignty.
B) create a democracy.
C) preserve the colonists' traditional rights.
D) eliminate unfair laws.
E) create a system of government predicated on checks and balances.

Question 17

A governmental body that had limited power under the Articles of Confederation was the

A) national presidency.
B) national courts system.
C) state legislatures.
D) Continental Congress.
E) state governors.

Question 18

Which of the following statements is a principal part of the political philosophy of Jefferson and Locke that is embodied in the Declaration of Independence?

A) Government must be obeyed if society is to work efficiently.
B) Rule by a monarchy is inherently evil.
C) People can create a new government if the government fails to protect their rights.
D) Governments should have absolute authority over the people.
E) A strong, central government is necessary for a functioning government.

Question 19

Why were the Articles of Confederation not amended or corrected?

A) Any changes required the unanimous approval of the states.
B) Any changes required the signature of the president and the House of Representatives.
C) Any changes were difficult to implement because there was no standing army.
D) Any changes required communication between thirteen very geographically distant states, and so the process was unwieldy.
E) It wasn't difficult to amend the Articles of Confederation.

Question 20

The Declaration of Independence outlined which of the following rights?

A) Public policies are not made by the people, but by the people's elected representatives acting in their stead.
B) Human beings are inherently equal and slavery is unjust, as a result.
C) The people have the right to change government, so long as government agrees with those changes.
D) People create government to rule and guide them.
E) People can void the existing social contract and agree to create a new one if the government has not lived up to its responsibilities.

Question 21

Most of the delegates to the Constitutional Convention were generally

A) old men who tended to be businessmen without formal education.
B) old men who tended to be farmers.
C) wealthy and highly educated.
D) young men who tended to have a lot in common with ordinary Americans.
E) former revolutionary war heroes.

Question 22

Republicans saw the right of the people to acquire and enjoy private property as a(n)

A) important freedom to protect against the intrusions of a tyrannical government.
B) important component to protecting religious freedom.
C) necessary condition to own slaves.
D) extension of the constitutional protection of the right to privacy.
E) protection that was absent from the Articles of Confederation.

Question 23

In the 1780s, the creation of popular assemblies in the several states

A) helped create the Whig party.
B) gave republicans reason to fear a rise of untamed democracy.
C) helped slow ratification support for the US Constitution.
D) were necessary for promoting civil liberties in the states.
E) none of the above

Question 24

Laws that helped poor farmers by postponing tax and mortgage payments were known as

A) Shays's laws.
B) shield laws.
C) stay laws.
D) creditors' laws.
E) debtors' laws.

Question 25

The Connecticut Compromise

A) established that each slave would count ¾ of a person for the purposes of representation.
B) outlawed the slave trade in 1808.
C) created a House proportionate to population along with a Senate in which all states were represented equally.
D) balanced state powers and national authority in a federalist system.
E) none of the above

Question 26

Republicanism is a doctrine that holds that

A) ordinary people should control the everyday affairs of the government.
B) natural law, popular sovereignty, and majority rule justify social contracts.
C) government is based on popular consent, limits powers of government, and prevents majority tyranny.
D) direct democracy and majority rule are favorable, in spite of the general unruliness of the ordinary classes.
E) none of the above

Question 27

Which of the following is NOT considered to be an important debate at the Constitutional Convention?

A) representation in the national government
B) the status of slavery
C) how to select the president
D) what kind of government would replace the Articles of Confederation
E) the structure of a federal judicial system

Question 28

Shays's Rebellion took place in which state??A) Massachusetts
B) Rhode Island
C) Virginia
D) New York
E) North Carolina

Question 29

According to the authors of your text, Shays's Rebellion was the result of a near "perfect storm" due to which of the following development?

A) plummeting prices for crops
B) a dramatic increase in state taxes to pay off Revolutionary War debts
C) the government of Massachusetts' insistence that the note-holders be paid in full by the state
D) the state of Massachusetts did not help debt-ridden farmers
E) All of the above

Question 30

What kind of government did the Constitution create?

A) confederal
B) direct democracy
C) parliamentary
D) unicameral
E) republican

Question 31

The ________ Plan favored small states.

A) New Jersey
B) Three-fifths
C) Virginia
D) Connecticut
E) Pennsylvania

Question 32

In the climate of crisis following Shays' Rebellion,

A) leading citizens demonstrated their growing concern with the welfare of minority factions.
B) the rebellion reinforced fears about the dangers of popular democracy.
C) prominent citizens were pleased with the ability of the government to respond quickly to a crisis.
D) public demands for a bill of rights resulted in the adoption of the first 10 amendments to the Constitution.
E) the British government began to reassert its control of the former colonies.

Question 33

Which plan called for a multi-person executive??A) The Connecticut Plan
B) The Virginia Plan
C) Franklin's Plan
D) The New Jersey Plan
E) The Northern Plan

Question 34

Shays's Rebellion

A) resulted from unhappiness over the Bill of Rights in the Constitution.
B) highlighted the weakness of the central government under the Articles of Confederation.
C) highlighted the need for state militia.
D) successfully overthrew a British outpost during the Revolutionary War.
E) illustrated the military genius of Benedict Arnold.

Question 35

The ________ Plan favored large states.

A) New Jersey
B) Three-fifths
C) Virginia
D) Connecticut
E) Pennsylvania

Question 36

The republican form of government that was favored by the Founders included the belief that

A) rule by the majority must be absolutely guaranteed.
B) limitations must be placed on government powers.
C) a democracy must be instituted as soon as possible.
D) suffrage must be extended to all white adult males.
E) direct democracy was vital to full political participation.

Question 37

Charles Beard's assessment of the intentions of the Framers of the Constitution was that the Framers

A) were engaged in a conspiracy to protect their immediate and personal economic interests.
B) were motivated solely by such concerns as the national interest, economic stability, and the preservation of liberty.
C) wanted to establish a democracy in order to put an end to an unfair system of elitism and self-interest.
D) were altruistic.
E) realized that the Articles of Confederation were too similar to England's form of government and had to be amended.

Question 38

At the Constitutional Convention, there was general consensus and agreement concerning

A) slavery.
B) representation of the states.
C) selection of the president.
D) a republican form of government.
E) individual rights

Question 39

Shays's Rebellion was a revolt of

A) farmers in western Massachusetts who took up arms to protest high taxation and foreclosure proceedings.
B) citizens in Massachusetts who did not want the state to ratify the proposed Constitution.
C) farmers in western Massachusetts who protested the absence of a Bill of Rights in the Articles of Confederation.
D) citizens in Massachusetts who opposed the British policy of taxation without representation.
E) former British loyalists intent on overthrowing the newly formed American government.

Question 40

The Virginia Plan

A) was a compromise between the New Jersey Plan and the Connecticut Plan.
B) called for a single-house legislature in which each state would have one vote.
C) was designed to create a strong central government controlled by the most populous states.
D) counted three-fifths of a state's slave population to determine taxation and representation in the House of Representatives.
E) was favored by small states, who preferred equal representation to large states.

Question 41

Which of the following was approved at the Constitutional Convention with respect to the institution of slavery?

A) Three-fifths of the state's slave population was used in the calculation of how many representatives a state was entitled to in the House of Representatives.
B) Enactments against slave trade were forbidden immediately upon ratification.
C) Nonslave states could hold runaway slaves and set them free.
D) Children of slaves would be granted citizenship and equal protection of the laws
E) all of the above

Question 42

In the event that no presidential candidate receives a majority in the Electoral College, who decides who should be president?

A) the previous president
B) the Senate
C) the previous Supreme Court
D) the House of Representatives
E) the state legislatures

Question 43

The elastic clause of the Constitution

A) gives Congress broad powers to carry out its responsibilities.
B) explicitly grants the Supreme Court ultimate authority.
C) was instrumental in keeping parties out of American politics for several decades after ratification of the Constitution.
D) grants state legislatures the power to choose college electors if no majority forms.
E) none of the above

Question 44

The power to regulate commerce, to provide a uniform currency, to declare war, and to provide for the common defense of the United States are examples of

A) powers given to state governments.
B) powers given to local governments.
C) implied powers given to the national government.
D) enumerated powers given to the national government.
E) powers granted to the executive branch of the federal government.

Question 45

The right to determine qualifications for voting is

A) granted to the Congress by the Constitution.
B) granted to the states by the Constitution.
C) not addressed by the Constitution.
D) established in the Tenth Amendment of the US Constitution.
E) is not subject to Constitutional Amendment.

Question 46

Let us say that the state of California has 52 members in the U.S. House of Representatives. How many votes does the state of California have in the Electoral College?

A) 54
B) 52
C) 26
D) 50
E) There is not enough information to answer this question.

Question 47

The US president is elected

A) directly by the American people.
B) through the Electoral College.
C) by caucus in the US Congress.
D) indirectly by political party.
E) through a proportional system of democracy

Question 48

Which of the following is a provision of the US Constitution?

A) The national government has powers to tax and regulate interstate commerce.
B) The states have the power to ratify constitutional amendments.
C) The president is commander in chief, as expressed in Article II.
D) The national government has powers to raise an army and a navy and to call state militias to national service.
E) all of the above

Question 49

A federal system of government is one in which powers are

A) divided between states and a central government.
B) divided between judicial and executive branches.
C) concentrated in a central government.
D) concentrated in state or regional government.
E) dispersed across three branches of government

Question 50

The ________ Compromise broke the deadlock at the Constitutional Convention concerning the issue of representation.

A) New York
B) Georgia
C) Connecticut
D) Virginia

Question 51

Delegates to the Constitutional Convention from large states concerned about representation in the new national Congress were most likely to support which of the following "plans"?

A) Virginia Plan
B) New York Plan
C) Rhode Island Plan
D) New Jersey Plan
E) Pennsylvania Plan

Question 52

A system of government in which powers are divided between states and a central government is called

A) a federal system.
B) a republican system of government.
C) a democracy.
D) a representative government.
E) a tyrannical system of government.

Question 53

The Electoral College provides for

A) presidential election by political parties.
B) election of the president by proportionate representation.
C) direct popular election of the president.
D) An indirect election of the president.
E) presidential election through caucuses.

Question 54

The major controversial issue over the executive branch at the constitutional convention was

A) how the president should be selected.
B) whether there should be a single or a plural executive.
C) whether the president could choose Supreme Court justices.
D) which house of the legislature would choose electors.
E) whether the president would have the power to issue signing statements.

Question 55

Which of the following is an important attribute of American federalism?

A) All adults should be allowed to vote, regardless of wealth, race, or gender.
B) Citizens should decide policy issues directly, without the participation of legislators or other elected officials.
C) States should determine qualifications for voting within their boundaries.
D) Elected officials should always represent the views of their constituents.
E) State policy trumps federal authority on issues of interstate commerce and trade.

Question 56

Dividing government powers between a national and state government is

A) how checks and balances work at the federal level.
B) is integral to the notion of separation of powers.
C) a way in which federalism fragments government power.
D) central to protecting individual rights in the Constitution.
E) ensures no tyranny of the majority.

Question 57

Which of the following is NOT one of the provisions of the U.S. Constitution?

A) The national government has powers to tax, regulate interstate commerce, and provide a uniform national currency.
B) The states have electoral votes in presidential elections and have power to ratify constitutional amendments.
C) The local governments have control over police protection, education, and the interstate highway system.
D) The national government has powers to raise an army and a navy and to call state militias to national service.
E) The president is commander in chief, as expressed in Article II.

Question 58

Which of the following best defines American federalism?

A) Some powers are reserved for the states, some powers are reserved for the central government, and some powers are shared by the states and the central government.
B) All powers are shared by the states and the central government, a system known as "checks and balances."
C) All powers are invested in the central government, which can then delegate powers to the states.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 59

Today, we would associate the ________ plan with the Senate and the ________ plan with the House of Representatives.

A) New Jersey - Virginia
B) Virginia - New Jersey
C) New Jersey - Rhode Island
D) Rhode Island - Virginia
E) none of the above

Question 60

The ________ has become one of the foundations for the growth of the federal government in the twentieth century.

A) three-fifths compromise
B) necessary and proper clause
C) "reserved powers" clause of the Tenth Amendment
D) Connecticut compromise
E) Bill of Rights

Question 61

Article I, Sections 9 and 10, forbids states from imposing taxes or duties on other states' exports or entering into foreign treaties. These provisions

A) expanded state governments' trading options.
B) broke down barriers to trade.
C) allowed only the federal government to trade with foreign nations.
D) were declared unconstitutional in Gibbons v Ogden.
E) increased the federal government's tax base.

Question 62

Article IV, Section 1, states that states must give "full faith and credit" to the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of every other state. These provisions mean that

A) one could no longer escape legal and financial obligations in one state by moving to another.
B) only the federal government can go in debt.
C) state governments can sue each other if a citizen in one state moves without paying his/her debts.
D) citizens can file for bankruptcy only in federal and not in state courts.
E) slaves who escaped to free states would themselves be free.

Question 63

Which branch of the government was made directly accountable to the people under the Constitution?

A) the House of Representatives
B) the president
C) the U.S. Supreme Court
D) the U.S. Senate
E) the electoral college

Question 64

Which of the following statements BEST reflects why the Constitution originally allowed only members of the House of Representatives to be elected directly by the people?

A) The Founders were afraid of voting fraud.
B) The Founders were afraid of unbridled democracy.
C) The Founders wanted to punish the Southern states for allowing slavery.
D) The Founders felt that the president should appoint all federal judges and U.S. Senators.
E) none of the above

Question 65

Of the various national officeholders, which was made directly accountable to the people by the original Constitution?

A) the Supreme Court
B) the Senate
C) the House of Representatives
D) the President
E) none of the above

Question 66

Which of the following rights are protected by the First Amendment?

A) freedom of religion
B) freedom of speech
C) freedom of press
D) freedom of assembly
E) all of the above

Question 67

The Bill of Rights establishes which of the following rights?

A) freedom of religion
B) the right to bear arms.
C) the right to a speedy and public trial before an impartial jury.
D) the right to a trial by jury in civil suits.
E) all of the above

Question 68

The first ten amendments to the Constitution

A) are known as the Bill of Rights.
B) were added to the Constitution to protect citizens from state governments.
C) outline the powers of each branch of the federal government.
D) provide for institutional "checks and balances."
E) initially restricted on state, not federal action.

Question 69

Separation of powers in the Constitution refers to

A) federalism between states and the national government.
B) distinct spheres of responsibility for the three branches of the national government.
C) procedures for each branch of the national government to limit the power of the other branches.
D) civilian control of the national military.
E) influence of one branch of government over another.

Question 70

For the U.S. Constitution to be established, Article VII held that it would have to be ratified by

A) a majority of the members of the House of Representatives.
B) two-thirds of the state legislatures.
C) nine state conventions.
D) a majority of the people in direct elections in all thirteen states.
E) a national constitutional convention.

Question 71

Checks and balances in the Constitution refer to

A) the idea that republican virtues are best nurtured in small states.
B) the idea that true republicanism can only occur in large states.
C) the principle that government power shall be divided and that the fragments should balance or check one another to prevent tyranny.
D) distinct spheres of responsibility for the three branches of the national government.
E) the system of federalism that divides powers between the states and national government.

Question 72

One of the major goals of the Founders at the Constitutional Convention was to

A) create the foundations for a national, free enterprise economy.
B) provide for universal suffrage.
C) eliminate suffrage.
D) write long and detailed constitution that specified exactly the powers of each branch of government.
E) guarantee equal rights as proclaimed in the Declaration of Independence.

Question 73

Montesquieu's views are incorporated in

A) separation of powers.
B) federalism.
C) popular sovereignty.
D) republicanism.
E) democracy.

Question 74

The Anti-Federalists were primarily concerned with

A) too much state power.
B) centralized power and the absence of a bill of rights.
C) the indirect election of the president.
D) the shorter elected terms of members of the House of Representatives.
E) provisions established by Article VII.

Question 75

Three equal and independent branches of government best illustrates the concept of

A) the supremacy clause.
B) checks and balances.
C) separation of powers.
D) reserved powers.
E) republicanism

Question 76

The fundamental importance the Framers placed on a national free enterprise economy is illustrated by

A) paying debts with cheap money.
B) guaranteeing contracts.
C) permitting states to coin currencies.
D) allowing states to regulate interstate commerce.
E) allowing states to trade with other nations.

Question 77

The basic purpose of the Bill of Rights is to

A) expand the powers of the federal government to protect citizens from state government acts of discrimination.
B) expand the powers of state governments versus federal government control.
C) limit what government may legitimately do.
D) protect the tyranny of the majority.
E) promote the clarity of governmental regulation.

Question 78

The provision of the Constitution that forbids states from impairing the obligation of contracts is

A) also vital to promoting interstate commerce.
B) ensures that states do not coin their own money.
C) is essential to protecting property rights.
D) related to reserve powers granted to the states.
E) none of the above

Question 79

The original Constitution made which of the following officeholders directly elected by the people?

A) Justices of the Supreme Court
B) US Senators
C) members of the US House of Representatives
D) the President
E) state judges

Question 80

Article I, Section 10, of the Constitution forbids the states from impairing the obligations of contracts, coining money, or making anything but gold and silver coin a tender in payment of debts. These provisions

A) were declared unconstitutional by the U.S. Supreme Court in Marbury v. Madison.
B) basically enlarged states' rights.
C) were ignored by state governments.
D) meant that states could no longer help debtors by inflating money or forgiving debts.
E) were declared unconstitutional by the U.S. Supreme Court in McCulloch v. Maryland.