Deck 42: Animal Reproduction

Question 1

Suppose three female sharks are housed without males in a large tank for many years.One morning the caretakers find a single pup swimming with one of the females.They test the pup's DNA and find that it is the same as that of the adult female.The pup likely resulted from

A) parthenogenesis.
B) budding.
C) regeneration.
D) sexual reproduction.
E) sexual reproduction with delayed fertilization.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

While examining histological sections derived from the ovaries of human females at various life stages, you come across a slide from the prenatal period.Which stages in egg development would you see on this slide?

A) Oogonia only
B) Oogonia and primary oocytes
C) Secondary oocytes
D) Primary oocytes only
E) Ova

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which statement about reproduction is true?

A) Asexual reproduction involves an inefficient use of resources.
B) Sexually reproducing species are found almost exclusively in relatively constant environments where genetic diversity is relatively unimportant.
C) Because it is produced by meiosis, a bud is genetically different from the parent.
D) Only lost limbs can be replaced by regeneration.
E) In some species, parthenogenesis requires all the sexual behaviors of courtship and mating.

Answer 3

E

Question 4

Which statement about asexual reproduction is true?

A) It occurs in some invertebrates but is not found in any vertebrate species.
B) Asexually reproducing species tend to live in variable environments.
C) Asexually reproducing species can adapt more quickly to environmental change than sexually reproducing species.
D) Asexual reproduction is more energy efficient than sexual reproduction.
E) Female tammar wallabies use a form of asexual reproduction when they become pregnant immediately after giving birth.

Question 5

Which statement about asexual reproduction is true?

A) It must involve meiosis but not fertilization.
B) Males of an asexually reproducing population are necessarily diploid.
C) It allows single individuals to produce offspring.
D) It allows for the generation of genetic diversity in changing environments.
E) Offspring are always diploid.

Question 6

Sexual reproduction has an evolutionary advantage over asexual reproduction because it

A) results in both males and females of a species.
B) is a more lengthy process.
C) promotes genetic variability that potentially enables a population to adapt to a change in the environment.
D) is controlled by many hormonal mechanisms.
E) protects and nurtures the embryo.

Question 7

While examining histological sections derived from the testes of human males at various life stages, you come across a slide from the prenatal period.Which cells would you see on this slide?

A) Spermatogonia
B) Spermatogonia and primary spermatocytes
C) Secondary spermatocytes
D) Spermatids
E) Sperm

Question 8

Parthenogenesis

A) is theoretically possible but has never been confirmed in nature.
B) occurs only in fish.
C) is the development of offspring from unfertilized eggs.
D) allows some species to produce only males.
E) occurs in tammar wallabies.

Question 9

Which feature is usually associated with asexual reproduction?

A) Identical genetic makeup of parent and progeny
B) Fertilization
C) Spawning
D) Genetic diversity among the offspring
E) An inability to reproduce sexually

Question 10

Ovaries produce estrogen and progesterone.Removal of the ovaries in the parthenogenetic whiptail lizard Cnemidophorus uniparens would result in

A) the absence of male sexual behavior.
B) the presence of female sexual behavior.
C) repeated ovulations.
D) a switch to sexual reproduction.
E) the growth of testes.

Question 11

Reproduction in Cnemidophorus uniparens, a parthenogenetic species of whiptail lizard, requires sexual behavior, but all members of the species are female.How do these lizards reproduce?

A) Females hybridize with males of a related species, but accept only some of the chromosomes in the sperm.
B) Females that are the most fit temporarily become males, produce and transfer sperm to other females, and then revert to being females.
C) The least fit females temporarily become males, produce and transfer sperm to other females, and then revert to being female.
D) Females with high progesterone levels act like males, but they do not produce any sperm.
E) Females with high estrogen levels act like males, but they do not produce any sperm.

Question 12

The sexual role assumed during courtship by an individual of the parthenogenetic whiptail lizard species Cnemidophorus uniparens

A) depends on its testosterone levels.
B) determines whether it will produce sperm.
C) depends on its current stage in the ovarian cycle.
D) determines whether it will fertilize its mate's eggs.
E) is determined at birth.

Question 13

Which cells result from the second meiotic division of spermatogenesis?

A) Sperm
B) Spermatogonia
C) Spermatids
D) Primary spermatocytes
E) Secondary spermatocytes

Question 14

Which cell types differentiate into sperm cells at the end of spermatogenesis?

A) Sperm
B) Spermatogonia
C) Spermatids
D) Primary spermatocytes
E) Secondary spermatocytes

Question 15

Which feature characterizes both spermatogenesis and oogenesis in humans?

A) A period of developmental arrest in prophase I of meiosis
B) Reproductive stem cells that arrive in the gonad during development and proliferate by mitosis
C) The production of four haploid gametes
D) The completion of a second meiotic division at fertilization
E) A period of developmental arrest after the first meiotic division

Question 16

Which are the initial products of germ cells that arrive in the male gonad?

A) Sperm
B) Spermatogonia
C) Spermatids
D) Primary spermatocytes
E) Secondary spermatocytes

Question 17

Which cells are produced from mitotic divisions of spermatogonia but are no longer mitotic themselves?

A) Sperm
B) Spermatogonia
C) Spermatids
D) Primary spermatocytes
E) Secondary spermatocytes

Question 18

Which are the first haploid germ cells produced in spermatogenesis?

A) Sperm
B) Spermatogonia
C) Spermatids
D) Primary spermatocytes
E) Secondary spermatocytes

Question 19

Budding and regeneration both

A) can lead to the production of a new individual through mitotic growth.
B) use meiosis to replace lost tissue.
C) can lead to the production of a new individual through meiotic growth.
D) serve as a trigger for the sexual phase of reproduction.
E) are restricted to simple multicellular animals.

Question 20

In the early 1900s, oyster fishermen cut sea stars (starfish), which are predators of oysters, into pieces and threw them back into the sea.This practice led to an explosion in the sea star population because

A) other sea stars ate the pieces and were able to increase their reproductive output.
B) each arm with a portion of the central disc regenerated into a new individual.
C) competition was removed from the stronger sea stars that were not caught, allowing them to increase their reproductive output.
D) the oyster population grew in response to this new supply of food, allowing the population of their predators to increase as well.
E) each arm could form a new individual through budding.

Question 21

Which event occurs during the process of fertilization in sea urchins?

A) Activation of spermatids
B) Species-specific binding of sperm to egg
C) Contribution by sperm of nutrients, mitochondria, and mitochondrial genes
D) Fusion of egg and sperm diploid nuclei
E) Fusion of sperm with cortical granules of the egg

Question 22

In which animals is external fertilization relatively common?

A) Mammals
B) Birds
C) Fishes
D) Lizards
E) Snakes

Question 23

During oogenesis, the first haploid cell with abundant cytoplasm that is produced is the

A) second polar body.
B) primary oocyte.
C) secondary oocyte.
D) first polar body.
E) ootid.

Question 24

In humans, a primary oocyte is _______ and arrested in _______ of meiosis.

A) haploid; prophase I
B) diploid; prophase I
C) haploid; prophase II
D) diploid; prophase II
E) haploid; metaphase

Question 25

At which stage does the secondary oocyte resume meiosis in humans?

A) During prenatal development
B) At birth
C) When it is fertilized
D) At menopause
E) At puberty

Question 26

Which statement about blocks to polyspermy in sea urchins is true?

A) The slow block creates a physical barrier that sperm cannot penetrate.
B) Blocks to polyspermy prevent more than one sperm from approaching an egg.
C) The fast block causes release of the acrosomal enzymes.
D) The fast block results from a change in the electrical charge difference across the plasma membrane of the sperm.
E) The slow block results from a sequestration of calcium in the endoplasmic reticulum of the egg.

Question 27

Which product of oogenesis acquires the energy, raw materials, and RNA needed for the first cell divisions after fertilization?

A) Second polar body
B) Primary oocyte
C) Secondary oocyte
D) First polar body
E) Ootid

Question 28

You observe two species of amphibians mating in a stream.Species A is engaging in external fertilization and species B is engaging in internal fertilization.In which species would recognition molecules on gametes be more critical?

A) Species A
B) Species B
C) Recognition molecules would be equally critical in both species A and species B.
D) Neither, because vertebrates do not need recognition molecules on their gametes.
E) There is insufficient information to make a determination.

Question 29

A simultaneous hermaphrodite

A) has primary sex organs of both sexes at the same time.
B) functions as a male at one time in its life and as a female at another.
C) develops from unfertilized eggs.
D) usually self-fertilizes.
E) has gonads that alternate between being ovaries and testes.

Question 30

Which group of vertebrates includes some species that display internal fertilization without copulation?

A) Bony fishes
B) Cartilaginous fishes
C) Frogs
D) Salamanders
E) Birds

Question 31

Of the various stages of human life, the earliest time that an arrested primary oocyte would resume meiosis would be

A) during prenatal development.
B) at birth.
C) when it is fertilized.
D) at menopause.
E) at puberty.

Question 32

In many species of birds, males lack a penis.Which statement about the reproductive process of these birds is true?

A) They cannot engage in internal fertilization.
B) They deposit sperm packets in the environment, where they are retrieved by a female and used to fertilize her eggs.
C) They engage in internal fertilization but without an accessory sex organ.
D) They engage in indirect sperm transfer.
E) Their offspring develop via parthenogenesis.

Question 33

Which feature is characteristic of animals with amniote eggs?

A) Production of an egg surrounded by a protective layer of jelly
B) External fertilization
C) Spawning
D) Primary sex organs in the absence of accessory sex organs
E) Reproduction in terrestrial environments

Question 34

While examining histological sections derived from the ovaries of human females at various life stages, you come across a slide labeled "Section of an ovary from a mature female." You would expect to find all of these cells on the slide except for a(n)

A) second polar body.
B) arrested primary oocyte.
C) secondary oocyte.
D) first polar body.
E) primary oocyte resuming meiosis.

Question 35

When examining histological sections derived from the testes of male mammals, you come across cells that are near the lumen of the seminiferous tubules and connected by cytoplasmic bridges.Which cells have you found?

A) Leydig cells
B) Spermatogonia
C) Secondary spermatocytes and/or spermatids
D) Sertoli cells
E) Mature sperm

Question 36

Which statement about sea urchin fertilization is true?

A) The bindin in the egg jelly causes the acrosome reaction.
B) Bindin attaches to receptors on the egg's cell membrane.
C) The acrosomal reaction helps sperm penetrate protective layers around the egg.
D) Activation of the sperm is species-specific but triggering the acrosomal reaction is not species-specific.
E) Enzymes from the egg's cortical granules trigger the fast block to polyspermy.

Question 37

Fertilization in mammals and sea urchins is similar in which way?

A) The first structure surrounding the egg with which the sperm comes in contact triggers the acrosomal reaction.
B) It occurs in the external environment.
C) Sperm recognition molecules occur on the egg plasma membrane.
D) Rises in calcium in the cytoplasm prevent entry by additional sperm.
E) The fast block to polyspermy occurs when there is a change in the electrical charge difference across the egg plasma membrane.

Question 38

Which part of a mammalian egg is functionally similar to the vitelline envelope of a sea urchin egg?

A) Cumulus
B) Plasma membrane
C) Zona pellucida
D) Cytoplasm
E) Jelly coat

Question 39

Which is the most likely advantage of hermaphroditism?

A) For a given species, every organism is a potential mate.
B) Compared to reproduction in dioecious species, simpler behavior patterns are required for mate selection.
C) More rapid reproduction of genetically successful individuals is possible through asexual reproduction compared to sexual reproduction.
D) Complex hormonal control and feedback mechanisms are not required for reproduction.
E) Complex primary sex organs are not required.

Question 40

You observe a zebrafish pair in a tank and notice that first the male chases after the female, then the female releases eggs, and then the male releases sperm on top of the eggs.The most likely adaptive advantage to this behavior is that it

A) creates a bond between the male and female that will be important for raising the fish larvae.
B) ensures that the breeding pair knows where their fertilized eggs are and can thereby care for them through embryonic development.
C) enhances the likelihood that sperm and eggs of the same species will meet.
D) allows sperm to fertilize the amniote eggs before the shells harden.
E) assures that a female breeds with only one male.

Question 41

In the mammalian ovary, granulosa cells of the follicle produce inhibin, which makes them similar to

A) thecal cells of the follicle.
B) Leydig cells in the testes of males.
C) endometrial cells.
D) Sertoli cells in the testes of males.
E) cells of the corpus luteum.

Question 42

Refer to the figure showing male reproductive hormones. Based on the figure, which statement is true?

A) Inhibin exerts negative feedback on the structure at point 1.
B) Circulating testosterone inhibits the release of FSH from the structure at point 2.
C) Examples of structures at point 5 are genitals, larynx, and skeletal muscles.
D) The cells at point 3 are located inside seminiferous tubules.
E) Low levels of circulating testosterone inhibit the structure at point 2.

Question 43

Which is the correct sequence of structures through which a mammalian sperm passes before fertilizing an egg?

A) Uterus, vagina, cervix, oviduct, ovary
B) Vagina, cervix, uterus, oviduct
C) Oviduct, uterus, vagina, ovary, body cavity
D) Vagina, cervix, oviduct, uterus
E) Vagina, uterus, oviduct, body cavity

Question 44

Refer to the figure showing the human male reproductive system. Based on the figure, which statement is true?

A) The structure at point 7 is cut in a vasectomy.
B) The structure at point 11 is the ejaculatory duct.
C) The structure at point 7 joins the bladder.
D) The structure at point 5 contributes an acidic fluid that makes up about 30 percent of the volume of semen.
E) The structure at point 6 is the seminal vesicle, which contributes fructose to the semen.

Question 45

If a woman has scar tissue completely blocking both of her oviducts about halfway down their length, which event would be impossible without medical intervention?

A) Fertilization
B) Ovulation
C) Buildup of the endometrium
D) Menstruation
E) Formation of the corpus luteum

Question 46

Which would be an expected outcome of removal of the prostate gland?

A) Decrease in volume of semen by 60 percent
B) Decrease in the pH of the male reproductive tract
C) Failure of fibrinogen to convert semen into a gelatinous mass
D) Greater survival of sperm once in the female reproductive tract
E) Absence of secretions preceding climax

Question 47

In mammals, the egg is propelled through the oviduct by means of

A) cilia on the surface of the egg.
B) the egg's flagellum.
C) uterine contractions.
D) cilia lining the oviduct.
E) amoeboid motion.

Question 48

Drugs used to treat erectile dysfunction act to

A) block nitric oxide (NO).
B) prolong the effects of nitric oxide (NO).
C) increase testosterone.
D) increase gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).
E) prolong the activity of enzymes that break down the second messenger cGMP.

Question 49

Testosterone can fuel prostate cancer.Which approach might be included in treatments designed to lower testosterone in a patient with advanced prostate cancer?

A) Blocking luteinizing hormone (LH)
B) Increasing numbers of Leydig cells with growth factors
C) Treating with gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
D) Treating with an antagonist to follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
E) Cutting and tying off the vas deferens associated with each testis

Question 50

If the hypothalamus in a human male does not produce sufficient GnRH, the

A) man will make functional sperm but is unable to ejaculate.
B) man's sperm will lack functional flagella.
C) fluid that usually lubricates the man's urethra for sperm travel will be defective.
D) man's semen will lack the fructose fuel required for the sperm to swim.
E) man's Leydig cells will not make the testosterone necessary to stimulate spermatogenesis.

Question 51

Refer to the figure showing the human male reproductive system. Based on the figure, which statement is true?

A) While exiting the male, sperm go from point 11 to point 12 to point 3 to point 5.
B) The structure shown at point 6 produces a neutralizing and lubricating solution.
C) The material shown at point 8 is muscle tissue that contracts to produce an erection.
D) Mature sperm are stored in the structure at point 12.
E) Seminal fluids are produced by the structures at points 3, 5, 6, and 11.

Question 52

Mammals differ from other amniotes in that

A) most species are ovoviviparous.
B) they have internal fertilization.
C) most species have a placenta.
D) they have paired ovaries.
E) they protect their offspring internally until birth.

Question 53

A human female has the most primary oocytes in her ovaries

A) at birth.
B) just before puberty.
C) early in her fertile years.
D) midway through her fertile years.
E) at menopause.

Question 54

In the mammalian ovary, granulosa cells of the follicle are stimulated by follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) to grow and mature.Granulosa cells are therefore similar to

A) thecal cells of the follicle.
B) Leydig cells in the testes of males.
C) endometrial cells.
D) Sertoli cells in the testes of males.
E) cells of the corpus luteum.

Question 55

In the mammalian ovary, thecal cells of the follicle are stimulated by luteinizing hormone (LH) to produce testosterone.Thecal cells are therefore similar to

A) granulosa cells of the follicle.
B) Leydig cells in the testes of males.
C) Sertoli cells in the testes of males.
D) primary oocytes.
E) cells of the corpus luteum.

Question 56

A tumor in a Leydig cell would most directly affect the

A) production of inhibin.
B) production of testosterone.
C) secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).
D) secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
E) secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH).

Question 57

Mammalian semen is made up primarily of

A) seminal fluid.
B) Sertoli cells, which provide nutrients for the sperm.
C) alkaline secretions from the prostate gland.
D) sperm.
E) fibrinogen.

Question 58

Which anatomical feature(s) is/are shared by both the reproductive and excretory systems in most male mammals?

A) Prostate gland
B) Seminiferous tubules
C) Vas deferens
D) Urethra
E) Epididymis

Question 59

A complete blockage in the vas deferens at the end closest to the testis would cause newly matured sperm to remain in the

A) seminiferous tubules.
B) urethra.
C) lumens of the seminiferous tubules.
D) epididymis.
E) vas deferens.

Question 60

If the seminal vesicles in a human male are defective, the

A) man will make functional sperm but be unable to ejaculate.
B) man's sperm will lack functional flagella.
C) fluid needed to lubricate the man's urethra for easier sperm travel will be defective.
D) man's semen will lack the fructose fuel needed for the sperm to swim.
E) man's Leydig cells will not make the testosterone required to stimulate spermatogenesis.

Question 61

Birth control pills containing synthetic estrogen and progesterone inhibit the ovarian cycle.A similar situation occurs during pregnancy, when levels of estrogen and progesterone are high.During pregnancy, progesterone is produced first by the _______ and then by the _______.

A) placenta; corpus luteum
B) placenta; fetus
C) corpus luteum; follicles remaining in the ovary
D) anterior pituitary; hypothalamus
E) corpus luteum; placenta

Question 62

Refer to the graph showing changes in three female reproductive hormones during pregnancy. Based on the graph, which statement is true?

A) Pregnancy tests detect the presence of the hormone in curve A.
B) The hormone in curve B stimulates ovulation.
C) The hormone in curve C stimulates growth of follicles.
D) The decreasing ratio of the hormone in curve B to the hormone in curve C over the course of pregnancy stimulates uterine contractions.
E) The hormone in curve A stimulates the corpus luteum to degenerate.

Question 63

In placental mammals, the blastocyst normally implants within the

A) oviducts.
B) ovary.
C) endometrium of the uterus.
D) myometrium of the vagina.
E) chorion.

Question 64

Which hormone would decline immediately after a bilateral oophorectomy (surgical removal of both ovaries)?

A) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
B) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
C) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D) Prolactin
E) Estrogen

Question 65

Refer to the graph showing changes in three female reproductive hormones during pregnancy. Based on the graph, which statement is true?

A) Curve A represents levels of luteinizing hormone (LH).
B) Curve B represents progesterone levels.
C) Curve C represents a hormone responsible for maintaining the endometrium.
D) Curve A represents a hormone secreted by ovaries.
E) Curve B represents a hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary.

Question 66

Some patients with breast cancer receive aromatase inhibitors as part of their medical treatment.Such an inhibitor causes

A) enhanced growth and maturation of granulosa cells in the ovary.
B) enhanced secretion of inhibin.
C) low progesterone levels.
D) low estrogen levels.
E) maintenance of the corpus luteum.

Question 67

Which statement represents the principal difference between the uterine cycle of humans and the cycles of other mammals?

A) The uterine cycles of other mammals occur if fertilization occurs, whereas the uterine cycle of humans occurs if fertilization does not occur.
B) The uterine cycle of humans occurs if fertilization occurs, whereas the uterine cycles of most mammals occur if fertilization does not occur.
C) The uterine cycles of most other mammals lack menstruation.
D) The uterine cycles of most other mammals do not involve any changes to the uterine lining.
E) Peaks of progesterone in the uterine cycles of most other mammals correspond to periods of enhanced sexual receptivity referred to as estrus or "heat."

Question 68

Pregnancy tests that can be done at home detect the presence of

A) luteinizing hormone.
B) follicle-stimulating hormone.
C) human chorionic gonadotropin.
D) estrogen.
E) progesterone.

Question 69

In women, new follicles do not mature as long as the corpus luteum is maintained because

A) hormones released from the corpus luteum inhibit gonadotropin release.
B) hormones released from the corpus luteum inhibit ovarian secretion.
C) the ovary receives negative feedback from the endometrial lining of the uterus.
D) there is insufficient energy to support both maintenance of the corpus luteum and follicle development.
E) hormones released from the corpus luteum inhibit buildup of the endometrium.

Question 70

Mifepristone (formerly called RU-486) terminates a pregnancy by blocking the action of progesterone.The termination occurs because progesterone is needed to

A) maintain the endometrium.
B) trigger ovulation.
C) prompt formation of the corpus luteum.
D) promote ovarian development.
E) initiate degeneration of the corpus luteum.

Question 71

The _______ cycles of most mammals, other than humans, do not include _______.

A) uterine; buildup of the endometrium
B) uterine; menstruation
C) ovarian; formation of a corpus luteum
D) reproductive; a distinct period of sexual receptivity
E) uterine; a surge in luteinizing hormone (LH) before ovulation

Question 72

Refer to the figure depicting the average blood concentrations of four circulating hormones in 100 healthy adult women.Each hormone plays a role in regulating some aspect of the ovarian and/or uterine cycle. Based on the figure, which statement is true?

A) Curve A represents luteinizing hormone (LH) levels.
B) Curve B represents progesterone levels.
C) Curve C represents a hormone secreted from the anterior pituitary gland.
D) Curve D represents a hormone produced by the corpus luteum.
E) Curve A represents a hormone secreted by the ovary.

Question 73

At birth, a female has about one million primary oocytes in each ovary.During a woman's fertile years, about _______ of these oocytes will mature and be released at ovulation.

A) 100
B) 450
C) 900
D) 2,000
E) 4,500

Question 74

Women are encouraged to nurse their babies as soon as possible after giving birth because

A) prolactin released in response to a baby's suckling promotes the mother-child bond.
B) oxytocin released in response to a baby's suckling augments uterine contractions, which helps to reduce the size of the uterus and stop bleeding.
C) such contact prompts the release of pain-reducing chemicals by the brain.
D) the absence of a baby's crying stimulates greater release of oxytocin.
E) the infant needs immediate nutrition, since it can no longer rely on the placenta.

Question 75

Refer to the figure showing the human female reproductive system. Based on the figure, which statement is true?

A) The structure at point 1 is covered by a diaphragm, placed immediately below it, as a form of birth control.
B) The structure at point 8 is tied off during female sterilization.
C) Progesterone receptors in the structure at point 4 are blocked by Mifepristone (RU-486).
D) Spermicidal jelly is applied to the structure at point 4.
E) The cycle of the structure at point 3 is stopped by combination estrogen and progesterone birth control pills.

Question 76

Refer to the figure depicting the average blood concentrations of four circulating hormones in 100 healthy adult women.Each hormone plays a role in regulating some aspect of the ovarian and/or uterine cycle. Based on the figure, which statement is true?

A) The hormone represented by curve A is released by the anterior pituitary in response to GnRH.
B) The hormone represented by curve B is secreted by the developing follicle.
C) The hormone represented by curve C stimulates growth of the follicle.
D) The hormone represented by curve D stimulates ovulation.
E) The hormone represented by curve A is produced by the hypothalamus.

Question 77

In human males and females, a tumor on the anterior pituitary would most immediately affect secretion of _______ and _______.

A) follicle-stimulating hormone; estrogen
B) estrogen; progesterone
C) follicle-stimulating hormone; progesterone
D) luteinizing hormone; progesterone
E) luteinizing hormone; follicle-stimulating hormone

Question 78

Which hormone might be given to a woman who has experienced recurrent miscarriages?

A) Progesterone
B) Oxytocin
C) Prolactin
D) Inhibin
E) Human chorionic gonadotropin

Question 79

In women, a drug that blocks the LH surge would most immediately prevent

A) a peak in estrogen.
B) ovulation.
C) a peak in progesterone.
D) implantation of a fertilized egg.
E) degeneration of the corpus luteum.

Question 80

A woman develops a somatic mutation that prevents the thecal cells in one of her ovaries from producing testosterone.The most likely result of this mutation is that the

A) granulosa cells in the affected ovary will cause multiple follicles to mature simultaneously.
B) follicles in the affected ovary will be incapable of maturing and releasing oocytes.
C) granulosa cells in the affected ovary will produce a greater amount of estrogen than normal.
D) woman will ovulate multiple eggs during each ovarian cycle.
E) woman will have only anovulatory (non-ovulatory) cycles and will therefore be infertile.