Deck 25: Lymphoid Malignancies: Chronic Lymphoid Leukemias, Lymphomas, and Plasma Cell Neoplasms
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Deck 25: Lymphoid Malignancies: Chronic Lymphoid Leukemias, Lymphomas, and Plasma Cell Neoplasms
1
A physician is working up a patient.Based on physical examination, history, and initial screening tests, the physician suspects ALCL, but still needs to rule out classical HL.Which of the following test results would confirm ALCL?
A)CD15 positive, CD30 negative
B)CD15 positive, CD30 positive
C)CD15 negative, CD30 negative
D)CD15 negative, CD30 positive
A)CD15 positive, CD30 negative
B)CD15 positive, CD30 positive
C)CD15 negative, CD30 negative
D)CD15 negative, CD30 positive
CD15 negative, CD30 positive
2
Differences between Hodgkin's and non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are defined by which of the following characteristics?
A)Molecular diagnostics and flow cytometry test results
B)Cytochemical and cytogenetic findings
C)Stage, distribution, mode of spread, extranodal disease, peripheral blood, cell type, and treatment regimen
D)Nodular growth pattern, BCL expression, and CD19+
A)Molecular diagnostics and flow cytometry test results
B)Cytochemical and cytogenetic findings
C)Stage, distribution, mode of spread, extranodal disease, peripheral blood, cell type, and treatment regimen
D)Nodular growth pattern, BCL expression, and CD19+
Stage, distribution, mode of spread, extranodal disease, peripheral blood, cell type, and treatment regimen
3
Which subgroup of CLL reveals pancytopenia, TRAP+, CD19+, CD5−, CD20+ strong intensity, CD22+, CD103+, CD11c+, and CD25+ with circulating hairy cells?
A)B cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B)T cell PLL
C)Hairy cell leukemia
D)Sézary syndrome
A)B cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B)T cell PLL
C)Hairy cell leukemia
D)Sézary syndrome
Hairy cell leukemia
4
An increase in paraprotein concentration of a single isoform is defined as:
A)Immune response.
B)Monoclonal gammopathy.
C)Oligoclonal banding.
D)Hyperparaproteinemia.
A)Immune response.
B)Monoclonal gammopathy.
C)Oligoclonal banding.
D)Hyperparaproteinemia.
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5
A 15-year-old patient has an active infection with Epstein-Barr virus.This will lead to which of the following?
A)Leukemia
B)Lymphoma
C)Multiple myeloma
D)Lymphadenopathy
A)Leukemia
B)Lymphoma
C)Multiple myeloma
D)Lymphadenopathy
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6
Hairy cell leukemia and chronic lymphocytic leukemia appear morphologically similar to the untrained eye.Which of the following tests would help differentiate between the two?
A)Immunophenotyping
B)Cytogenetic analysis
C)TRAP stain
D)PAS staining
A)Immunophenotyping
B)Cytogenetic analysis
C)TRAP stain
D)PAS staining
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7
The presence of which of the following cell types confirms the diagnosis of Hodgkin's lymphoma?
A)Lymphocyte
B)Plasma cell
C)Reed-Sternberg cell
D)Cleaved Sézary cell
A)Lymphocyte
B)Plasma cell
C)Reed-Sternberg cell
D)Cleaved Sézary cell
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8
Which of the following best represents the hematologic picture of a patient with lymphoma?
A)Prominent lymphocytosis
B)Normal until later stages of the disease
C)Prominent leukocytosis
D)Low hemoglobin, hematocrit and platelet count
A)Prominent lymphocytosis
B)Normal until later stages of the disease
C)Prominent leukocytosis
D)Low hemoglobin, hematocrit and platelet count
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9
In multiple myeloma the erythrocytes have a distinct abnormality in the peripheral blood.Which of the following is that abnormality?
A)Rouleaux formation
B)Moth-eaten appearance
C)Agglutinates
D)Polychromasia
A)Rouleaux formation
B)Moth-eaten appearance
C)Agglutinates
D)Polychromasia
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10
Which of the following detects clonality in an unknown cell population?
A)Absolute lymphocytosis using morphology
B)CD4-positive T cells
C)Kappa light chain only present on B cells
D)Both kappa and lambda light chains present on B cells
A)Absolute lymphocytosis using morphology
B)CD4-positive T cells
C)Kappa light chain only present on B cells
D)Both kappa and lambda light chains present on B cells
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11
Which of the following test results is most consistent with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma?
A)Increased plasma cell concentration in peripheral circulation
B)Low calcium levels
C)RBC aggregates on the peripheral blood smear
D)Blasts in the peripheral blood
A)Increased plasma cell concentration in peripheral circulation
B)Low calcium levels
C)RBC aggregates on the peripheral blood smear
D)Blasts in the peripheral blood
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12
A technologist is reviewing a blood smear and notices 35% lymphocytes with azurophilic granules and nuclei with mature clumped chromatin.These cells are typical of those found in:
A)Hairy cell leukemia.
B)Sézary syndrome.
C)Large granular lymphocyte leukemia.
D)Chronic prolymphocytic leukemia.
A)Hairy cell leukemia.
B)Sézary syndrome.
C)Large granular lymphocyte leukemia.
D)Chronic prolymphocytic leukemia.
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13
A patient's symptoms include visual impairment, headache, dizziness, and deafness.The peripheral blood smear reveals lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma.What would rule out the diagnosis of Waldenström's macroglobulinemia?
A)Elevated plasma levels of IgM
B)Increased serum viscosity levels
C)Decreased plasma levels of IgM
D)Plasma cell neoplasm with lytic bone lesions
A)Elevated plasma levels of IgM
B)Increased serum viscosity levels
C)Decreased plasma levels of IgM
D)Plasma cell neoplasm with lytic bone lesions
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14
Which of the following lymphoproliferative disorders is most closely associated with Richter's transformation?
A)CLL
B)PLL
C)Sézary syndrome
D)Hairy cell leukemia
A)CLL
B)PLL
C)Sézary syndrome
D)Hairy cell leukemia
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15
A 25-year-old male presents with an enlarged lymph node in his axillary region.Further testing confirms malignancy in the enlarged lymph node but nowhere else.In which stage of lymphoma, according to the Ann Arbor classification system, is the patient?
A)Stage I
B)Stage II
C)Stage III
D)Stage IV
A)Stage I
B)Stage II
C)Stage III
D)Stage IV
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16
The specimen of choice to confirm a lymphoma is:
A)Bone marrow aspirate.
B)A blood sample.
C)Lymph node biopsy.
D)A skin biopsy.
A)Bone marrow aspirate.
B)A blood sample.
C)Lymph node biopsy.
D)A skin biopsy.
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17
Which protein is identified as free light chains in the urine?
A)MGUS
B)Heavy chains
C)M spike
D)Bence Jones
A)MGUS
B)Heavy chains
C)M spike
D)Bence Jones
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18
Which of the following laboratory tests would best help differentiate multiple myeloma and Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia?
A)Peripheral blood smear
B)Isoelectric focusing
C)Bone marrow aspirate
D)Total protein measurement
A)Peripheral blood smear
B)Isoelectric focusing
C)Bone marrow aspirate
D)Total protein measurement
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19
A bone marrow aspirate is performed for staging purposes on a patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma.The results come back positive for infiltration by RS cells.What does this mean for the patient?
A)The patient is in the early stages of the disease.
B)The patient is in the late stages of the disease.
C)The patient is converting to non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.
D)The patient is entering remission.
A)The patient is in the early stages of the disease.
B)The patient is in the late stages of the disease.
C)The patient is converting to non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.
D)The patient is entering remission.
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20
A technologist is reviewing a lymph node biopsy slide, and notices a prominent lymphocytosis as well as the presence of a few tumor cells with the following characteristics: large, multi-lobated nucleus with delicate nuclear membranes; finely granular chromatin; and small, indistinct nucleoli.Based on this information, from what stage and disease is the patient most likely suffering?
A)Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
B)Lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin's lymphoma
C)Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
D)Lymphocyte depleted Hodgkin's lymphoma
A)Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
B)Lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin's lymphoma
C)Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
D)Lymphocyte depleted Hodgkin's lymphoma
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21
Explain how environmental factors contribute to the pathogenesis of lymphoid neoplasms.
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22
In the subgroups of chronic leukemic lymphoid malignancies, which are the key features of Sézary syndrome?
A)CD3+, CD2+, CD5+, CD4+, CD8±
B)CD3+, CD2+, CD5+, CD4+, CD8±, CD7−
C)CD19+, CD5−, CD20+ strong intensity
D)CD22+, CD103+, CD11c+, CD25+
A)CD3+, CD2+, CD5+, CD4+, CD8±
B)CD3+, CD2+, CD5+, CD4+, CD8±, CD7−
C)CD19+, CD5−, CD20+ strong intensity
D)CD22+, CD103+, CD11c+, CD25+
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23
A diagnosis of CLL requires morphologic and phenotypic findings of which of the following?
A)Variable absolute lymphocyte counts with few prolymphocytes and CD38+
B)Sustained absolute lymphocyte counts with mature lymphocytes, few prolymphocytes, smudge cells, CD20+, and ZAP-70+
C)Marked absolute lymphocytosis, anemia, and thrombocytopenia; prolymphocytes less than 10%
D)Sustained absolute lymphocyte counts, mature lymphocytes; CD3−, CD2+, CD4−, CD8−, CD7+, CD16+, CD56+/CD57−
A)Variable absolute lymphocyte counts with few prolymphocytes and CD38+
B)Sustained absolute lymphocyte counts with mature lymphocytes, few prolymphocytes, smudge cells, CD20+, and ZAP-70+
C)Marked absolute lymphocytosis, anemia, and thrombocytopenia; prolymphocytes less than 10%
D)Sustained absolute lymphocyte counts, mature lymphocytes; CD3−, CD2+, CD4−, CD8−, CD7+, CD16+, CD56+/CD57−
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24
A lymph node biopsy is performed in a patient with lymphadenopathy.Which of the following findings would support the diagnosis of a reactive proliferation rather than a malignant lymphoma?
A)A mixed population of cells varying in size, shape, and color
B)Clonality
C)Presence of large, bizarre cells
D)Mitotic activity
A)A mixed population of cells varying in size, shape, and color
B)Clonality
C)Presence of large, bizarre cells
D)Mitotic activity
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25
The presence of which of the following cells in peripheral circulation strongly indicates Sézary syndrome?
A)Lymphocytes with nuclear clefting
B)Lymphocytes with cerebriform convoluted nuclei
C)Normal lymphocytes
D)Lymphocytes with bilobed nuclei
A)Lymphocytes with nuclear clefting
B)Lymphocytes with cerebriform convoluted nuclei
C)Normal lymphocytes
D)Lymphocytes with bilobed nuclei
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26
Which of the following statements is correct regarding MGUS and multiple myeloma (MM)?
A)MGUS has a low level of monoclonal spike without an underlying neoplasm, whereas MM has a monoclonal spike along with an underlying neoplasm.
B)MGUS has a monoclonal spike that is IgM in nature, whereas MM has a monoclonal spike that is IgG in nature.
C)MGUS exhibits tumor localization, whereas MM exhibits tumor dissemination.
D)MGUS and MM are the same.
A)MGUS has a low level of monoclonal spike without an underlying neoplasm, whereas MM has a monoclonal spike along with an underlying neoplasm.
B)MGUS has a monoclonal spike that is IgM in nature, whereas MM has a monoclonal spike that is IgG in nature.
C)MGUS exhibits tumor localization, whereas MM exhibits tumor dissemination.
D)MGUS and MM are the same.
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27
Which of the Hodgkin lymphoma histologic subtypes is composed of numerous reactive small lymphocytes and rare tumor cells that grow in loose nodular aggregates or popcorn cells-i.e., L&H cells?
A)Classic HL
B)Nodular sclerosis
C)Mixed cellularity
D)Lymphocyte-predominant
A)Classic HL
B)Nodular sclerosis
C)Mixed cellularity
D)Lymphocyte-predominant
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28
Which of the following agents promotes the development of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma through MALT infiltration?
A)BCL-2 translocation
B)Helicobacter pylori
C)Epstein-Barr virus
D)Ataxia telangiectasia
A)BCL-2 translocation
B)Helicobacter pylori
C)Epstein-Barr virus
D)Ataxia telangiectasia
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29
Describe the WHO and Ann Arbor classification systems of lymphoid neoplasms.
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30
A male of 65 years of age is seen at a local hospital with symptoms of enlarged lymph nodes and possible gastrointestinal tract problems.The peripheral blood smear revealed cells resembling diffuse large B cell lymphoma.The FISH studies demonstrated the translocation of BCL-1.What is the probable disease with these results?
A)MALT
B)MCL
C)Burkitt's leukemia
D)Follicular lymphoma
A)MALT
B)MCL
C)Burkitt's leukemia
D)Follicular lymphoma
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31
Which of the following contributes to the pathogenesis of lymphoid neoplasms?
A)Genetic anomalies
B)Inherited immunodeficiency syndromes
C)Viral infections
D)All of the above
A)Genetic anomalies
B)Inherited immunodeficiency syndromes
C)Viral infections
D)All of the above
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32
Compare and contrast the lab features of the following disorders:
A)Plasmacytoma
B)Multiple myeloma
C)MGUS
D)Waldenström's macroglobulinemia
A)Plasmacytoma
B)Multiple myeloma
C)MGUS
D)Waldenström's macroglobulinemia
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33
Which test should be included when distinguishing between diffuse large B cell lymphoma and blastic mantle cell lymphoma?
A)CD20
B)Light chain analysis
C)Cyclin-D1 stain
D)IgM heavy chain analysis
A)CD20
B)Light chain analysis
C)Cyclin-D1 stain
D)IgM heavy chain analysis
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34
Explain the major differences between Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas.
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