Deck 4: Prenatal Development and Birth

Question 1

I am the hollow ball of cells formed in the days just after conception. Technically, I am referred to as the

A) blastocyst.
B) embryo.
C) uvula.
D) chorion.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

The most common first medical step in assisted reproductive technology is to have a women take a drug that

A) increases the size of her cervix.
B) straightens the lining of her fallopian tubes.
C) decreases her testosterone levels.
D) stimulates the ovaries to ripen and release eggs.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Natalie is six weeks pregnant. At this point, the organism growing inside of her is most properly referred to as a(n)

A) blastula.
B) embryo.
C) fetus.
D) zygote.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

All major organs initially develop in some fashion during the _____ period.

A) germinal
B) zygotic
C) fetal
D) embryonic

Question 5

With implantation into the uterus, the period of the _____ begins..

A) blastula
B) embryo
C) fetus
D) zygote

Question 6

On average, the germinal period ends about ____ days after conception.

A) 4
B) 14
C) 24
D) 48

Question 7

The three periods of prenatal development are (from earliest to latest)

A) germinal, embryo, fetus.
B) latency, germinal, embryo.
C) fetus, latency, germinal.
D) embryo, germinal, fetus.

Question 8

Which statement concerning IVF is true?

A) The cost of most IVF pregnancies is comparable to that of a typical pregnancy.
B) Most couples who are unable to become pregnant using IVF experience major depression.
C) IVF results in live birth for 5% of women 43 to 44 years of age.
D) Fathers of IVF infants tend to be less attached to their children.

Question 9

José is quite knowledgeable about ARTs. Thus, when he is informed that his friend's new baby was conceived in a laboratory dish, he knows that this process had to involve

A) in vitro fertilization.
B) artificial insemination.
C) a donor egg.
D) multiple births.

Question 10

A fertile male will deposit about 300 _____ sperm during intercourse.

A) thousand
B) million
C) billion
D) trillion

Question 11

While observing developing cells, Dr. House shouts, "I am seeing actual organogenesis taking place!" In simple terms, Dr. House is viewing

A) meiosis.
B) the formation of a blastula.
C) the initial formation of major body organs.
D) a breech presentation.

Question 12

About _____ percent of recognized pregnancies end in miscarriage.

A) 3% to 5%
B) 8% to 30%
C) 33% to 50%
D) 52% to 63%

Question 13

How does the blastocyst attempt to feed itself?

A) It sinks into the lining of the uterus where the uterus engulfs and feeds it.
B) It feeds directly through a fully developed umbilical cord.
C) It feeds via tendrils from its outer layer burrow into the walls of the uterus.
D) As it does not change, it has no need to feed.

Question 14

During artificial insemination, the sperm

A) can only come from a woman's partner.
B) can only come from a donor.
C) can come from either the woman's partner or a donor.
D) must come from neither the woman's partner nor a donor.

Question 15

About _____ of all fertilized ova are successfully implanted in the uterus.

A) one-fifth
B) one-fourth
C) one-third
D) one-half

Question 16

Everett has been informed that he has infertility issues. What bit of advice would he most likely hear from a competent doctor?

A) You need to cut down on your red meat consumption.
B) You need to wear loose boxers rather than tight briefs.
C) You need to increase your intake of folic acid.
D) You need to start taking your thalidomide prescription.

Question 17

The germinal period ends when the

A) blastocyst burrows into the lining of the chorion.
B) blastocyst is implanted in the wall of the uterus.
C) zygote divides into two cells through mitosis.
D) zygote travels through the fallopian tube into the uterus.

Question 18

Infertility is defined as an inability to become pregnant after

A) being off birth control for two months.
B) previously giving birth.
C) one year of trying.
D) artificial insemination.

Question 19

Ovulation tends to occur _____ of the menstrual cycle.

A) on the first day
B) within the first week
C) near the midpoint
D) at the end

Question 20

Conception results in the immediate creation of a(n)

A) embryo.
B) neonate.
C) fetus.
D) zygote.

Question 21

Due to her accurate knowledge of prenatal physiology, Amber knows that because her unborn child suffers from anencephaly, the child will be born with

A) a conjoined twin.
B) abnormal limb development.
C) ambiguous genitals.
D) no developed brain above the brain stem.

Question 22

In a normally developing XY-chromosome embryo, the absence of testosterone would

A) result in the complete absence of either a "male" or "female" reproductive system.
B) result in a "male" baby with a "female" internal reproductive system.
C) result in a "female" baby with a "male" internal reproductive system.
D) not have any impact on reproductive development.

Question 23

An embryo is directly nourished by root-like extensions from the

A) amnion.
B) chorion.
C) blastula.
D) zygote.

Question 24

What is the most important factor in determining what crosses the "placental barrier"?

A) The size of a molecule
B) The age of the fetus
C) The duration of the pregnancy
D) The age of the mother

Question 25

_____ occurs when the neural tube fails to close and the spinal cord is not encased in the spinal column.

A) Spinal meningitis
B) Cerebral palsy
C) Spina bifida
D) Agenesis

Question 26

The fetal period is best defined as

A) the middle three months of pregnancy.
B) all of the pregnancy that follows the implantation of the blastula in the uterine wall.
C) the part of the pregnancy that extends from the age of viability to birth.
D) the period from the ninth week of pregnancy to birth.

Question 27

Which statement about development in the embryonic stage of development is true?

A) The embryo is viable by the end of the stage.
B) The eyes develop between days 21 and 28.
C) The primitive portions of the brain form last.
D) At this end of this period, the organism is about 10 inches long.

Question 28

The function of the amnion is to

A) connect the placenta to the developing fetus.
B) provide a cushion of protection for the developing embryo.
C) provide nutrients and oxygen to the developing embryo.
D) remove waste products from the developing fetus.

Question 29

The brain first becomes apparent around four weeks after conception when the neural _____ folds to form the neural _____.

A) plate; tube
B) tube; cup
C) cup; spike
D) spike; tube

Question 30

Spina bifida is best described as a defect at the _____ of the neural tube, while anencephaly is best described as a defect at the _____ of the neural tube.

A) top; bottom
B) bottom; top
C) inside; outside
D) outside; inside

Question 31

The umbilical cord connects the

A) amnion and chorion.
B) blastula and zygote.
C) heart and lungs.
D) embryo and placenta.

Question 32

In her human development class, Dr. Ayers shows students several photographs of prenatal development. She points out the placenta and explains that its main purpose is to

A) provide the fetus with carbon dioxide and oxygen.
B) enable the maternal and fetal blood to mix so they will become compatible.
C) provide the fetus with oxygen and nutrients and remove carbon dioxide and wastes from the fetus.
D) protect and cushion the fetus from shock.

Question 33

The formation of a primitive heart would take place during the _____ period of development.

A) zygotic
B) germinal
C) fetal
D) embryonic

Question 34

The outer layer of the embryo forms the

A) amnion and chorion.
B) placenta and umbilical cord.
C) brain and spinal cord of the fetus.
D) heart and internal organs.

Question 35

A deficiency in maternal levels of _____ during early pregnancy has been linked to a risk for neural tube disorders.

A) vitamin A
B) calcium
C) folic acid
D) iron

Question 36

By secreting the hormone _____, the male embryo stimulates the development of the internal male reproductive system.

A) estrogen
B) teratogen
C) surfactant
D) testosterone

Question 37

In order for an embryo to construct testes, that embryo must have at least _____ at conception.

A) one X chromosome
B) two X chromosomes
C) one Y chromosome
D) two Y chromosomes

Question 38

Morgana is now 25 weeks pregnant. At this point, the organism growing inside of her would best be classified as a(n)

A) blastula.
B) embryo.
C) fetus.
D) zygote.

Question 39

Sexual differentiation due to hormonal activity first begins during the _____ period of development.

A) conception
B) germinal
C) fetal
D) embryonic

Question 40

The lining of the _____ originates as tissue called the chorion.

A) amnion
B) placenta
C) blastula
D) zygote

Question 41

The process of brain development characterized by intense cell growth originating in stem cells is called

A) migration.
B) proliferation.
C) differentiation.
D) mutation.

Question 42

Your psychology professor asks you to write a paper on the prenatal environment. Which search topic should you use for your Web search?

A) The mother's womb
B) The hospital birthing room
C) The process of birth
D) The newborn's crib

Question 43

Early in development, every neuron has the potential to 

A) become any type of cell.
B) become a stem cell.
C) become any type of neuron.
D) replicate infinitely.

Question 44

One of the main roles of glial cells is to

A) provide support for neurons.
B) produce the spinal cord.
C) create a functioning respiratory system.
D) determine the sex of a fetus.

Question 45

Dominique is told that her unborn child has bones, distinguishable sex organs, and may be turning somersaults. This description indicates that Dominique's unborn child is best classified as a(n)

A) zygote.
B) embryo.
C) fetus.
D) neonate.

Question 46

The seventh month of a human pregnancy would fall in the _____ trimester of that pregnancy.

A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth

Question 47

Coherent patterns of waking and sleeping are known as infant

A) states.
B) trimesters.
C) protective factors.
D) methods.

Question 48

Even with aggressive medical treatment, more than 90% of infants born at _____ weeks will not survive more than hours or days.

A) 22 to 23
B) 28 to 29
C) 25 to 26
D) 31 to 32

Question 49

When a brain cell differentiates, it

A) doubles in size.
B) pairs up with a glial cell.
C) takes on a specialized purpose.
D) reaches it age of viability .

Question 50

Who has just reached the current "age of viability" for a human?

A) Ben, who has survived 6 weeks past conception
B) Hoss, who has survived 12 weeks past conception
C) Joe, who has survived 17 weeks past conception
D) Adam, who has survived 23 weeks past conception

Question 51

Maria, who just found out she is pregnant, wonders at what point her baby will be able to hear. A competent doctor would tell her that her baby's sensory organs

A) begin to function during the embryonic phase.
B) will be functioning by the end of the second trimester.
C) do not function prior to the eighth or ninth month of pregnancy.
D) will not function prior to birth.

Question 52

The term "age of viability" refers to the point at which

A) a child will definitely survive if born.
B) survival outside the uterus might be possible.
C) the embryo no longer requires oxygen from its mother.
D) the heart starts beating.

Question 53

Myelin improves a neuron's ability to transmit by

A) providing an insulating cover to the neuron.
B) increasing the number of neurons.
C) assisting in the migration of neurons to their proper location.
D) organizing neurons into specific areas of the cortex (e.g.. the auditory cortex).

Question 54

Which best describes the "fetal position?"

A) Head up, limbs stretched out
B) Head up, limbs curled in
C) Head down, limbs stretched out
D) Head down, limbs curled in

Question 55

Research on infant states shows that

A) these develop soon after birth.
B) there is a marked shift at birth from sleep states to waking states.
C) fetuses who spend a lot of time in active states tend to be active as infants.
D) infants who were born prematurely do not develop predictable states.

Question 56

By the end the fetal period, fetuses spend the majority of their time

A) in no distinct state.
B) snoozing.
C) conserving energy in anticipation of birth.
D) intentionally moving.

Question 57

The idea of _____ is that environmental events during pregnancy may alter the expected genetic unfolding of the embryo/fetus or reset its physiologic functions.

A) maternal-fetal interaction
B) epigenesis
C) teratology 
D) fetal programming

Question 58

Neurons that will become part of the cerebral cortex migrate by

A) being passively pushed to their location.
B) traveling along the surface of glial cells.
C) following dendrites.
D) diffusion

Question 59

A teratogen is best defined as

A) any medication taken during labor and delivery.
B) anything that can cross the placental barrier.
C) any drug, disease, or environmental agent that causes a birth defect.
D) a birth defect caused by genetic abnormalities.

Question 60

Sunny is a 20-week-old fetus. Sol is a 32-week-old fetus. If they were both normally developing fetuses, one would expect that Sol would _____ than Sunny.

A) have a significantly less surfactant
B) spend less time in distinct states of activity
C) have significantly less myelin
D) spend significantly more time in the distinct state of being awake

Question 61

Whose behavior would have the greatest NEGATIVE impact on a baby's brain development?

A) A mother who consumes one bottle of beer a day most days during the infant's embryonic period
B) A mother who consumes five bottles of beer a day, several days a week during the infant's embryonic period
C) A mother who consumes one bottle of beer a day most days during her seventh month of pregnancy
D) A mother who consumes five bottles of beer a day, several days a week during her seventh month of pregnancy

Question 62

The main impact of paternal consumption of alcohol (i.e., father's drinking) on a child involves the fact that fathers who drink tend to have

A) no viable sperm.
B) a greater potential to pass along the recessive gene related to Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy.
C) poor parenting skills.
D) genetic defects they pass on to their children.

Question 63

Mineko did not know she was pregnant until she was about three months along. During those first three months, she drank alcoholic beverages quite frequently. While prenatal alcohol consumption can influence the developing embryo and fetus in a number of ways, Mineko should be LEAST concerned about having a newborn who

A) is hyperactivity.
B) has lowered intelligence.
C) has seizures.
D) has a deformed heart.

Question 64

When compared to a child with fetal alcohol syndrome, a child diagnosed with alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder would

A) show more symptoms.
B) be more severely impacted.
C) show less severe symptoms.
D) be much smaller.

Question 65

Ruth has just given birth to a baby girl. Right away, it appears that something is wrong-the child looks odd. She has a small head, widely spaced eyes, and a flattened nose. What are the doctors most likely to suspect?

A) Ruth consumed considerable quantities of alcohol during the pregnancy.
B) Ruth had rubella during the second month of her pregnancy.
C) Ruth had syphilis and did not seek treatment for it.
D) Ruth did not eat properly throughout the pregnancy.

Question 66

A child with fetal alcohol syndrome will most likely

A) be blind.
B) have a small head, widely spaced eyes, and a flattened nose.
C) be deaf.
D) be born missing limbs.

Question 67

Myrna started taking the drug thalidomide in her sixth month of pregnancy. Chances are her baby will

A) be cognitively impaired.
B) have heart problems.
C) have deformed or missing limbs.
D) suffer no harmful effects.

Question 68

One critical factor in determining whether a mother's alcohol consumption will have a negative impact on her fetus concerns the mother's

A) previous exposure to syphilis.
B) rate of metabolizing alcohol.
C) surfactant levels.
D) placenta size.

Question 69

Virginia smoked heavily throughout her pregnancy. Her husband is very worried about this because of the possible effects on his unborn child. Which of his concerns is most likely to occur?

A) The child's low birth weight
B) Missing limbs
C) Visual impairment
D) Ambiguous genitals

Question 70

Which of the following is true?

A) The quality of a postnatal environment has little impact on the effect of a teratogen.
B) The genetic makeup of a fetus can influence the impact of a teratogen.
C) The effects of a teratogen do not appear to be related to the "dose" received.
D) An organ system is least vulnerable to the effects of a teratogen when it is developing rapidly.

Question 71

The time of rapid growth of an organ system is called its _____ period.

A) critical
B) germinal
C) resilience
D) prenatal

Question 72

Why would a pregnant woman be most likely to have taken thalidomide?

A) She had morning sickness.
B) She wanted to lose weight.
C) She was having trouble sleeping.
D) She wanted to get pregnant (it is a fertility drug).

Question 73

While under a doctor's care, prescription drugs are _____ safe.

A) never
B) sometimes
C) usually
D) always

Question 74

When baby Hughie was put down for his afternoon nap, he seemed in good health. While sleeping, Hughie's breathing stopped and he died. What is the best explanation for Hughie's death?

A) AIDS
B) PKU
C) FAS
D) SIDS

Question 75

On an average day, Jenna smokes about 24 cigarettes and has done so throughout her pregnancy. Consequently, she has put her baby at increased risk for all of the following EXCEPT

A) hyperacute hearing.
B) slowed growth.
C) central nervous system impairment.
D) susceptibility to respiratory infection.

Question 76

Which teratogen would most likely result in a baby being born with a missing limb?

A) Thalidomide
B) Alcohol
C) Rubella
D) Syphilis

Question 77

Which organism is most vulnerable to organ systems damage?

A) The blastula
B) The embryo
C) The fetus
D) The zygote

Question 78

Which maternal behavior places an infant at risk for sudden infant death syndrome?

A) Smoking cigarettes
B) Alcohol consumption
C) Exposure to rubella
D) Using Thalidomide

Question 79

Although it is associated with the development of birth defects, thalidomide is currently used to treat all of the following EXCEPT

A) leprosy.
B) morning sickness.
C) tuberculosis.
D) forms of cancer.

Question 80

Rice, Thapar, and colleagues (2007, 2009) attempted to uncouple the effects of genetics and the effects of smoking while pregnant on birth weight and elevated antisocial behavior. They found that

A) birth weight was unrelated to smoking.
B) antisocial behaviors elevated the risk for smoking.
C) antisocial behavior could be linked to genes but not to smoking.
D) genetic factors appear to cause smoking.