Deck 23: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care

Question 1

Describe implications for treatment related to pathology

Answer 1

not answered

Question 2

Gynecology is the branch of medicine that deals with

A) Prenatal care
B) Diseases of the reproductive organs of women
C) Diseases of geriatric patients
D) Care of the newborn

Answer 2

Diseases of the reproductive organs of women

Question 3

Analyze charts, graphs, and/or tables in the interpretation of health care results.

Answer 3

not answered

Question 4

Identify body systems

Question 5

The absence or cessation of the menstrual period is known as

A) Puberty
B) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
C) Amenorrhea
D) Pregnancy

Question 6

Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained

Question 7

Describe structural organization of the human body

Question 8

Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems

Question 9

Excessive bleeding during the menstrual period is known as

A) Metrorrhagia
B) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
C) Hemorrhaging
D) Dyspareunia

Question 10

Organize technical information and summaries

Question 11

Anatomy and Physiology

Question 12

Medical Office Clinical Procedures

Question 13

Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts

Question 14

Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems

Question 15

Medical Terminology

Question 16

Pain associated with the menstrual period is known as

A) Dysmenorrhea
B) Dysplasia
C) Dysuria
D) Dyspareunia

Question 17

Describe the relationship between anatomy and physiology of all body systems and medications used for treatment in each

Question 18

A complete gynecologic examination consists of a

A) Breast and pelvic examination
B) Breast examination
C) Pap test
D) Bimanual pelvic examination

Question 19

Identify common pathology related to each body system

Question 20

Compare body structure and function of the human body across the life span

Question 21

Which of the following positions is used to perform a pelvic examination?

A) Supine
B) Dorsal recumbent
C) Lithotomy
D) Sims
E) Knee-chest

Question 22

When collecting a Pap smear, the ectocervical specimen is obtained using

A) The S-shaped end of the spatula
B) The rounded end of the spatula
C) A moistened cotton-tipped applicator
D) A cytology brush

Question 23

Which of the following is included in a pelvic examination?

A) Inspection of the external genitalia, vagina, and cervix
B) Collection of a specimen for a Pap test
C) Bimanual pelvic examination
D) Rectal-vaginal examination
E) All of the above

Question 24

Which of the following patients is most likely to develop candidiasis?

A) A patient with poor hygiene
B) A patient with irregular menstrual periods
C) A patient on prolonged antibiotic therapy
D) A patient with multiple sexual partners

Question 25

The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends that a woman perform a breast self-examination

A) Once each week
B) Once each month
C) Every 2 months
D) Twice each year

Question 26

The function of a vaginal speculum is to

A) Magnify the cervix
B) Hold the walls of the vagina apart
C) Aspirate secretions from the uterus
D) Lubricate the vaginal wall

Question 27

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of trichomoniasis?

A) Profuse, frothy vaginal discharge
B) Red spots on the cervix
C) Itching of the vulva and vagina
D) Abdominal pain

Question 28

The purpose of a bimanual pelvic examination is to

A) Detect the presence of a vaginal infection
B) Collect a Pap smear
C) Determine the size, shape, and position of the uterus and ovaries
D) Detect the presence of hemorrhoids and fissures
E) All of the above

Question 29

The patient should be instructed not to douche before having a Pap smear taken, because douching

A) Changes the pH of the vagina
B) Results in a false-positive test result
C) Changes the appearance of the epithelial cells
D) Reduces the number of cells available for analysis

Question 30

The causative agent of trichomoniasis is a

A) Yeast
B) Motile protozoan
C) Bacterium
D) Virus

Question 31

The Bethesda System for reporting the results of the Pap test includes:

A) Whether or not the patient has HIV
B) A brief description of abnormal findings
C) Categorization of the results in classes I through V
D) A detailed description of any abnormal findings

Question 32

A Pap smear should not be performed during a woman's menstrual period, because blood cells

A) Change the appearance of the epithelial cells
B) Prevent the physician from obtaining a scraping of the epithelial cells
C) Obscure the specimen and interfere with an accurate reading
D) Cause a false-positive Pap test result

Question 33

In what position is the patient placed for a breast examination?

A) Prone
B) Supine
C) Lithotomy
D) Dorsal recumbent

Question 34

If a Pap test is being performed using the liquid-based method, the vaginal speculum should be

A) Lightly sprayed with a fixative
B) Thinly lubricated with a water-based lubricant
C) Moistened with warm water
D) Lubricated with an oil-based lubricant

Question 35

What preparation is required to examine Trichomonas vaginalis under the microscope?

A) The vaginal discharge is placed on a slide with a drop of isotonic saline.
B) A culture medium is inoculated with the vaginal discharge.
C) The swab containing the discharge is placed in a transport medium.
D) The vaginal discharge is placed on a slide with a drop of KOH.

Question 36

In preparation for a gynecologic examination, the patient should be instructed to

A) Empty her bladder, if needed
B) Undress completely
C) Wear the examining gown with the opening in front
D) Breathe deeply, slowly, and evenly during the examination
E) All of the above

Question 37

Which of the following is an advantage of the liquid-based Pap method?

A) Almost all of the Pap specimen is preserved
B) Debris is removed from the specimen
C) The cells are dispersed in a thin even layer on the slide
D) All of the above

Question 38

What is the purpose of the Pap test?

A) Early detection of cervical cancer
B) Diagnosis of gonorrhea
C) Evaluation of the cause of infertility
D) Evaluation of postmenopausal bleeding
E) All of the above

Question 39

The purpose of the maturation index is to

A) Provide the physician with an endocrine evaluation
B) Diagnose pregnancy
C) Determine the presence of a vaginal infection
D) Detect a precancerous condition of the cervix
E) All of the above

Question 40

Why is it important that the patient be relaxed during the pelvic examination?

A) For easier insertion of the vaginal speculum
B) To make the examination easier for the patient
C) To make it easier for the physician to perform the bimanual pelvic examination
D) To reduce patient discomfort
E) All of the above

Question 41

Symptoms of chlamydial infection in a female (if they occur) include

A) Dysuria
B) Itching
C) Irritation of the genital area
D) Yellowish, odorless vaginal discharge
E) All of the above

Question 42

The purpose of the past medical history is to obtain information from the patient on

A) Conditions that may affect the health of the mother and fetus
B) Drug allergies
C) Her menstrual cycle
D) Previous pregnancies

Question 43

What is the EDD of a patient whose LMP was September 5, 2013?

A) 12/12/14
B) 6/2/14
C) 6/12/14
D) 12/2/14

Question 44

Which of the following is performed during the initial prenatal examination?

A) Measurement of vital signs
B) Physical examination
C) Breast examination
D) Pelvic examination
E) All of the above

Question 45

Which of the following is NOT a warning sign in pregnancy?

A) Heartburn
B) Vaginal bleeding
C) Blurred vision
D) Abdominal pain

Question 46

In the absence of complications, the first prenatal visit should be scheduled after the patient

A) Exhibits the signs and symptoms of pregnancy
B) Misses her first menstrual period
C) Misses her second menstrual period
D) Obtains positive results on a pregnancy test

Question 47

Which of the following can be used to diagnose chlamydia and gonorrhea?

A) Culture test
B) Antigen-antibody test
C) DNA-probe test
D) Pregnancy test

Question 48

If Candida albicans is present, what would be observed under the microscope?

A) Yeast buds, spores, and hyphae
B) Motile protozoa
C) Gram-negative diplococci
D) Nits and eggs

Question 49

Chlamydial infection often occurs in association with

A) Genital warts
B) Gonorrhea
C) Syphilis
D) Hepatitis B

Question 50

What is the LMP?

A) The date of the last day of the last menstrual period
B) The duration of the last menstrual period
C) The date of the first day of the last menstrual period
D) The length of the interval between menstrual periods

Question 51

The purpose of the present pregnancy history is to

A) Establish a baseline for the present health status of the prenatal patient
B) Record medications being taken by the patient
C) Determine if the patient has experienced any of the early signs of pregnancy
D) Calculate the EDD
E) All of the above

Question 52

Which of the following is a symptom of candidiasis?

A) Thick, odorless, cottage cheese-like discharge
B) Vaginal warts
C) Lower abdominal pain
D) Purulent vaginal discharge
E) All of the above

Question 53

Which of the following is NOT included in the first prenatal visit?

A) Fundal height measurement
B) Pelvic examination
C) Completion of a prenatal record form
D) Determination of fetal presentation and position

Question 54

The purpose of the interval prenatal history is to

A) Record weight, blood pressure, and urine testing results
B) Determine the presence of any concerns or problems
C) Determine the occurrence of any additional signs of pregnancy
D) Record the fetal heart tones and fundal height
E) All of the above

Question 55

Which of the following urine tests is performed at each return prenatal visit?

A) Glucose and protein
B) Glucose and ketone bodies
C) Specific gravity and pH
D) Pregnancy test

Question 56

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of gonorrhea in a male?

A) Whitish discharge that may progress to a thick and creamy discharge
B) Enlargement of the prostate gland
C) Dysuria
D) Progression to epididymitis, if not treated

Question 57

If left untreated, a chlamydial infection in a woman may result in

A) Pelvic inflammatory disease
B) Cervical cancer
C) Dysmenorrhea
D) Cervical erosion

Question 58

Gonorrhea is transmitted through

A) Droplet infection
B) Sexual intercourse
C) Contaminated water
D) Insects

Question 59

What is the purpose of prenatal care?

A) To prevent disease
B) To promote health
C) To provide prenatal education
D) Early detection of problems
E) All of the above

Question 60

The purpose of the prenatal record is to

A) Provide information on the past health status of the patient
B) Identify high-risk patients
C) Provide information on the present health status of the patient
D) Serve as a flow sheet for prenatal visits
E) All of the above

Question 61

What is the term for a woman who has been pregnant more than once?

A) Primigravida
B) Gestation
C) Multigravida
D) Multipara

Question 62

Match the following test names with the correct test purpose.
Hemoglobin and hematocrit

A)To detect the presence of anemia
B)To detect the presence of an organism that if left untreated could infect the infant's eyes at birth
C)To anticipate any ABO or Rh incompatibilities
D)Used as a basic screening test to assess the patient's state of health; includes white blood cell count, red blood cell count, hematocrit, hemoglobin blood type, and differential
E)To detect the presence of syphilis
F)To assess the antibody level present against rubella
G)To screen individuals for gestational diabetes mellitus
H)To detect the presence of the amount of circulating Rh antibodies

Question 63

If not treated, infection of the infant's eyes with gonorrhea during delivery could result in

A) Cataracts
B) Detached retina
C) Blindness
D) Glaucoma

Question 64

The purpose of measuring fundal height is to

A) Diagnose pregnancy
B) Determine the presence of fetal distress
C) Assess whether fetal growth is progressing normally
D) Determine the degree of cervical dilation and effacement

Question 65

What is the normal range for the fetal pulse rate?

A) 80-120 beats/min
B) 100-140 beats/min
C) 120-160 beats/min
D) 140-180 beats/min

Question 66

Match the following test names with the correct test purpose.
CBC

A)To detect the presence of anemia
B)To detect the presence of an organism that if left untreated could infect the infant's eyes at birth
C)To anticipate any ABO or Rh incompatibilities
D)Used as a basic screening test to assess the patient's state of health; includes white blood cell count, red blood cell count, hematocrit, hemoglobin blood type, and differential
E)To detect the presence of syphilis
F)To assess the antibody level present against rubella
G)To screen individuals for gestational diabetes mellitus
H)To detect the presence of the amount of circulating Rh antibodies

Question 67

The triple screen test is used to detect which of the following fetal abnormalities?

A) Kidney problems
B) Neural tube defects
C) Cleft palate
D) Cerebral palsy
E) All of the above

Question 68

Which of the following conditions may warrant fetal heart rate monitoring?

A) Decreased fetal activity
B) Fetal growth that is not progressing well
C) Overdue baby
D) Gestational diabetes mellitus
E) All of the above

Question 69

Amniocentesis can be used to

A) Aid in the diagnosis of congenital abnormalities
B) Assess fetal lung maturity
C) Determine the gender of the fetus
D) Detect fetal distress
E) All of the above

Question 70

What is the most common medical disorder of pregnancy?

A) Hypertension
B) Thrombophlebitis
C) Preeclampsia
D) Gestational diabetes

Question 71

What is the term for the child in utero, from the third month after conception to birth?

A) Embryo
B) Infant
C) Newborn
D) Fetus

Question 72

What is the usual schedule of prenatal visits during the first 28 weeks of gestation?

A) Twice each week
B) Every week
C) Every 2 weeks
D) Every 4 weeks

Question 73

An infant infected with group B Streptococcus during delivery may develop

A) Septicemia
B) Meningitis
C) Pneumonia
D) All of the above

Question 74

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Doppler fetal pulse detector?

A) The FHT can first be detected between 2 and 4 weeks of gestation.
B) The fetal heart rate is digitally displayed on a screen.
C) Sound waves are used to detect the fetal pulse.
D) A coupling gel must be used to increase conductivity.

Question 75

When is a pregnant woman tested for group B Streptococcus?

A) 18-20 weeks
B) 24-28 weeks
C) 35-37 weeks
D) Just after delivery

Question 76

Obstetric ultrasound is used to

A) Detect ectopic pregnancy
B) Determine gestational age
C) Detect the presence of multiple fetuses
D) Determine the position of the placenta
E) All of the above

Question 77

The dome-shaped upper portion of the uterus between the fallopian tubes is known as the:

A) Cervix
B) Fundus
C) Perineum
D) Placenta

Question 78

Match the following test names with the correct test purpose.
Glucose challenge test

A)To detect the presence of anemia
B)To detect the presence of an organism that if left untreated could infect the infant's eyes at birth
C)To anticipate any ABO or Rh incompatibilities
D)Used as a basic screening test to assess the patient's state of health; includes white blood cell count, red blood cell count, hematocrit, hemoglobin blood type, and differential
E)To detect the presence of syphilis
F)To assess the antibody level present against rubella
G)To screen individuals for gestational diabetes mellitus
H)To detect the presence of the amount of circulating Rh antibodies

Question 79

A vaginal examination is usually performed as the patient nears term. Which of the following is NOT a reason for performing this examination?

A) To confirm the presenting part
B) To determine the degree of cervical dilation
C) To determine the degree of cervical effacement
D) To determine when the patient will go into labor

Question 80

Match the following test names with the correct test purpose.
Gonorrhea test

A)To detect the presence of anemia
B)To detect the presence of an organism that if left untreated could infect the infant's eyes at birth
C)To anticipate any ABO or Rh incompatibilities
D)Used as a basic screening test to assess the patient's state of health; includes white blood cell count, red blood cell count, hematocrit, hemoglobin blood type, and differential
E)To detect the presence of syphilis
F)To assess the antibody level present against rubella
G)To screen individuals for gestational diabetes mellitus
H)To detect the presence of the amount of circulating Rh antibodies