Deck 25: Minor Office Surgery
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Deck 25: Minor Office Surgery
1
Differentiate between medical and surgical asepsis used in ambulatory care settings, identifying when each is appropriate
not answered
2
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a minor office surgery?
A) Performed in an ambulatory care facility
B) Performed in a short period of time
C) Requires a general anesthetic
D) Does not pose a major risk to life
A) Performed in an ambulatory care facility
B) Performed in a short period of time
C) Requires a general anesthetic
D) Does not pose a major risk to life
Requires a general anesthetic
3
The purpose of practicing surgical asepsis during minor office surgery is to
A) Protect the patient from pathogenic microorganisms
B) Prevent the formation of a purulent discharge
C) Prevent damage to surgical instruments
D) Reduce patient discomfort
A) Protect the patient from pathogenic microorganisms
B) Prevent the formation of a purulent discharge
C) Prevent damage to surgical instruments
D) Reduce patient discomfort
Protect the patient from pathogenic microorganisms
4
Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
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5
Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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6
Psychology of Human Relations
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7
What should the medical assistant do if in doubt about the sterility of an article?
A) Use the article, making sure to use sterile technique.
B) Do not use the article; obtain another one.
C) Ask the physician if the article should be used.
D) Cleanse the article with a disinfectant before using.
A) Use the article, making sure to use sterile technique.
B) Do not use the article; obtain another one.
C) Ask the physician if the article should be used.
D) Cleanse the article with a disinfectant before using.
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8
Identify common pathology related to each body system
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9
Which of the following instruments has teeth that are used to grasp tissue?
A) Hemostatic forceps
B) Splinter forceps
C) Tissue forceps
D) Thumb forceps
A) Hemostatic forceps
B) Splinter forceps
C) Tissue forceps
D) Thumb forceps
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10
Which of the following instruments is used to hold tissue aside to improve exposure of the operative area?
A) Retractors
B) Biopsy forceps
C) Probe
D) Tenaculum
A) Retractors
B) Biopsy forceps
C) Probe
D) Tenaculum
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11
Discuss infection control procedures
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12
Anatomy and Physiology
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13
Which of the following instruments has serrated blades, ring handles, and ratchets and is used to clamp off blood vessels?
A) Allis tissue forceps
B) Hemostatic forceps
C) Sponge forceps
D) Curette
A) Allis tissue forceps
B) Hemostatic forceps
C) Sponge forceps
D) Curette
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14
Something that is sterile is considered contaminated if it
A) Comes in contact with a pathogen
B) Comes in contact with a nonpathogen
C) Becomes wet
D) Touches something clean
E) All of the above
A) Comes in contact with a pathogen
B) Comes in contact with a nonpathogen
C) Becomes wet
D) Touches something clean
E) All of the above
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15
Medical Terminology
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16
Which of the following is a violation of sterile technique?
A) Holding a sterile article above waist level
B) Facing a sterile field
C) Reaching over a sterile field
D) Placing a sterile item in the center of a sterile field
A) Holding a sterile article above waist level
B) Facing a sterile field
C) Reaching over a sterile field
D) Placing a sterile item in the center of a sterile field
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17
Medical Office Clinical Procedures
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18
Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
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19
Which of the following instruments consists of a handle and a blade and is used to make surgical incisions and divide tissue?
A) Operating scissors
B) Scalpel
C) Bandage scissors
D) Dissecting scissors
A) Operating scissors
B) Scalpel
C) Bandage scissors
D) Dissecting scissors
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20
Which of the following requires the use of surgical asepsis?
A) Application of a bandage
B) Measurement of blood pressure
C) Insertion of sutures
D) Collection of a Pap specimen
E) All of the above
A) Application of a bandage
B) Measurement of blood pressure
C) Insertion of sutures
D) Collection of a Pap specimen
E) All of the above
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21
The protective response of the body to trauma and the entrance of foreign substances is called
A) Infection
B) Inflammation
C) Healing
D) Immunity
A) Infection
B) Inflammation
C) Healing
D) Immunity
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22
The function of the healing process of a wound is to
A) Restore the structure and function of damaged tissue
B) Prevent infection of the wound
C) Prevent inflammation of the wound
D) Control bleeding
A) Restore the structure and function of damaged tissue
B) Prevent infection of the wound
C) Prevent inflammation of the wound
D) Control bleeding
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23
What name is given to the type of wound in which the tissues are torn apart, leaving ragged and irregular edges?
A) Cut
B) Puncture
C) Laceration
D) Abrasion
A) Cut
B) Puncture
C) Laceration
D) Abrasion
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24
What occurs during the maturation phase of the healing process?
A) A scab forms.
B) Scar tissue forms.
C) New skin is generated.
D) Bleeding is controlled.
A) A scab forms.
B) Scar tissue forms.
C) New skin is generated.
D) Bleeding is controlled.
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25
Which of the following is NOT a local sign of inflammation?
A) Redness
B) Fever
C) Swelling
D) Pain
A) Redness
B) Fever
C) Swelling
D) Pain
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26
The function of sutures is to
A) Prevent inflammation
B) Approximate a wound
C) Prevent infection of a wound
D) Promote the formation of scar tissue
A) Prevent inflammation
B) Approximate a wound
C) Prevent infection of a wound
D) Promote the formation of scar tissue
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27
For which of the following wounds, would the physician be most likely to order a tetanus booster?
A) Cut
B) Puncture
C) Laceration
D) Abrasion
A) Cut
B) Puncture
C) Laceration
D) Abrasion
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28
Which of the following types of exudates contains pus?
A) Serous
B) Sanguineous
C) Serosanguineous
D) Purulent
A) Serous
B) Sanguineous
C) Serosanguineous
D) Purulent
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29
Which of the following is NOT an examples of a material used for nonabsorbable sutures?
A) Silk
B) Surgical gut
C) Nylon
D) Polypropylene
A) Silk
B) Surgical gut
C) Nylon
D) Polypropylene
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30
What is the first line of defense of the body?
A) Mucous membranes
B) Skin
C) Acidic secretions of the stomach
D) White blood cells
A) Mucous membranes
B) Skin
C) Acidic secretions of the stomach
D) White blood cells
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31
Which of the following sutures has the smallest diameter?
A) Surgical silk, 2-0
B) Surgical silk, 4-0
C) Surgical silk, 1
D) Surgical silk, 4
A) Surgical silk, 2-0
B) Surgical silk, 4-0
C) Surgical silk, 1
D) Surgical silk, 4
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32
Which of the following types of exudates contains both serum and blood?
A) Serous
B) Sanguineous
C) Serosanguineous
D) Purulent
A) Serous
B) Sanguineous
C) Serosanguineous
D) Purulent
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33
What is the name given to the type of sutures that are gradually digested by the body?
A) Absorbable sutures
B) Silk sutures
C) Nonabsorbable sutures
D) Swaged sutures
A) Absorbable sutures
B) Silk sutures
C) Nonabsorbable sutures
D) Swaged sutures
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34
Which of the following represents an error in technique when pouring a sterile solution?
A) Ensuring that the solution is within its expiration date
B) Placing the solution cap on a flat surface with the open end facing down
C) Palming the label of the solution bottle
D) Rinsing the lip of the bottle
A) Ensuring that the solution is within its expiration date
B) Placing the solution cap on a flat surface with the open end facing down
C) Palming the label of the solution bottle
D) Rinsing the lip of the bottle
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35
After a sterile dressing change, the medical assistant should instruct the patient to
A) Keep the dressing dry
B) Keep the dressing clean
C) Contact the office if signs of inflammation occur
D) Return for further care as directed by the physician
E) All of the above
A) Keep the dressing dry
B) Keep the dressing clean
C) Contact the office if signs of inflammation occur
D) Return for further care as directed by the physician
E) All of the above
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36
What type of suture needle has a sharp point?
A) Noncutting
B) Curved
C) Cutting
D) Straight
A) Noncutting
B) Curved
C) Cutting
D) Straight
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37
Which of the following types of suture needles requires the use of a needle holder?
A) Straight
B) Noncutting
C) Curved
D) Swaged
A) Straight
B) Noncutting
C) Curved
D) Swaged
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38
What is the term for a break in the skin surface or mucous membrane that exposes underlying tissues?
A) Open wound
B) Contusion
C) Infection
D) Closed wound
A) Open wound
B) Contusion
C) Infection
D) Closed wound
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39
When not in use, an instrument with a ratchet should be stored
A) In an open position
B) With the tips tightly approximated
C) In a closed position
D) With a protective cover over the ratchet
A) In an open position
B) With the tips tightly approximated
C) In a closed position
D) With a protective cover over the ratchet
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40
What occurs during the inflammatory phase in the healing process?
A) New capillaries grow.
B) The tissue becomes a translucent red color.
C) Fibroblasts synthesize collagen.
D) A blood clot plugs the opening of the wound.
A) New capillaries grow.
B) The tissue becomes a translucent red color.
C) Fibroblasts synthesize collagen.
D) A blood clot plugs the opening of the wound.
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41
Shave excision is often used to remove
A) Skin tags
B) Melanoma
C) Flat moles
D) Dysplastic nevi
A) Skin tags
B) Melanoma
C) Flat moles
D) Dysplastic nevi
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42
Sutures inserted into the arms or legs are usually removed after
A) 24 hours
B) 3-5 days
C) 7-14 days
D) 2 weeks
A) 24 hours
B) 3-5 days
C) 7-14 days
D) 2 weeks
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43
What is another name for a furuncle?
A) Wart
B) Stye
C) Boil
D) Blister
A) Wart
B) Stye
C) Boil
D) Blister
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44
The dark color of a mole is caused by
A) Precancerous cells
B) Melanin
C) Dysplasia
D) Melanoma
A) Precancerous cells
B) Melanin
C) Dysplasia
D) Melanoma
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45
Which of the following is a small, painless, benign growth that projects from the skin from a small narrow stalk?
A) Dysplastic nevi
B) Raised mole
C) Flat mole
D) Skin tag
A) Dysplastic nevi
B) Raised mole
C) Flat mole
D) Skin tag
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46
What information is found on the label of a swaged suture packet?
A) Type of suture material
B) Length and gauge of the suture material
C) Type of needle point
D) Shape of suture needle
E) All of the above
A) Type of suture material
B) Length and gauge of the suture material
C) Type of needle point
D) Shape of suture needle
E) All of the above
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47
The purpose of inserting gauze packing after incising a localized infection is to
A) Facilitate drainage of the exudate
B) Prevent scar formation
C) Absorb drainage
D) Reduce pain
A) Facilitate drainage of the exudate
B) Prevent scar formation
C) Absorb drainage
D) Reduce pain
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48
Which of the following is a characteristic of melanoma?
A) Asymmetric
B) Irregular border
C) Color varies from one area to another
D) Diameter larger than a pencil eraser
E) All of the above
A) Asymmetric
B) Irregular border
C) Color varies from one area to another
D) Diameter larger than a pencil eraser
E) All of the above
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49
Which of the following is an advantage of using surgical skin staples?
A) Fastest method of skin closure for long skin incisions
B) A local anesthetic is not required for their application
C) Better approximation of the edges of a wound
D) Faster healing of the wound
A) Fastest method of skin closure for long skin incisions
B) A local anesthetic is not required for their application
C) Better approximation of the edges of a wound
D) Faster healing of the wound
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50
Laser mole surgery is used to remove
A) Raised moles
B) Small or flat moles
C) Dysplastic nevi
D) Melanoma
A) Raised moles
B) Small or flat moles
C) Dysplastic nevi
D) Melanoma
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51
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a sebaceous cyst?
A) It forms when the outlet of the sebaceous gland becomes obstructed.
B) It consists of a thin closed sac or capsule located just under the skin surface.
C) It usually occurs on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet.
D) It is usually painless and nontender.
A) It forms when the outlet of the sebaceous gland becomes obstructed.
B) It consists of a thin closed sac or capsule located just under the skin surface.
C) It usually occurs on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet.
D) It is usually painless and nontender.
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52
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of adhesive skin closures?
A) They are easy to apply.
B) A local anesthetic is not required for their application.
C) They result in less scarring than sutures.
D) They are stronger than skin sutures.
A) They are easy to apply.
B) A local anesthetic is not required for their application.
C) They result in less scarring than sutures.
D) They are stronger than skin sutures.
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53
What is the term for a mole that is present at birth?
A) Congenital nevi
B) Acquired nevi
C) Raised mole
D) Flat mole
A) Congenital nevi
B) Acquired nevi
C) Raised mole
D) Flat mole
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54
What would a physician do if a sebaceous cyst is infected?
A) Remove the cyst
B) Incise and drain the cyst
C) Cauterize the cyst
D) Perform a needle biopsy on the cyst
A) Remove the cyst
B) Incise and drain the cyst
C) Cauterize the cyst
D) Perform a needle biopsy on the cyst
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55
The purpose of adding epinephrine to a local anesthetic is to
A) Prevent an allergic reaction
B) Prolong the effect of the anesthetic
C) Increase the rate of systemic absorption of the anesthetic
D) Reduce patient discomfort during the minor surgery
E) All of the above
A) Prevent an allergic reaction
B) Prolong the effect of the anesthetic
C) Increase the rate of systemic absorption of the anesthetic
D) Reduce patient discomfort during the minor surgery
E) All of the above
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56
The purpose of a sterile fenestrated drape is to
A) Provide comfort and warmth
B) Provide a sterile area around the operative site
C) Prevent the patient from observing the operative site
D) Protect the patient's clothing from blood and other secretions
A) Provide comfort and warmth
B) Provide a sterile area around the operative site
C) Prevent the patient from observing the operative site
D) Protect the patient's clothing from blood and other secretions
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57
Which of the following is a characteristic of a local anesthetic, such as Xylocaine?
A) Causes a brief stinging sensation
B) Begins working in 5-15 minutes
C) Has a duration of action of 1-3 hours
D) Produces a loss of sensation in a localized area
E) All of the above
A) Causes a brief stinging sensation
B) Begins working in 5-15 minutes
C) Has a duration of action of 1-3 hours
D) Produces a loss of sensation in a localized area
E) All of the above
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58
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of benign moles?
A) Round or oval shape
B) Size is smaller than a pencil eraser
C) Painful and tender
D) Raised or flat
A) Round or oval shape
B) Size is smaller than a pencil eraser
C) Painful and tender
D) Raised or flat
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59
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of dysplastic nevi?
A) Larger than normal moles
B) Always develop into malignant melanoma
C) Have irregular coloration
D) Have an irregular shape
A) Larger than normal moles
B) Always develop into malignant melanoma
C) Have irregular coloration
D) Have an irregular shape
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60
What is an abscess?
A) A localized staphylococcal infection that originates within a hair follicle
B) Inflammation of the subcutaneous tissue
C) A collection of pus in a cavity surrounded by inflamed tissue
D) Inflammation of a sweat gland
A) A localized staphylococcal infection that originates within a hair follicle
B) Inflammation of the subcutaneous tissue
C) A collection of pus in a cavity surrounded by inflamed tissue
D) Inflammation of a sweat gland
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61
Which of the following bandage turns is used to bandage a part that varies in width?
A) Spiral turn
B) Figure-eight turn
C) Recurrent turn
D) Spiral reverse turn
A) Spiral turn
B) Figure-eight turn
C) Recurrent turn
D) Spiral reverse turn
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62
Cryosurgery is used most often for the treatment of
A) Polyps
B) Vaginitis
C) Chronic cervicitis
D) Cervical dysplasia
A) Polyps
B) Vaginitis
C) Chronic cervicitis
D) Cervical dysplasia
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63
What patient position is used to perform a colposcopy?
A) Lithotomy
B) Supine
C) Sims
D) Knee-chest
A) Lithotomy
B) Supine
C) Sims
D) Knee-chest
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64
The function of a bandage is to
A) Support a body part
B) Control bleeding
C) Immobilize a part of the body
D) Hold a dressing in place
E) All of the above
A) Support a body part
B) Control bleeding
C) Immobilize a part of the body
D) Hold a dressing in place
E) All of the above
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65
The purpose of swabbing the cervix with acetic acid during colposcopy is to
A) Allow visualization of abnormal areas
B) Kill microorganisms present on the cervix
C) Numb the cervix to reduce pain
D) Control bleeding
A) Allow visualization of abnormal areas
B) Kill microorganisms present on the cervix
C) Numb the cervix to reduce pain
D) Control bleeding
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66
Which of the following is NOT a postoperative instruction for cryosurgery?
A) Normal activity can be resumed the day after surgery.
B) Abstain from intercourse for 2-3 weeks after the procedure.
C) A clear, watery vaginal discharge may occur for 2-4 weeks.
D) Use tampons to absorb drainage.
A) Normal activity can be resumed the day after surgery.
B) Abstain from intercourse for 2-3 weeks after the procedure.
C) A clear, watery vaginal discharge may occur for 2-4 weeks.
D) Use tampons to absorb drainage.
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67
A biopsy is usually performed to
A) Determine if an infection is present
B) Cauterize tissue
C) Determine whether a tumor is benign or malignant
D) Remove a benign tumor
A) Determine if an infection is present
B) Cauterize tissue
C) Determine whether a tumor is benign or malignant
D) Remove a benign tumor
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68
Which of the following will NOT cause an ingrown toenail?
A) Tight shoes
B) Trauma
C) Improper nail trimming
D) Long periods of standing
A) Tight shoes
B) Trauma
C) Improper nail trimming
D) Long periods of standing
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69
The purpose of performing a cervical punch biopsy is to
A) Detect the presence of cervical cancer or dysplasia
B) Destroy inflamed tissue
C) Treat cervical cancer
D) Prevent cervical erosion
A) Detect the presence of cervical cancer or dysplasia
B) Destroy inflamed tissue
C) Treat cervical cancer
D) Prevent cervical erosion
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70
Which of the following is a postoperative instruction for toenail removal?
A) Elevate the foot for 24 hours.
B) Keep the area clean and dry.
C) Apply an antibiotic ointment daily.
D) Wear loose-fitting shoes.
E) All of the above
A) Elevate the foot for 24 hours.
B) Keep the area clean and dry.
C) Apply an antibiotic ointment daily.
D) Wear loose-fitting shoes.
E) All of the above
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71
Cryosurgery operates on the basis of
A) Freezing temperatures
B) Sound waves
C) Chemicals
D) X-rays
A) Freezing temperatures
B) Sound waves
C) Chemicals
D) X-rays
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72
Which of the following is used to immobilize a sprained ankle?
A) An elastic bandage using a figure-eight turn
B) Roller gauze using a spiral turn
C) A long leg cast
D) A tubular gauze bandage
A) An elastic bandage using a figure-eight turn
B) Roller gauze using a spiral turn
C) A long leg cast
D) A tubular gauze bandage
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73
Colposcopy is frequently performed
A) After abnormal Pap test results
B) To evaluate vaginal lesions
C) To evaluate cervical lesions
D) All of the above
A) After abnormal Pap test results
B) To evaluate vaginal lesions
C) To evaluate cervical lesions
D) All of the above
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74
Which of the following bandage turns is used to anchor a bandage?
A) Recurrent turn
B) Spiral reverse turn
C) Spiral turn
D) Circular turn
A) Recurrent turn
B) Spiral reverse turn
C) Spiral turn
D) Circular turn
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75
Cryosurgery can be used to
A) Remove freckles
B) Remove warts and skin tags
C) Control bleeding
D) Treat dermatitis
A) Remove freckles
B) Remove warts and skin tags
C) Control bleeding
D) Treat dermatitis
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76
Which of the following instructions should be relayed to the patient after a cervical punch biopsy?
A) Rest in bed for 24 hours.
B) Do not have intercourse for 1 week.
C) Bleeding will occur for 3 weeks after the procedure.
D) Change tampons every 4 hours.
E) All of the above.
A) Rest in bed for 24 hours.
B) Do not have intercourse for 1 week.
C) Bleeding will occur for 3 weeks after the procedure.
D) Change tampons every 4 hours.
E) All of the above.
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77
Which of the following represents an error in bandaging technique?
A) Applying a bandage from the distal to the proximal part of the body
B) Checking to ensure that the bandage is not applied too tightly
C) Applying the bandage over an open wound
D) Padding joints and prominent parts of bones
A) Applying a bandage from the distal to the proximal part of the body
B) Checking to ensure that the bandage is not applied too tightly
C) Applying the bandage over an open wound
D) Padding joints and prominent parts of bones
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