Deck 3: Prenatal Development and Birth

Question 1

In Karen's pregnancy,the zygote has implanted in her fallopian tube rather than her uterus.What type of pregnancy is this?

A) ectopic
B) proximodal
C) interstitial
D) spontaneous

Answer 1

ectopic

Question 2

At conception,sperm and ova unite to form a new cell called a(n)

A) gamete.
B) zygote.
C) embryo.
D) autosome.

Answer 2

zygote.

Question 3

Which of the following statements is true regarding women over age 35 and multiple births?

A) Women over age 35 are more likely to conceive and produce multiple births only if they have taken fertility drugs.
B) Women over age 35 are more likely to conceive and produce multiple births only if the person who fathered the child is over age 50.
C) Women over age 35 are more likely than younger women to experience difficulty becoming pregnant.
D) Women over age 35 are more likely to produce multiple births only if they have conceived through in vitro fertilization.

Answer 3

Women over age 35 are more likely than younger women to experience difficulty becoming pregnant.

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about in vitro fertilization?

A) Cryopreservation has been found to have significant negative effects upon the development of infants and children who were cryopreserved as embryos.
B) In Canada, three or more embryos will be simultaneously implanted in a woman's uterus in order to increase the likelihood of at least one live birth.
C) IVF is less successful among older women than among younger women.
D) In vitro fertilization is also known as the "test tube baby" method.

Question 5

How many chromosomes are found in the nucleus of the typical human cell?

A) 46
B) 23 pairs
C) 23 pairs and an extra pair of sex-determining chromosomes
D) 46 pairs

Question 6

Dilara,at six weeks pregnant,is experiencing symptoms of nausea and vomiting.These symptoms are associated with a condition of pregnancy known as __________.

A) toxemia of pregnancy
B) morning sickness
C) gestational diabetes
D) spontaneous abortion

Question 7

A female contributes ________ to the genetics that determine the sex of a zygote,and a male contributes ________ to determine the sex of a zygote.

A) gametes; genes
B) autosomes; sex chromosomes
C) X-chromosomes; X- and Y-chromosomes
D) monogenic alleles; polygenic alleles

Question 8

Which of the following is a factor associated with multiple births?

A) The presence of hormones in the foods we eat has led to an increase in multiple births.
B) The number of women under the age of 30 who are giving birth has increased in Canada.
C) The prevalent use of artificial insemination has led to an increase in multiple births.
D) The number of women older than age 35 who give birth has increased in Canada.

Question 9

In the assisted reproduction technique known as ________,donor sperm may be deposited directly into the uterus of a woman who wants to conceive without a male partner.

A) vitrification
B) artificial insemination
C) in vitro fertilization
D) cryopreservation

Question 10

Specialized cells used in reproduction that contain only 23 single chromosomes are called

A) zygotes.
B) gametes.
C) autosomes.
D) XY chromosomes.

Question 11

What types of twins are conceived when more than one ovum is produced and where both have been fertilized by separate sperm?

A) fraternal twins
B) identical twins
C) monozygotic twins
D) germinal twins

Question 12

All of the following are assisted human reproduction (AHR)treatments EXCEPT

A) ovulation stimulation drugs.
B) in vitro fertilization.
C) artificial insemination.
D) embryo vitrification.

Question 13

The potential for multiple births increases most with _______ treatments.

A) any assisted human reproduction (AHR) activity
B) in vitro fertilization
C) artificial insemination
D) ovulation stimulation drugs

Question 14

Naseema and Parmajit are twins.Based upon the incidence of births of twins,the girls are most likely ________ twins.

A) monozygotic
B) polygenetic
C) dizygotic
D) identical

Question 15

A zygote that has two X-chromosomes will develop into

A) a boy.
B) a girl.
C) a gamete.
D) twins.

Question 16

When an egg and a sperm are combined in a petri dish and the resulting embryo is implanted in a woman's uterus,the assisted reproduction technique is known as

A) cryptopreservation.
B) artificial insemination.
C) cloning.
D) in vitro fertilization.

Question 17

Which of the following statements is true regarding women over age 35 and multiple births?

A) Women over age 35 are more likely to conceive and produce multiple births only if they have taken fertility drugs.
B) Women over age 35 are more likely to conceive and produce multiple births only if the person who fathered the child is over age 50.
C) Women over age 35 are more likely to naturally conceive and produce multiple births.
D) Women over age 35 are more likely to conceive and produce multiple births only if the person who fathered the child is under age 30.

Question 18

Concerns and ethical dilemmas related to assisted human reproductive techniques,practices,and outcomes have prompted Canada to

A) ban multiple egg transfers in IVF treatments.
B) legislate the maintenance of a personal health information registry to provide children of donated sperm and ova with access to their medical histories.
C) require identification of sperm and egg donors and ban anonymity of donors.
D) establish registries for parent and sibling searches by children conceived via donor sperm/eggs.

Question 19

Which of the following is a correct statement about the events leading up to conception?

A) Conception normally takes place in the uterus.
B) After ovulation, the ovum travels down the uterus to the fallopian tube.
C) Ordinarily, a woman produces two ova per month, one from each of her ovaries.
D) After ejaculation, sperm travel the following path: the vagina, cervix, uterus, and fallopian tube.

Question 20

Which of the following is associated with the first trimester of pregnancy?

A) implantation bleeding
B) formation of a mucus "plug" to seal the entrance to the uterus
C) effacement
D) the uterus begins to shift position and put pressure on the woman's bladder

Question 21

The ________ stage of prenatal development involves refinements of the organ systems,especially the lungs and brain.

A) fetal stage
B) germinal stage
C) embryonic stage
D) teratogenic stage

Question 22

Which of the following statements about the placenta is true?

A) The placenta typically is expelled during the third stage of labour.
B) An embryo/fetus is attached to the placenta by the amniotic sac.
C) The placenta is where the mother's and baby's blood are mixed to transfer oxygen, nutrients, and waste products.
D) The placenta forms during organogenesis.

Question 23

Caitlin's doctor has told her that her baby has attained viability.What does this mean?

A) The baby doesn't have any more developing left to do.
B) The baby is at the most important stage of development.
C) The baby no longer needs nourishment from the mother.
D) The baby has the ability to live outside the womb.

Question 24

Which of the following is an accurate statement about sex differences in prenatal development?

A) Female fetuses appear more sensitive to external stimulation and advance more rapidly in skeletal development.
B) More females than males are conceived.
C) Females are typically longer and weigh more at birth than males.
D) Males are more advanced in all aspects of prenatal development, particularly development of the skeleton.

Question 25

As fetal brain development progresses,neuron cell bodies permanently relocate to designated areas of the brain through a process called

A) neuronal proliferation.
B) neuronal migration.
C) neuronal transplanting.
D) neuron resettlement.

Question 26

Which of the following is the best example of the proximodistal principle of development during the prenatal period?

A) The spinal cord develops before the arms.
B) The brain is formed before the reproductive system.
C) Differentiation of the gonads occurs before the eyes are formed.
D) The digestive organs are formed before the heart.

Question 27

________ can be best described as the glue and support system for neurons.

A) Synapses
B) Cell bodies
C) Axons
D) Glial cells

Question 28

All of the following are associated with the third trimester of pregnancy EXCEPT

A) weight gain
B) secretion of colostrum
C) increased risk of spontaneous abortion
D) toxemia

Question 29

Which of the following is the best example of the cephalocaudal principle of development during the prenatal period?

A) The brain is formed before the reproductive system.
B) The digestive organs are formed before the heart.
C) Differentiation of the gonads and the lobes of the brain occur simultaneously.
D) The spinal cord develops before the arms.

Question 30

In brain development,neuron proliferation or increases in neuron development and numbers occurs most dramatically during the

A) germinal stage.
B) embryonic stage.
C) fetal stage.
D) post-birth infant stage.

Question 31

The stages of prenatal development,in order,are

A) blastocyst, implantation, and organogenesis.
B) germinal, embryonic, and fetal.
C) zygotic, germinal, embryonic, and fetal.
D) fetal, embryonic, germinal, and zygotic.

Question 32

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about infants' prenatal behaviour?

A) Infants who were read stories during their final six weeks of prenatal development adapted their sucking patterns to hear familiar stories after they were born.
B) Changes in fetal heart rate suggest that infants can distinguish between familiar and novel stimuli by the thirty-second or thirty-third week of development.
C) The prenatal level of physical activity is an indicator of later activity level (e.g., very active fetuses tend to become very active children).
D) Girls are more physically active than boys during prenatal development.

Question 33

The ________ stage of prenatal development begins at implantation and continues until the end of week 8.

A) amnion
B) germinal
C) embryonic
D) fetal

Question 34

A condition that can cause a baby to grow too rapidly and result in premature labour or an infant that is too large for a vaginal birth is

A) gestational diabetes.
B) toxaemia.
C) ectopic pregnancy.
D) high blood pressure.

Question 35

When does a developing infant begin to respond to stimuli such as its mother's voice or light introduced into the uterus?

A) during the fetal stage
B) during the germinal stage
C) during the embryonic stage
D) as soon as the sensory systems are formed in organogenesis

Question 36

An abnormal structure,function,or body metabolism present at birth that results in physical or mental disability or death is called

A) congenital anomaly.
B) atypical anomaly.
C) autosomal disorders.
D) phenylketonuria.

Question 37

Movement to the head-down position for birth occurs during which weeks of pregnancy?

A) weeks 17-20
B) weeks 21-24
C) weeks 29-32
D) weeks 33-36

Question 38

After implantation has been completed,an inner membrane creates a sac filled with liquid where the baby will float.This inner membrane is called

A) the blastocyst
B) the amnion
C) the placenta
D) organogenesis

Question 39

As fetal brains develop,neurons acquire additional structures that enhance their critical role in overall brain functioning.Which of the following is not one of the structures or parts of a developing neuron?

A) axon
B) glial
C) dendrite
D) synapse

Question 40

Which of the following in utero behaviours signals that synapse formation is occurring in the fetal brain?

A) blinking
B) yawning
C) kicking
D) turning

Question 41

A serious sex-linked genetic disorder where the person's blood lacks the chemical components needed for blood to clot is called

A) hemophilia.
B) sickle cell anemia.
C) Tay-Sachs disease.
D) fragile X syndrome.

Question 42

Diseases/infections such as cancer and chlamydia,and drugs (e.g.,tobacco,alcohol)that can cause birth defects are called

A) chromosomal anomalies.
B) teratogens.
C) mutagens.
D) trisomies.

Question 43

When researchers have examined the relationship between maternal emotions and prenatal development,the most consistent finding has been that

A) there is no link between maternal emotions and the development of the infant.
B) infants whose mothers were anxious or depressed are more likely to be anxious or depressed as adults.
C) stressful psychological states, such as anxiety or depression, lead to spontaneous abortion or fetal death.
D) fetuses of severely distressed mothers tend to grow more slowly.

Question 44

The basic rule that governs the effects of teratogens is that

A) the more teratogens present, the more likely it is that prenatal development will be adversely affected.
B) the larger the molecule (virus, chemical, etc.), the greater the risk of a harmful effect by the teratogen.
C) the further the pregnancy has advanced, the greater the risk for defects or malformations.
D) an organ system is most vulnerable to disruption during the time when it is developing rapidly.

Question 45

People of Eastern European Jewish and Gaspé French Canadian ancestries are most at risk for having offspring with the fatal autosomal degenerative gene disorder called

A) Huntington's disease.
B) Tay-Sachs disease.
C) Cystic fibrosis.
D) Sickle-cell anemia.

Question 46

Which of the following is NOT true with regard to prenatal infection with HIV?

A) Maternal use of the drug AZT during pregnancy lowers the risk of prenatal transmission of the virus.
B) Approximately 25% of infants born to HIV-infected mothers will themselves become infected.
C) Most pregnant women who are HIV positive or who have AIDS will give birth to infants who are HIV positive.
D) The infant may contract the virus in the birth canal during delivery.

Question 47

Mrs.Robertson is receiving information and advice about prenatal care from her health care team.With regard to alcohol,what advice will they most likely give Mrs.Robertson?

A) Avoid liquors such as whiskey and bourbon, but beer and wine in moderation are acceptable.
B) Drink only in moderation.
C) Avoid alcohol entirely.
D) Reduce alcohol consumption by half.

Question 48

An autosomal disorder that typically does not show symptoms until adulthood is

A) sickle-cell disease.
B) phenylketonuria.
C) Huntington's disease.
D) Tay-Sachs disease.

Question 49

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a child born with fetal alcohol syndrome?

A) The child may have distinctive facial features characterized by a flattened nose.
B) The child may be smaller than other infants of comparable maturity and may continue to be smaller throughout life.
C) The child may have a very high physical activity level or may even be hyperactive.
D) The child may suffer from heart defects and hearing loss.

Question 50

A woman's health care provider will likely encourage her to eat foods high in folic acid,such as beans or spinach,during pregnancy.What is the purpose of this dietary recommendation?

A) to reduce the effects of stress on the fetus
B) to reduce the risk of neural tube anomalies, such as spina bifida
C) to help moderate the effects of teratogens to which the fetus might be exposed
D) to ensure sufficient weight gain for a healthy baby

Question 51

Which of the following individuals would most likely have the greatest risk for bearing a Down syndrome child?

A) Ms. Branco, age 45
B) Mrs. MacDonald, age 25
C) Ms. Shin, age 18
D) Mrs. Poirier, age 35

Question 52

A characteristic common to many individuals who have sex chromosome anomalies is

A) obesity.
B) sexual development (puberty) that occurs either very early or very late.
C) learning difficulties.
D) extremely high levels of intelligence.

Question 53

What is the most common chromosomal anomaly?

A) phenylketonuria
B) Turner's syndrome
C) fragile-X syndrome
D) trisomy 21

Question 54

If you were advising friends about the relationship between maternal age and the risks of childbearing,which of the following would NOT be accurate information?

A) Teenage pregnancy is associated with neural tube and central nervous system anomalies.
B) Infants born to women over 35 are at a higher risk of having heart malformations and chromosomal disorders.
C) Experts have reached a consensus that age is the single most important factor related to pregnancy outcome, and it is more important than prenatal care, health, or lifestyle habits.
D) Teenage mothers are less likely to receive adequate prenatal care.

Question 55

Your friend Ann who is four weeks pregnant calls you in great distress.She has never had rubella before,and this afternoon she was exposed to the disease at a child's birthday party.Should she be concerned?

A) No. The placenta is a perfect filter and will prevent the virus from reaching and affecting the embryo.
B) Yes. If she does get rubella, the disease will make the effects of morning sickness worse.
C) No. The risk to the embryo/fetus is in the germinal period prior to implantation and the development of the placenta.
D) Yes. At this stage of gestation, rubella poses serious risks of heart defects, cataracts, or deafness to the embryo.

Question 56

Why is it difficult to determine the specific impact of cocaine use by pregnant women?

A) These women frequently don't cooperate in research.
B) Typically these women are impoverished and multiple substance abusers.
C) Most of the babies die at birth.
D) Research studies don't follow these children as they grow older.

Question 57

______,a rare autosomal genetic disorder caused by an inability to metabolize an essential amino acid,can lead to developmental delay if undetected.

A) Tay-Sachs disease
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Phenylketonuria
D) Muscular dystrophy

Question 58

Which of the following is true about teratogens?

A) Maternal age, but not paternal age, is considered a teratogen.
B) Research on Ecstasy, a so-called "club drug," confirms that the drug poses no risks to the fetus.
C) Environmental agents can have direct, nonheritable effects on prenatal development by damaging or disrupting cell development.
D) Teratogens are identified as toxins from the outside rather than internal factors.

Question 59

Juliette takes anti-convulsant drugs to control her epileptic seizures.She has just found out that she is pregnant.Her doctor is most likely to recommend that she

A) stop taking anti-convulsant medications immediately.
B) have an abortion for medical reasons.
C) try to manage the effects of the medications through proper dosages.
D) be prepared to have a child with serious birth defects.

Question 60

A friend is pregnant and you observe her smoking.Which of the following is the best advice or information you could give to her?

A) Nicotine has been linked to mental retardation in infants whose mothers smoked during their entire pregnancies.
B) Infants whose mothers smoked during pregnancy have higher rates of heart defects, lung defects, and cerebral haemorrhages.
C) Nicotine is powerfully addictive, and she risks giving birth to an addicted neonate who would experience respiratory distress, asthma, or emphysema.
D) She should quit smoking because infants whose mothers smoked during pregnancy weigh an average of one-half pound less at birth.

Question 61

Five minutes after birth,Devon's APGAR score was 10.What do you know about Devon?

A) He is in no immediate danger, but observation and monitoring are warranted.
B) An Apgar score of 10 at five minutes after birth is a diagnosis of physiological problems that require treatment.
C) He is a fit and healthy baby.
D) He is in critical condition, possibly in respiratory or cardiac distress, and needs immediate resuscitation and care.

Question 62

How are infants affected by birth medications?

A) Infants are not affected by birth medications because the placenta effectively filters such medications.
B) Infants whose mothers received birth medications are usually more sluggish, spend more time sleeping, and gain a little less weight during the first weeks after birth.
C) Birth medications typically have no observable short- or long-term effects on an infant.
D) Birth medications significantly depress infant respiration and heart rate and pose considerable risk to infant mortality.

Question 63

Which of the following best represents a true statement about paternal influence on reproductive risk?

A) Changes in sperm exposed to toxins after fertilization cannot impact the prenate.
B) There is no correlation between paternal age and birth abnormalities.
C) Men who work in occupations such as janitor, firefighter, or painter are at higher risk for reproductive abnormalities due to toxin exposure.
D) Sperm adversely affected by toxins up to six months before conception can impact the prenate.

Question 64

Agents that damage cellular DNA are called

A) chromosomal anomalies.
B) teratogens.
C) mutagens.
D) trisomies.

Question 65

Which of the following diagnostic tests are able to identify chromosomal errors and many genetic disorders prior to birth?

A) amniocentesis
B) alpha-fetoprotein blood test
C) fetoscopy
D) ultrasound

Question 66

In order,the three stages of normal labour are

A) latent, moderate contractions; opening of the cervix to allow the infant's head to slip free; and active, intense contractions.
B) breech presentation; pushing; and movement into and out of the birth canal.
C) dilation and effacement of the cervix; delivery of the baby; and delivery of the placenta.
D) delivery of the baby; dilation and effacement of the cervix; and delivery of the afterbirth.

Question 67

Which of the following items is unrelated to the others?

A) oxygen deprivation
B) fetal distress
C) anoxia
D) premature birth

Question 68

At the actual time of delivery,the cervix must be dilated to approximately

A) 5 centimetres.
B) 8 centimetres.
C) 10 centimetres.
D) 12 centimetres.

Question 69

A neonate receives an APGAR score of 7.What does this mean?

A) The baby is in no danger
B) The baby needs help establishing normal breathing patterns
C) The baby is in critical condition
D) The baby is non-responsive

Question 70

Dilation and effacement refer to

A) when the cervix dilates and flattens out to approximately 10 centimetres.
B) when contractions are relatively far apart.
C) when the last two centimetres of dilation are achieved.
D) active phase contractions.

Question 71

Contractions that are closer together,more intense,and occur around 3-4 centimetres dilation are called

A) early phase contractions.
B) latent phase contractions.
C) transitional contractions.
D) active phase contractions.

Question 72

If an infant's umbilical cord is positioned in such a manner that pressure causes the cord to collapse,the infant may experience

A) anoxia.
B) a breech birth.
C) a premature delivery.
D) a lengthy delivery process.

Question 73

The Brazelton Neonatal Behavioural Assessment Scale may be used to identify ________ in neonates.

A) maladaptive reflexes
B) reflex reactivity
C) neurological problems
D) behavioural problems

Question 74

What occurs during the third stage of labour?

A) The cervix opens and thins.
B) The contractions are strong, closely spaced, and quite painful.
C) The placenta is delivered.
D) The infant's head crowns.

Question 75

Which of the following aspects of neonatal functioning is not assessed by the Apgar scale?

A) Babinski reflex
B) colour
C) heart rate
D) respiration

Question 76

Which of the following is characteristic of Caesarean delivery in Canada?

A) Critics argue that Caesarean sections are often performed unnecessarily.
B) The Canadian Caesarean delivery rate is among the highest in the world.
C) Caesarean section is the delivery method used for infants in a breech position if the infant is in distress.
D) all of the above

Question 77

If a labouring woman's blood pressure _____________,a Caesarean delivery may be indicated.

A) decreases
B) increases
C) increases or decreases
D) remains unchanged

Question 78

It is in the ________ stage of labour that the mother pushes and delivery begins.

A) third
B) active
C) second
D) first

Question 79

An analgesic is a

A) localized anesthetic.
B) painkiller.
C) general anesthetic.
D) sedative.

Question 80

What characterizes the transition period of labour?

A) pain
B) release of the mucus plug and dilation of the cervix
C) passage through the birth canal
D) lethargy