Deck 14: Lower Extremity and Pelvis

Question 1

Small,flat,oval bones in the region of the first metatarsophalangeal joint are called:

A) phalanges.
B) tarsals.
C) metatarsals.
D) sesamoid bones.

Answer 1

sesamoid bones.

Question 2

The anatomical name for the bone commonly known as the "kneecap" is:

A) fibula.
B) tibia.
C) patella.
D) flabella.

Answer 2

patella.

Question 3

Which bones are located in the lower leg?

A) Tibia and femur
B) Fibula and femur
C) Tibia and fibula
D) Tibula and fibia

Answer 3

Tibia and fibula

Question 4

Which bone of the lower leg is on the medial side?

A) Tibia
B) Fibula
C) Femur
D) Ulna

Question 5

What is the name given to the distal end of the fibula?

A) Talus
B) Medial malleolus
C) Lateral malleolus
D) Astragalus

Question 6

Which of the following bones are in the hindfoot portion of the foot?
1) Cuneiforms
2) Calcaneus
3) Talus

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Question 7

When the ankle is flexed and raises the foot,the movement is termed:

A) plantar flexion.
B) eversion.
C) inversion.
D) dorsiflexion.

Question 8

What is the name of the palpable,bony protuberance on the anterior aspect of the proximal tibia?

A) Tibial spine
B) Intercondylar eminence
C) Greater trochanter
D) Tibial tuberosity

Question 9

What tarsal is commonly referred to as the "heel bone"?

A) Talus
B) Cuneiforms
C) Navicular
D) Calcaneus

Question 10

A normal variation in which an additional small sesamoid bone is located posterior to the knee is termed:

A) patella.
B) fabella.
C) meniscus.
D) mortise.

Question 11

The bones of the midfoot are called the:

A) metatarsals.
B) tarsals.
C) phalanges.
D) cuneiforms.

Question 12

The bones of the forefoot include the:

A) phalanges and tarsals.
B) tarsals and metatarsals.
C) phalanges and metatarsals.
D) cuneiforms and cuboid.

Question 13

What is a fabella?

A) An additional sesamoid bone that can develop in the posterior portion of the knee
B) The articular cartilage located at the condyle of the femur
C) The large sesamoid bone on the anterior surface of the knee
D) The head of the fibula

Question 14

What name is given to the articular surface of the proximal,superior aspect of the tibia?

A) Intercondylar fossa
B) Intercondylar eminence
C) Tibial spine
D) Tibial plateau

Question 15

Which bone of the lower leg is located on the lateral side?

A) Tibia
B) Fibula
C) Femur
D) Ulna

Question 16

The palpable portion at the distal end of the tibia is called the:

A) lateral malleolus.
B) medial malleolus.
C) medial condyle.
D) lateral condyle.

Question 17

How are the toes identified?

A) The toes are numbered 1 to 5 beginning on the medial side.
B) The toes are numbered 1 to 5 beginning on the lateral side.
C) The toes are referred to as digits without identifying numbers.
D) The toes have individual names.

Question 18

Which of the following are the bones that articulate to form the ankle mortise?

A) Talus, tibia, and fibula
B) Tibia, fibula, and calcaneus
C) Talus and tibia
D) Calcaneus and tibia

Question 19

The patella is classified as a(n)______ bone.

A) irregular
B) short
C) sesamoid
D) long

Question 20

Which of the following are parts of the tibia?
1) Tibial tuberosity
2) Lesser trochanter
3) Medial malleolus

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Question 21

The ilium,ischium,and pubis make up a large composite bone called the:

A) acetabulum.
B) ilium.
C) innominate bone.
D) cuboid.

Question 22

A bony prominence on the anterior aspect of the lateral pelvis above the hip is called the:

A) acetabulum.
B) symphysis pubis.
C) greater trochanter.
D) anterior superior iliac spine.

Question 23

Which is the largest and heaviest bone in the body?

A) Tibia
B) Femur
C) Humerus
D) Cranium

Question 24

Where is the tibial tuberosity located?

A) On the anterior aspect of the proximal tibia
B) On the posterior aspect of the proximal tibia
C) On the anterior aspect of the distal tibia
D) On the posterior aspect of the distal tibia

Question 25

What anatomy articulates to form the knee joint?

A) The condyles of the femur and the tibial plateaus articulate to form the knee joint.
B) The condyles of the femur and the tibial tuberosities articulate to form the knee joint.
C) The head of the femur and the acetabulum articulate to form the knee joint.
D) The head of the femur and the tibial plateaus articulate to form the knee joint.

Question 26

When taking an AP axial projection of the foot,the central ray is directed:

A) 10 degrees toward the toes.
B) 10 degrees toward the heel.
C) 25 degrees toward the heel.
D) perpendicular to the IR.

Question 27

Where does the CR enter the patient for the AP axial projection of the foot?

A) At the third metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint
B) At the first MTP joint
C) At the base of the third metatarsal
D) At the head of the third metatarsal

Question 28

Which foot projection and position demonstrate the metatarsals without superimposition?

A) AP projection with plantar surface of foot in contact with IR
B) AP oblique projection in 30-degree lateral rotation
C) AP oblique projection in 30-degree medial rotation
D) Lateral projection with MTP joints perpendicular to IR

Question 29

Which of the following combine to form the hip bone?
1) Ilium
2) Ischium
3) Pubis

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Question 30

What is the name of the large,palpable prominence on the proximal and lateral portion of the femur?

A) Lateral condyle
B) Greater trochanter
C) Greater tuberosity
D) Lesser trochanter

Question 31

What is the name of the socket portion of the hip joint,which is located on the pelvis?

A) Acetabulum
B) Ischial tuberosity
C) Anterior superior iliac spine
D) Obturator foramen

Question 32

Which surface of the foot should be in contact with the IR for the lateral projection of the foot?

A) Lateral
B) Medial
C) Dorsal
D) Plantar

Question 33

The rounded,superior part of the ilium that is used as a palpable landmark is called the:

A) ala.
B) wing.
C) iliac crest.
D) anterior superior iliac spine.

Question 34

What is the name of the large bone located in the thigh?

A) Femur
B) Humerus
C) Tibia
D) Os calcis

Question 35

How much is the plantar surface of the foot elevated from the IR for the AP oblique projection of the foot?

A) 45 degrees
B) 30 degrees
C) 10 degrees
D) 25 degrees

Question 36

Where is the medial malleolus located?

A) On the anterior aspect of the knee joint
B) On the lateral aspect of the knee joint
C) On the anterior aspect of the ankle joint
D) On the medial aspect of the ankle joint

Question 37

Where is the tibial spine located?

A) On the anterior aspect of the proximal tibia
B) On the superior aspect of the proximal tibia
C) On the anterior aspect of the distal tibia
D) On the inferior aspect of the distal tibia

Question 38

Where is the intercondylar fossa located?

A) On the proximal, anterior aspect of the femur
B) On the distal, anterior aspect of the femur
C) On the distal, posterior aspect of the femur
D) On the proximal, posterior aspect of the tibia

Question 39

Which of the following is true regarding the lateral projection of the foot?

A) The ankle does not have a specific position when performing the lateral projection of the foot.
B) The ankle should be dorsiflexed so that the long axis of the foot forms a 45-degree angle with the tibia.
C) The ankle should be extended so that the plantar surface of the foot forms a 45-degree angle with the IR.
D) The ankle should be dorsiflexed so that the long axis of the foot is perpendicular to the tibia.

Question 40

What device may help provide an even density on a radiograph of an AP axial projection of the foot?

A) Lead shield
B) Wedge compensating filter
C) Wedge positioning sponge
D) Sandbag

Question 41

When taking a lateral projection of the knee,flexion of the knee joint should be limited to 10 degrees when there is suspicion of:

A) loose fragment within the joint.
B) collateral ligament injury.
C) damage to the medial meniscus cartilage.
D) fracture of the patella.

Question 42

Which of the following radiographic methods is used to demonstrate the patella and the femoropatellar joint space?

A) Holmblad method
B) Camp-Coventry method
C) Settegast method
D) Grashey method

Question 43

Which of the following must be included on an AP projection of the lower leg?
1) Entire tibia and fibula
2) Knee joint
3) Ankle joint

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Question 44

Where should the CR enter the patient for the AP projection of the knee?

A) inch below the apex of the patella
B) inch below the base of the patella
C) 1 inch distal to the medial epicondyle of the femur
D) 1 inch proximal to the medial epicondyle of the femur

Question 45

When the leg is extended in the supine position,the foot is maximally dorsiflexed,and the central ray is directed 40 degrees cephalad through the plantar surface of the foot,the resulting image demonstrates:

A) an axial projection of the calcaneus.
B) a medial oblique position of the tarsals and metatarsals.
C) the ankle mortise, especially the talofibular articulation.
D) the cuboid and the third cuneiform.

Question 46

When the patient is prone,the knee is flexed to form an angle of 80 degrees between the femur and the lower leg,and the central ray is directed approximately 15 to 20 degrees cephalad through the inferior margin of the patella,the resulting radiograph demonstrates:

A) the articulation between the proximal tibia and fibula.
B) the intercondylar notch.
C) the tibial eminences.
D) a tangential projection of the patella.

Question 47

On a lateral projection of the knee,what anatomy is used to determine if the knee joint is properly positioned?

A) Femoral condyles should be demonstrated superimposed.
B) The tibial tuberosity should be superimposed on the superior tibia.
C) The intercondylar eminence should be centered between the tibial plateaus.
D) The patella is demonstrated superimposed on the distal femur.

Question 48

What is the proper CR angle and direction for the axial projection of the calcaneus when the ankle is dorsiflexed so that the plantar surface of the foot is perpendicular to the IR?

A) 10 degrees cephalad
B) 40 degrees cephalad
C) 10 degrees caudad
D) 40 degrees caudad

Question 49

If a knee x-ray is made while the patient is wearing denim jeans,which of the following is likely to occur on the image?

A) Nothing; denim jeans are radiolucent.
B) The jeans will leave an artifact on the image.
C) Nothing; leaving the patient's jeans on helps to protect the patient's modesty.
D) The jeans will totally block out the knee anatomy because x-rays cannot penetrate denim.

Question 50

Which surface of the lower leg is placed in contact with the IR for the lateral projection of the lower leg?

A) Anterior surface
B) Posterior surface
C) Medial surface
D) Lateral surface

Question 51

Which of the following are true regarding the correct position for an AP projection of the lower leg?
1) The leg should be extended and resting on the IR.
2) The ankle should be dorsiflexed so that the foot forms a 90-degree angle with the lower leg.
3) The sagittal plane of the leg should be placed parallel to the IR.

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Question 52

When the leg is extended,the ankle is dorsiflexed to form an angle of 90 degrees between foot and leg,the leg is rotated medially approximately 15 degrees,and the CR is perpendicular to the IR through the midpoint between the malleoli,the resulting image demonstrates:

A) an axial projection of the calcaneus.
B) an AP projection of the tarsals and metatarsals.
C) the ankle mortise, especially the talofibular articulation.
D) the cuboid and the third cuneiform.

Question 53

Where does the CR enter the patient for the AP projection of the first toe?

A) Base of the third metatarsal
B) Proximal IP joint
C) Metatarsophalangeal joint
D) Distal IP joint

Question 54

Which of the following is true regarding the correct positioning of the ankle for a lateral projection?

A) The medial surface of the ankle joint is in contact with the IR.
B) The sagittal plane of the foot and leg is perpendicular to the IR.
C) The CR enters perpendicular to the medial malleolus.
D) The ankle joint is extended so that the foot is 15 to 20 degrees from the IR.

Question 55

Which of the following radiographic methods are used to demonstrate the intercondylar fossa?
1) Holmblad method
2) Camp-Coventry method
3) Settegast method

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Question 56

What is the correct amount of knee flexion for the PA axial projection (Holmblad method)of the intercondylar fossa?

A) 45 degrees
B) 15 to 20 degrees
C) 70 degrees
D) 40 to 50 degrees

Question 57

Where should the CR enter the patient for the AP projection of the ankle joint?

A) Perpendicular to a point midway between the malleoli
B) Perpendicular to the base of the third metatarsal
C) Angled 10 degrees cephalic to a point midway between the malleoli
D) Angled 10 degrees cephalic to the base of the third metatarsal

Question 58

Which surface of the knee is in contact with the IR for the lateral projection of the knee?

A) Medial surface
B) Lateral surface
C) Anterior surface
D) Posterior surface

Question 59

Which surface of the ankle is placed in contact with the IR for the lateral projection of the ankle?

A) Medial surface
B) Lateral surface
C) Anterior surface
D) Posterior surface

Question 60

A tube angle of 5 degrees cephalic is used when taking a(n):

A) lateral projection of the knee.
B) AP projection of the foot.
C) axial projection of the calcaneus.
D) AP projection of the pelvis.

Question 61

What is the purpose of internally rotating the lower limbs for the AP projection of the pelvis?

A) Improves visualization of the acetabula
B) Reduces magnification of the pelvis
C) Increases patient comfort
D) Places femoral necks parallel to IR

Question 62

What is the name of the fracture caused by repeated injuries that would not be caused by a single injury?

A) Bimalleolar fracture
B) Stress fracture
C) Spiral fracture
D) Colles fracture

Question 63

Which patient population is most likely to suffer a hip fracture?

A) Children
B) Young adults, especially athletes
C) Elderly
D) Males who are long-term smokers

Question 64

Exostosis,also called osteochondroma,is a type of:

A) arthritis.
B) bone infection.
C) malignant tumor.
D) benign tumor.

Question 65

A systemic disorder that increases the uric acid content of the blood and may cause a joint condition that commonly affects the feet (particularly the joints of the great toe)is called:

A) osteoarthritis.
B) gout.
C) rheumatoid arthritis.
D) osteoporosis.

Question 66

In addition to an AP projection,which of the following should be used to image the hip of a patient with a suspected fracture?

A) Lateral projection of the pelvis
B) AP oblique projection of the pelvis (modified Cleaves method)
C) Lateral projection of the hip (frog-leg lateral)
D) Axiolateral projection (Danelius-Miller method)

Question 67

When a twisting injury occurs in the lower leg,what type of fracture usually occurs?

A) A spiral fracture
B) A comminuted fracture
C) A stress fracture
D) A bimalleolar fracture

Question 68

When taking an AP projection of the hip,the lower limb is:

A) abducted maximally.
B) flexed at the knee joint.
C) laterally rotated 15 degrees.
D) medially rotated 15 degrees.

Question 69

What is the proper position of the lower limbs for an AP projection of the pelvis?

A) 15-degree medial rotation
B) 5-degree medial rotation
C) 5-degree lateral rotation
D) 15-degree lateral rotation

Question 70

When taking an AP projection of the proximal femur,the IR should be placed so that the:

A) superior margin is at the level of the greater trochanter.
B) superior margin is at the level of the anterior superior iliac spine.
C) superior margin is at the level of the iliac crest.
D) center is aligned to the midfemur.