Deck 9: Blood, Lymph, and Immune Systems
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Deck 9: Blood, Lymph, and Immune Systems
1
The primary function of platelets is:
A) phagocytosis.
B) plasma formation.
C) cellular immunity.
D) antigen formation.
E) blood clotting.
A) phagocytosis.
B) plasma formation.
C) cellular immunity.
D) antigen formation.
E) blood clotting.
blood clotting.
2
Blood plasma minus fibrinogen and other clotting factors is:
A) serum.
B) heparin.
C) thromboplastin.
D) cytoplasm.
E) histamine.
A) serum.
B) heparin.
C) thromboplastin.
D) cytoplasm.
E) histamine.
serum.
3
The chief component of blood plasma is:
A) water.
B) plasma proteins.
C) electrolytes.
D) hormones.
E) excretory products.
A) water.
B) plasma proteins.
C) electrolytes.
D) hormones.
E) excretory products.
water.
4
The CF sider/o means:
A) net.
B) protein.
C) different.
D) shape.
E) iron.
A) net.
B) protein.
C) different.
D) shape.
E) iron.
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5
Histamines and heparin are released by:
A) monocytes.
B) erythrocytes.
C) macrophages.
D) neutrophils.
E) basophils.
A) monocytes.
B) erythrocytes.
C) macrophages.
D) neutrophils.
E) basophils.
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6
Which cell type is responsible for humoral immunity?
A) T cell
B) Monocyte
C) Macrophage
D) B lymphocyte
E) Erythrocyte
A) T cell
B) Monocyte
C) Macrophage
D) B lymphocyte
E) Erythrocyte
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7
What are the smallest formed elements found in blood?
A) Neutrophils
B) Basophils
C) Monocytes
D) Erythrocytes
E) Platelets
A) Neutrophils
B) Basophils
C) Monocytes
D) Erythrocytes
E) Platelets
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8
Destruction of old RBCs is a function of the:
A) bone marrow.
B) spleen.
C) tonsils.
D) thymus.
E) lymph nodes.
A) bone marrow.
B) spleen.
C) tonsils.
D) thymus.
E) lymph nodes.
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9
A reticulocyte is a(n):
A) immature neutrophil.
B) blastic RBC.
C) blastic WBC.
D) immature RBC.
E) immature platelet.
A) immature neutrophil.
B) blastic RBC.
C) blastic WBC.
D) immature RBC.
E) immature platelet.
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10
The combining form (CF)neutr/o means:
A) unknown.
B) strange.
C) neither.
D) different.
E) same.
A) unknown.
B) strange.
C) neither.
D) different.
E) same.
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11
The liquid medium of blood is:
A) plasma.
B) myeloid tissue.
C) hemoglobin.
D) heparin.
E) fibrinogen.
A) plasma.
B) myeloid tissue.
C) hemoglobin.
D) heparin.
E) fibrinogen.
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12
The CF poikil/o means:
A) varied,irregular.
B) foreign.
C) pointed.
D) iron.
E) swallowing,eating.
A) varied,irregular.
B) foreign.
C) pointed.
D) iron.
E) swallowing,eating.
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13
What is a sentinel node?
A) Largest node in a body area
B) Largest node in the entire body
C) Node that first receives drainage from a cancer-containing area
D) Node that is sensitive to pain
E) Node that does not have T or B cells
A) Largest node in a body area
B) Largest node in the entire body
C) Node that first receives drainage from a cancer-containing area
D) Node that is sensitive to pain
E) Node that does not have T or B cells
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14
Which type of blood cell is responsible for the immune response?
A) Neutrophil
B) Lymphocyte
C) Thrombocyte
D) Granulocyte
E) Erythrocyte
A) Neutrophil
B) Lymphocyte
C) Thrombocyte
D) Granulocyte
E) Erythrocyte
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15
The CF xen/o means:
A) dry.
B) foreign,strange.
C) net,mesh.
D) iron.
E) change.
A) dry.
B) foreign,strange.
C) net,mesh.
D) iron.
E) change.
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16
The chemical messengers that initiate,inhibit,increase,or decrease activity in other cells are called:
A) proteins.
B) albumins.
C) immunoglobulins.
D) cytokines.
E) cytotoxins.
A) proteins.
B) albumins.
C) immunoglobulins.
D) cytokines.
E) cytotoxins.
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17
Which two blood cells are chiefly responsible for acquired immunity?
A) Lymphocytes and platelets
B) Platelets and leukocytes
C) Monocytes and platelets
D) Leukocytes and lymphocytes
E) Monocytes and lymphocytes
A) Lymphocytes and platelets
B) Platelets and leukocytes
C) Monocytes and platelets
D) Leukocytes and lymphocytes
E) Monocytes and lymphocytes
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18
Phagocytosis is a function of which of the following cells?
A) Macrocytes
B) Erythrocytes
C) Macrophages
D) Thrombocytes
E) Reticulocytes
A) Macrocytes
B) Erythrocytes
C) Macrophages
D) Thrombocytes
E) Reticulocytes
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19
The CF chrom/o means:
A) net.
B) embryonic.
C) different.
D) change.
E) color.
A) net.
B) embryonic.
C) different.
D) change.
E) color.
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20
Blood development is called:
A) autoimmunity.
B) hematocrit.
C) hematopoiesis.
D) hemostasis.
E) dyscrasia.
A) autoimmunity.
B) hematocrit.
C) hematopoiesis.
D) hemostasis.
E) dyscrasia.
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21
The suffix -penia means:
A) attraction for.
B) decrease,deficiency.
C) abnormal condition.
D) standing still.
E) carrying,transmission.
A) attraction for.
B) decrease,deficiency.
C) abnormal condition.
D) standing still.
E) carrying,transmission.
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22
A life-threatening allergic reaction is called:
A) sensitization.
B) apoplexy.
C) syncope.
D) anaphylaxis.
E) induration.
A) sensitization.
B) apoplexy.
C) syncope.
D) anaphylaxis.
E) induration.
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23
The process in which a transplant recipient's immune system attacks the transplanted organ or tissue is called:
A) disseminated intravascular coagulation.
B) viscerogenic.
C) graft vs.host disease.
D) graft rejection.
E) graft elimination.
A) disseminated intravascular coagulation.
B) viscerogenic.
C) graft vs.host disease.
D) graft rejection.
E) graft elimination.
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24
Inflammation of the spleen is called:
A) splenitis.
B) splenorrhea.
C) splenoptosis.
D) splenocele.
E) splenorrhagia.
A) splenitis.
B) splenorrhea.
C) splenoptosis.
D) splenocele.
E) splenorrhagia.
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25
A skin rash associated with an allergy is called:
A) urticaria.
B) bullae.
C) fissure.
D) ulcer.
E) papillae.
A) urticaria.
B) bullae.
C) fissure.
D) ulcer.
E) papillae.
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26
Disease of a gland is a(n):
A) immunodeficiency.
B) thymopathy.
C) adenopathy.
D) adenomegaly.
E) adenoiditis.
A) immunodeficiency.
B) thymopathy.
C) adenopathy.
D) adenomegaly.
E) adenoiditis.
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27
The suffix -phil means:
A) decrease,deficiency.
B) protection.
C) formation,production.
D) attraction for.
E) formation.
A) decrease,deficiency.
B) protection.
C) formation,production.
D) attraction for.
E) formation.
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28
The prefix iso- means:
A) unequal.
B) small.
C) lacking,without.
D) same,equal.
E) varied.
A) unequal.
B) small.
C) lacking,without.
D) same,equal.
E) varied.
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29
The suffix -phylaxis means:
A) protection.
B) carrying,transmission.
C) decrease,deficiency.
D) standing still.
E) formation,production.
A) protection.
B) carrying,transmission.
C) decrease,deficiency.
D) standing still.
E) formation,production.
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30
Flare up of an autoimmune disease is called:
A) syncope.
B) induration.
C) remission.
D) urticaria.
E) exacerbation.
A) syncope.
B) induration.
C) remission.
D) urticaria.
E) exacerbation.
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31
Which term means the ability to develop an immune response?
A) Healthy
B) Immunocompetent
C) Vigorous
D) Apathy
E) Immunodeficiency
A) Healthy
B) Immunocompetent
C) Vigorous
D) Apathy
E) Immunodeficiency
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32
The suffix -phoresis means:
A) decrease.
B) formation.
C) attraction.
D) protein formation.
E) carrying,transmission.
A) decrease.
B) formation.
C) attraction.
D) protein formation.
E) carrying,transmission.
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33
The prefix allo- means:
A) other,differing from normal.
B) unequal,dissimilar.
C) one.
D) much,many.
E) same,equal.
A) other,differing from normal.
B) unequal,dissimilar.
C) one.
D) much,many.
E) same,equal.
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34
A mass of extravasated,usually clotted blood found in tissues or organs is called:
A) hemostasis.
B) hemophilia.
C) hematin.
D) hemangioma.
E) hematoma.
A) hemostasis.
B) hemophilia.
C) hematin.
D) hemangioma.
E) hematoma.
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35
Which type of anemia involves severe pain caused by crescent-shaped RBCs that are unable to pass through blood vessels?
A) Sickle cell anemia
B) Aplastic anemia
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) Pernicious anemia
E) Iron deficiency anemia
A) Sickle cell anemia
B) Aplastic anemia
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) Pernicious anemia
E) Iron deficiency anemia
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36
The CF blast/o means:
A) granule.
B) gland.
C) embryonic cell.
D) clumping,gluing.
E) color.
A) granule.
B) gland.
C) embryonic cell.
D) clumping,gluing.
E) color.
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37
The suffix -stasis means:
A) remain.
B) blood condition.
C) protein.
D) standing still.
E) decrease.
A) remain.
B) blood condition.
C) protein.
D) standing still.
E) decrease.
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38
The CF thromb/o means:
A) throbbing.
B) blood clot.
C) chest.
D) thymus.
E) spleen.
A) throbbing.
B) blood clot.
C) chest.
D) thymus.
E) spleen.
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39
The oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is deficient in which condition?
A) Hypoxia
B) Hypoxemia
C) Anemia
D) Leukemia
E) Polycythemia
A) Hypoxia
B) Hypoxemia
C) Anemia
D) Leukemia
E) Polycythemia
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40
The CF kary/o means:
A) strange,foreign.
B) granule.
C) dawn (rose-colored).
D) gland.
E) nucleus.
A) strange,foreign.
B) granule.
C) dawn (rose-colored).
D) gland.
E) nucleus.
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41
Which type of bone marrow transplant is prepared from a compatible donor?
A) Autologous
B) Homologous
C) Heterologous
D) Xenograft
E) Heterograft
A) Autologous
B) Homologous
C) Heterologous
D) Xenograft
E) Heterograft
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42
Which hereditary disorder involves impairment of the blood-clotting mechanism?
A) Anemia
B) Leukemia
C) Infectious mononucleosis
D) Polycythemia
E) Hemophilia
A) Anemia
B) Leukemia
C) Infectious mononucleosis
D) Polycythemia
E) Hemophilia
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43
What is a viral disorder caused by the Epstein-Barr virus?
A) Thrombocytopenia
B) Von Willebrand disease
C) Thrombocythemia
D) Anemia
E) Infectious mononucleosis
A) Thrombocytopenia
B) Von Willebrand disease
C) Thrombocythemia
D) Anemia
E) Infectious mononucleosis
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44
An abnormal sticky protein that lines the blood vessels causing clot formation is called:
A) albumen.
B) globulin.
C) fibrinogen.
D) von Willebrand factor.
E) hemosiderin.
A) albumen.
B) globulin.
C) fibrinogen.
D) von Willebrand factor.
E) hemosiderin.
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45
The term pruritus means:
A) inflammation.
B) clumping.
C) extreme itching.
D) infection.
E) coagulation.
A) inflammation.
B) clumping.
C) extreme itching.
D) infection.
E) coagulation.
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46
Which disorder is associated with a "butterfly rash" on the nose and cheeks?
A) Leukemia
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Systemic lupus erythematosus
D) Infectious mononucleosis
E) HIV
A) Leukemia
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Systemic lupus erythematosus
D) Infectious mononucleosis
E) HIV
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47
Complications of infectious mononucleosis include:
A) hepatomegaly and splenomegaly.
B) hepatomegaly and gastromegaly.
C) gastromegaly and ascites.
D) splenomegaly and anemia.
E) anemia and hemarthrosis.
A) hepatomegaly and splenomegaly.
B) hepatomegaly and gastromegaly.
C) gastromegaly and ascites.
D) splenomegaly and anemia.
E) anemia and hemarthrosis.
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48
The presence of bacteria or their toxins in blood is called:
A) sepsis.
B) hemolysis.
C) bacteruria.
D) hemosiderin.
E) hemophilia.
A) sepsis.
B) hemolysis.
C) bacteruria.
D) hemosiderin.
E) hemophilia.
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49
Which laboratory test is used to diagnose pernicious anemia?
A) Hematocrit
B) Complete blood count
C) Monospot
D) Schilling
E) Von Willebrand
A) Hematocrit
B) Complete blood count
C) Monospot
D) Schilling
E) Von Willebrand
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50
Which test measures the time it takes for plasma to form a clot?
A) Partial prothrombin time
B) Partial thromboplastin time
C) Prothrombin time
D) Factor VIII
E) Prothrombin elucidation
A) Partial prothrombin time
B) Partial thromboplastin time
C) Prothrombin time
D) Factor VIII
E) Prothrombin elucidation
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51
Malignant tumor of plasma cells in bone marrow is called:
A) leukemia.
B) lymphadenopathy.
C) multiple myeloma.
D) osteoma.
E) osteocarcinoma.
A) leukemia.
B) lymphadenopathy.
C) multiple myeloma.
D) osteoma.
E) osteocarcinoma.
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52
A major cause of edema is:
A) HIV.
B) anemia.
C) polycythemia.
D) hypoproteinemia.
E) erythrocytosis.
A) HIV.
B) anemia.
C) polycythemia.
D) hypoproteinemia.
E) erythrocytosis.
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53
Which type of anemia is caused by bone marrow failure?
A) Aplastic
B) Hemolytic
C) Hemorrhagic
D) Pernicious
E) Sickle cell
A) Aplastic
B) Hemolytic
C) Hemorrhagic
D) Pernicious
E) Sickle cell
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54
Which type of transplant is prepared from the recipient's own bone marrow?
A) Autologous
B) Homologous
C) Heterologous
D) Xenograft
E) Allograft
A) Autologous
B) Homologous
C) Heterologous
D) Xenograft
E) Allograft
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55
An extreme,life-threatening response to an allergen is called:
A) induration.
B) anaphylaxis.
C) asthma.
D) sensitization.
E) autoimmunity.
A) induration.
B) anaphylaxis.
C) asthma.
D) sensitization.
E) autoimmunity.
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56
A decrease in the number of circulating RBCs is called:
A) erythrophilia.
B) erythrocytosis.
C) erythropenia.
D) erythemia.
E) erythroblastosis.
A) erythrophilia.
B) erythrocytosis.
C) erythropenia.
D) erythemia.
E) erythroblastosis.
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57
Pinpoint hemorrhages that appear on the lower leg,usually associated with decreased platelets,are called:
A) ecchymosis.
B) petechiae.
C) butterfly rash.
D) hematoma.
E) extravasation.
A) ecchymosis.
B) petechiae.
C) butterfly rash.
D) hematoma.
E) extravasation.
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58
Patients with AIDS commonly develop:
A) liver cancer.
B) dementia.
C) opportunistic infections.
D) multiple myeloma.
E) chronic anemia.
A) liver cancer.
B) dementia.
C) opportunistic infections.
D) multiple myeloma.
E) chronic anemia.
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59
The initial exposure to an allergen is called:
A) sensitization.
B) immunocompetency.
C) urticaria.
D) induration.
E) anaphylaxis.
A) sensitization.
B) immunocompetency.
C) urticaria.
D) induration.
E) anaphylaxis.
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60
Which treatment alters,enhances,stimulates,or restores the body's natural immune mechanisms to treat disease?
A) Biopsy
B) Bone marrow aspiration
C) Radiation therapy
D) Immunotherapy
E) Chemotherapy
A) Biopsy
B) Bone marrow aspiration
C) Radiation therapy
D) Immunotherapy
E) Chemotherapy
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61
Which abbreviation stands for mononuclear leukocytes?
A) NK cells
B) eos
C) PMN
D) MNL
E) PT
A) NK cells
B) eos
C) PMN
D) MNL
E) PT
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62
Which form of treatment alters or enhances the body's natural immune mechanisms to treat diseases?
A) Immunosuppression
B) Immunodiffusion
C) Radiotherapy
D) Chemotherapy
E) Immunotherapy
A) Immunosuppression
B) Immunodiffusion
C) Radiotherapy
D) Chemotherapy
E) Immunotherapy
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63
Which abbreviation refers to a disease associated with infectious mononucleosis?
A) CBC
B) ALL
C) AIDS
D) PCP
E) EBV
A) CBC
B) ALL
C) AIDS
D) PCP
E) EBV
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64
Which procedure is used to completely remove lymph nodes in an area containing cancer?
A) Partial lymphangiectomy
B) Total lymphangiectomy
C) Sentinel node excision
D) Radical lymphadenectomy
E) Partial lymphadenectomy
A) Partial lymphangiectomy
B) Total lymphangiectomy
C) Sentinel node excision
D) Radical lymphadenectomy
E) Partial lymphadenectomy
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65
Excision of the thymus is called:
A) thymorrhaphy.
B) thymostomy.
C) thymotomy.
D) thymocentesis.
E) thymectomy.
A) thymorrhaphy.
B) thymostomy.
C) thymotomy.
D) thymocentesis.
E) thymectomy.
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66
Which imaging test uses "tracers" to determine lymph flow or lymph obstructions?
A) Lymphoscintigraphy
B) Lymphangiography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) X-ray
E) Computed tomography
A) Lymphoscintigraphy
B) Lymphangiography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) X-ray
E) Computed tomography
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67
Which test is used to screen for deficiencies of some clotting factors?
A) Partial thromboplastin time
B) Prothrombin time
C) Coumadin
D) Schilling
E) Complete blood count
A) Partial thromboplastin time
B) Prothrombin time
C) Coumadin
D) Schilling
E) Complete blood count
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68
Which abbreviation denotes a common blood screening test?
A) PCP
B) CBC
C) CLL
D) APTT
E) AML
A) PCP
B) CBC
C) CLL
D) APTT
E) AML
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69
Which serology test is used to diagnose infectious mononucleosis?
A) Schilling
B) Von Willebrand
C) Complete blood count
D) Prothrombin time
E) Monospot
A) Schilling
B) Von Willebrand
C) Complete blood count
D) Prothrombin time
E) Monospot
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70
Which agents prevent blood clot formation in deep veins?
A) Anticoagulants
B) Antifibrinolytics
C) Thrombolytics
D) Thrombostatics
E) Hemostatics
A) Anticoagulants
B) Antifibrinolytics
C) Thrombolytics
D) Thrombostatics
E) Hemostatics
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71
Incision of a vein is called:
A) venostasis.
B) phlebotomy.
C) phleborrhaphy.
D) phlebectopia.
E) venostomy.
A) venostasis.
B) phlebotomy.
C) phleborrhaphy.
D) phlebectopia.
E) venostomy.
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72
Which test determines the presence of pathogens in the blood?
A) Complete blood count
B) Antinuclear antibody
C) Monospot
D) Blood culture
E) Transfusion
A) Complete blood count
B) Antinuclear antibody
C) Monospot
D) Blood culture
E) Transfusion
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73
A homologous transplant is also called a(n):
A) heterograft.
B) heterologous transplant.
C) xenograft.
D) autograft.
E) allogenic transplant.
A) heterograft.
B) heterologous transplant.
C) xenograft.
D) autograft.
E) allogenic transplant.
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74
Infusion of blood for therapeutic purposes is called:
A) culture.
B) transplant.
C) transfusion.
D) dialysis.
E) chemotherapy.
A) culture.
B) transplant.
C) transfusion.
D) dialysis.
E) chemotherapy.
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75
Which abbreviation denotes a disease associated with "butterfly rash"?
A) CLL
B) EBV
C) SLE
D) PCP
E) AIDS
A) CLL
B) EBV
C) SLE
D) PCP
E) AIDS
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76
Which procedure involves removal of nodes from an area of malignancy in an effort to control the spread of cancer?
A) Lymphangiotomy
B) Lymphangiectasis
C) Lymphadenectomy
D) Lymphadenotomy
E) Lymphangiography
A) Lymphangiotomy
B) Lymphangiectasis
C) Lymphadenectomy
D) Lymphadenotomy
E) Lymphangiography
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77
Which sensitive imaging procedure detects abnormalities in bone marrow,especially in multiple myeloma?
A) Bone marrow x-ray
B) Bone marrow CT
C) Lymphoscintigraphy
D) Bone marrow MRI
E) Lymphangiography
A) Bone marrow x-ray
B) Bone marrow CT
C) Lymphoscintigraphy
D) Bone marrow MRI
E) Lymphangiography
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78
Which laboratory test identifies antibodies that attack the individual's own body cells?
A) Bone marrow
B) Antinuclear antibody
C) Blood typing
D) Complete blood count
E) Blood culture
A) Bone marrow
B) Antinuclear antibody
C) Blood typing
D) Complete blood count
E) Blood culture
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79
Which treatment uses immune system stimulators to enhance the immune response?
A) Immunosuppression
B) Biotherapy
C) Immunodiffusion
D) Immunophoresis
E) Immunoprecipitation
A) Immunosuppression
B) Biotherapy
C) Immunodiffusion
D) Immunophoresis
E) Immunoprecipitation
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80
Which type of test is commonly used to identify blood disorders such as leukemia?
A) Bone marrow aspiration
B) Sentinel node excision
C) Antinuclear antibody
D) Blood culture
E) Blood typing
A) Bone marrow aspiration
B) Sentinel node excision
C) Antinuclear antibody
D) Blood culture
E) Blood typing
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