Deck 8: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care

Question 1

The function of a vaginal speculum is to

A) Magnify the cervix
B) Hold the walls of the vagina apart
C) Aspirate secretions from the uterus
D) Lubricate the vaginal wall

Answer 1

Hold the walls of the vagina apart

Question 2

The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends that a woman perform a breast self-examination

A) Once each week
B) Once each month
C) Every 2 months
D) Twice each year

Answer 2

Once each month

Question 3

Which of the following positions is used to perform a pelvic examination?

A) Supine
B) Dorsal recumbent
C) Lithotomy
D) Sims
E) Knee-chest

Answer 3

Lithotomy

Question 4

The Bethesda System for reporting the results of the Pap test includes all of the following except

A) Whether or not the specimen is satisfactory for evaluation
B) A general statement as to whether the specimen is normal or abnormal
C) Categorization of the results in classes I through V
D) A detailed description of any abnormal findings

Question 5

The purpose of the maturation index is to

A) Provide the physician with an endocrine evaluation
B) Diagnose pregnancy
C) Determine the presence of a vaginal infection
D) Detect a precancerous condition of the cervix
E) All of the above

Question 6

Excessive bleeding during the menstrual period is known as

A) Metrorrhagia
B) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
C) Hemorrhaging
D) Dyspareunia

Question 7

If a Pap test is being performed using the liquid-based method, the vaginal speculum should be

A) Lightly sprayed with a fixative
B) Thinly lubricated with a water-based lubricant
C) Moistened with warm water
D) Lubricated with an oil-based lubricant

Question 8

The patient should be instructed not to douche before having a Pap smear taken because douching

A) Changes the pH of the vagina
B) Results in a false-positive test result
C) Changes the appearance of the epithelial cells
D) Reduces the number of cells available for analysis

Question 9

Which of the following is an advantage of the liquid-based Pap method?

A) Almost all of the Pap specimen is preserved
B) Debris is removed from the specimen
C) The cells are dispersed in a thin even layer on the slide
D) All of the above

Question 10

Why is it important that the patient be relaxed during the pelvic examination?

A) For easier insertion of the vaginal speculum
B) To make the examination easier for the patient
C) To make it easier for the physician to perform the bimanual pelvic examination
D) To reduce patient discomfort
E) All of the above

Question 11

What is the purpose of the Pap test?

A) Early detection of cervical cancer
B) Diagnosis of gonorrhea
C) Evaluation of the cause of infertility
D) Evaluation of postmenopausal bleeding
E) All of the above

Question 12

Which of the following is included in a pelvic examination?

A) Inspection of the external genitalia, vagina, and cervix
B) Collection of a specimen for a Pap test
C) Bimanual pelvic examination
D) Rectal-vaginal examination
E) All of the above

Question 13

The causative agent of trichomoniasis is a

A) Yeast
B) Motile protozoan
C) Bacterium
D) Virus

Question 14

When collecting a Pap smear, the ectocervical specimen is obtained using

A) The S-shaped end of the spatula
B) The rounded end of the spatula
C) A moistened cotton-tipped applicator
D) A cytology brush

Question 15

A Pap smear should not be performed during a woman's menstrual period because blood cells

A) Change the appearance of the epithelial cells
B) Prevent the physician from obtaining a scraping of the epithelial cells
C) Obscure the specimen and interfere with an accurate reading
D) Cause a false-positive Pap test result

Question 16

Gynecology is the branch of medicine that deals with

A) Prenatal care
B) Diseases of the reproductive organs of women
C) Diseases of geriatric patients
D) Care of the newborn

Question 17

All of the following are symptoms of trichomoniasis except

A) Profuse, frothy vaginal discharge
B) Red spots on the cervix
C) Itching of the vulva and vagina
D) Abdominal pain

Question 18

The purpose of a bimanual pelvic examination is to

A) Detect the presence of a vaginal infection
B) Collect a Pap smear
C) Determine the size, shape, and position of the uterus and ovaries
D) Detect the presence of hemorrhoids and fissures
E) All of the above

Question 19

A complete gynecologic examination consists of a

A) Breast and pelvic examination
B) Breast examination
C) Pap test
D) Bimanual pelvic examination

Question 20

In what position is the patient placed for a breast examination?

A) Prone
B) Supine
C) Lithotomy
D) Dorsal recumbent

Question 21

If left untreated, a chlamydial infection in a woman may result in

A) Pelvic inflammatory disease
B) Cervical cancer
C) Dysmenorrhea
D) Cervical erosion

Question 22

Which of the following is not included in the first prenatal visit?

A) Fundal height measurement
B) Pelvic examination
C) Completion of a prenatal record form
D) Determination of fetal presentation and position

Question 23

The purpose of the prenatal record is to

A) Provide information on the past health status of the patient
B) Identify high-risk patients
C) Provide information on the present health status of the patient
D) Serve as a flow sheet for prenatal visits
E) All of the above

Question 24

The drug commonly employed to treat trichomoniasis is

A) Nystatin (Mycostatin)
B) Tetracycline (Sumycin)
C) Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
D) Metronidazole (Flagyl)

Question 25

The purpose of the past medical history is to obtain information from the patient on

A) Conditions that may affect the health of the mother and fetus
B) Drug allergies
C) Her menstrual cycle
D) Previous pregnancies

Question 26

Symptoms of chlamydial infection in a female (if they occur) include

A) Dysuria
B) Itching
C) Irritation of the genital area
D) Yellowish, odorless vaginal discharge
E) All of the above

Question 27

Which of the following can be used to diagnose chlamydia and gonorrhea?

A) Culture test
B) Antigen-antibody test
C) DNA-probe test
D) Pregnancy test

Question 28

If Candida albicans is present, what would be observed under the microscope?

A) Yeast buds, spores, and hyphae
B) Motile protozoa
C) Gram-negative diplococci
D) Nits and eggs

Question 29

What is the EDD of a patient whose LMP was September 5, 2011?

A) 12/12/12
B) 6/2/12
C) 6/12/12
D) 12/2/12

Question 30

What preparation is required to examine Trichomonas vaginalis under the microscope?

A) The vaginal discharge is placed on a slide with a drop of isotonic saline.
B) A culture medium is inoculated with the vaginal discharge.
C) The swab containing the discharge is placed in a transport medium.
D) The vaginal discharge is placed on a slide with a drop of KOH.

Question 31

Characteristics of gonorrhea in a male include all of the following except

A) Whitish discharge that may progress to a thick and creamy discharge
B) Enlargement of the prostate gland
C) Dysuria
D) Can lead to epididymitis, if not treated

Question 32

In the absence of complications, the first prenatal visit should be scheduled after the patient

A) Exhibits the signs and symptoms of pregnancy
B) Misses her first menstrual period
C) Misses her second menstrual period
D) Obtains positive results on a pregnancy test

Question 33

Gonorrhea is transmitted through

A) Droplet infection
B) Sexual intercourse
C) Contaminated water
D) Insects

Question 34

What is the LMP?

A) The date of the last day of the last menstrual period
B) The duration of the last menstrual period
C) The date of the first day of the last menstrual period
D) The length of the interval between menstrual periods

Question 35

Mrs. Long is pregnant for the fourth time. The first pregnancy was carried to term but ended in the birth of a stillborn. Mrs. Long lost the second pregnancy at 3 months' gestation. The third pregnancy resulted in the birth of twin girls. How would you record this information in the patient's chart?

A) G 4, T 3, P 0, A 1, L 2
B) G 4, T 2, P 0, A 1, L 2
C) G 4, T 1, P 0, A 1, L 1
D) G 3, T 3, P 0, A 1, L 2

Question 36

Which of the following is a symptom of candidiasis?

A) Thick, odorless, cottage cheese-like discharge
B) Vaginal warts
C) Lower abdominal pain
D) Purulent vaginal discharge
E) All of the above

Question 37

What is the purpose of prenatal care?

A) To prevent disease
B) To promote health
C) To provide prenatal education
D) Early detection of problems
E) All of the above

Question 38

Chlamydial infection often occurs in association with

A) Genital warts
B) Gonorrhea
C) Syphilis
D) Hepatitis B

Question 39

The purpose of the present pregnancy history is to

A) Establish a baseline for the present health status of the prenatal patient
B) Record medications being taken by the patient
C) Determine if the patient has experienced any of the early signs of pregnancy
D) Calculate the EDD
E) All of the above

Question 40

Which of the following patients is most likely to develop candidiasis?

A) A patient with poor hygiene
B) A patient with irregular menstrual periods
C) A patient on prolonged antibiotic therapy
D) A patient with multiple sexual partners

Question 41

Which of the following does not need to be reported to the physician?

A) The lochia discharge is absent within the first 2 weeks after delivery.
B) The lochia discharge increases rather than decreases.
C) The lochia changes to yellowish white after having been red.
D) The lochia has a foul odor.

Question 42

Obstetric ultrasound is used to

A) Detect ectopic pregnancy
B) Determine gestational age
C) Detect the presence of multiple fetuses
D) Determine the position of the placenta
E) All of the above

Question 43

What is the usual schedule of prenatal visits during the first 28 weeks of gestation?

A) Twice each week
B) Every week
C) Every 2 weeks
D) Every 4 weeks

Question 44

What term describes the period of time in which the body systems are returning to their prepregnant state?

A) Postpartum
B) Puerperium
C) Perineum
D) Postperium

Question 45

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Doppler fetal pulse detector?

A) The FHT can first be detected between 2 and 4 weeks of gestation.
B) The fetal heart rate is digitally displayed on a screen.
C) Sound waves are used to detect the fetal pulse.
D) A coupling gel must be used to increase conductivity.

Question 46

When is a pregnant woman tested for group B Streptococcus?

A) 18 to 20 weeks
B) 24 to 28 weeks
C) 35 to 37 weeks
D) Just after delivery

Question 47

Which of the following is performed during the initial prenatal examination?

A) Measurement of vital signs
B) Physical examination
C) Breast examination
D) Pelvic examination
E) All of the above

Question 48

What is the normal range for the fetal pulse rate?

A) 80 to 120 beats/min
B) 100 to 140 beats/min
C) 120 to 160 beats/min
D) 140 to 180 beats/min

Question 49

Which of the following urine tests is performed at each return prenatal visit?

A) Glucose and protein
B) Glucose and ketone bodies
C) Specific gravity and pH
D) Pregnancy test

Question 50

An infant infected with group B Streptococcus during delivery may develop

A) Septicemia
B) Meningitis
C) Pneumonia
D) All of the above

Question 51

The purpose of the interval prenatal history is to

A) Record weight, blood pressure, and urine testing results
B) Determine the presence of any concerns or problems
C) Determine the occurrence of any additional signs of pregnancy
D) Record the fetal heart tones and fundal height
E) All of the above

Question 52

Which of the following procedures monitors changes in the fetal heart rate in response to spontaneous movements of the fetus?

A) Nonstress fetal heart rate monitoring
B) Pelvimetry
C) Uterine contraction monitoring
D) Contraction stress fetal heart rate monitoring

Question 53

Amniocentesis can be used to

A) Aid in the diagnosis of congenital abnormalities
B) Assess fetal lung maturity
C) Determine the gender of the fetus
D) Detect fetal distress
E) All of the above

Question 54

If not treated, infection of the infant's eyes with gonorrhea during delivery could result in

A) Cataracts
B) Detached retina
C) Blindness
D) Glaucoma

Question 55

The purpose of measuring fundal height is to

A) Diagnose pregnancy
B) Determine the presence of fetal distress
C) Assess whether fetal growth is progressing normally
D) Determine the degree of cervical dilation and effacement

Question 56

What must the patient do to prepare for transabdominal obstetric ultrasound?

A) Fast for 12 hours before the scan
B) Eat a light meal 2 hours before the scan
C) Consume 32 oz of fluid 1 hour before the scan
D) Avoid sexual intercourse for 2 days before the scan

Question 57

All of the following are warning signs in pregnancy except

A) Heartburn
B) Vaginal bleeding
C) Blurred vision
D) Abdominal pain

Question 58

What is the most common medical disorder of pregnancy?

A) Hypertension
B) Thrombophlebitis
C) Uterine bleeding
D) Gestational diabetes

Question 59

A vaginal examination is usually performed as the patient nears term. All of the following are reasons for performing this examination except

A) To confirm the presenting part
B) To determine the degree of cervical dilation
C) To determine the degree of cervical effacement
D) To determine when the patient will go into labor

Question 60

The triple screen test is used to detect which of the following fetal abnormalities?

A) Kidney problems
B) Neural tube defects
C) Cleft palate
D) Cerebral palsy
E) All of the above

Question 61

Match each definition with its medical term.
The absence or cessation of the menstrual period

A)Amenorrhea
B)Cervix
C)Colposcopy
D)Dysmenorrhea
E)Dyspareunia
F)Dysplasia
G)Effacement
H)Embryo
I)Fetus
J)Fundus
K)Gestation
L)Gravidity
M)Infant
N)Metrorrhagia
O)Multigravida
P)Parity
Q)Perimenopause
R)Preeclampsia
S)Primigravida
T)Trimester+

Question 62

Match the following test names with the correct test purpose.
Gonorrhea test

A)To detect the presence of anemia
B)To detect the presence of an organism that if left untreated could infect the infant's eyes at birth
C)To anticipate any ABO or Rh incompatibilities
D)Used as a basic screening test to assess the patient's state of health; includes white blood cell count, red blood cell count, hematocrit, hemoglobin blood type, and differential
E)To detect the presence of syphilis
F)To assess the antibody level present against rubella
G)To screen individuals for gestational diabetes mellitus
H)To detect the presence of the amount of circulating Rh antibodies

Question 63

Match each definition with its medical term.
The condition of having borne offspring regardless of the outcome.

A)Amenorrhea
B)Cervix
C)Colposcopy
D)Dysmenorrhea
E)Dyspareunia
F)Dysplasia
G)Effacement
H)Embryo
I)Fetus
J)Fundus
K)Gestation
L)Gravidity
M)Infant
N)Metrorrhagia
O)Multigravida
P)Parity
Q)Perimenopause
R)Preeclampsia
S)Primigravida
T)Trimester+

Question 64

Match the following test names with the correct test purpose.
CBC

A)To detect the presence of anemia
B)To detect the presence of an organism that if left untreated could infect the infant's eyes at birth
C)To anticipate any ABO or Rh incompatibilities
D)Used as a basic screening test to assess the patient's state of health; includes white blood cell count, red blood cell count, hematocrit, hemoglobin blood type, and differential
E)To detect the presence of syphilis
F)To assess the antibody level present against rubella
G)To screen individuals for gestational diabetes mellitus
H)To detect the presence of the amount of circulating Rh antibodies

Question 65

Match each definition with its medical term.
Pain in the vagina or pelvis experienced by a woman during sexual intercourse.

A)Amenorrhea
B)Cervix
C)Colposcopy
D)Dysmenorrhea
E)Dyspareunia
F)Dysplasia
G)Effacement
H)Embryo
I)Fetus
J)Fundus
K)Gestation
L)Gravidity
M)Infant
N)Metrorrhagia
O)Multigravida
P)Parity
Q)Perimenopause
R)Preeclampsia
S)Primigravida
T)Trimester+

Question 66

Match each definition with its medical term.
Three months, or one third, of the gestational period of pregnancy.

A)Amenorrhea
B)Cervix
C)Colposcopy
D)Dysmenorrhea
E)Dyspareunia
F)Dysplasia
G)Effacement
H)Embryo
I)Fetus
J)Fundus
K)Gestation
L)Gravidity
M)Infant
N)Metrorrhagia
O)Multigravida
P)Parity
Q)Perimenopause
R)Preeclampsia
S)Primigravida
T)Trimester+

Question 67

Match the following test names with the correct test purpose.
Hemoglobin and hematocrit

A)To detect the presence of anemia
B)To detect the presence of an organism that if left untreated could infect the infant's eyes at birth
C)To anticipate any ABO or Rh incompatibilities
D)Used as a basic screening test to assess the patient's state of health; includes white blood cell count, red blood cell count, hematocrit, hemoglobin blood type, and differential
E)To detect the presence of syphilis
F)To assess the antibody level present against rubella
G)To screen individuals for gestational diabetes mellitus
H)To detect the presence of the amount of circulating Rh antibodies

Question 68

Match the following test names with the correct test purpose.
Rubella antibody titer

A)To detect the presence of anemia
B)To detect the presence of an organism that if left untreated could infect the infant's eyes at birth
C)To anticipate any ABO or Rh incompatibilities
D)Used as a basic screening test to assess the patient's state of health; includes white blood cell count, red blood cell count, hematocrit, hemoglobin blood type, and differential
E)To detect the presence of syphilis
F)To assess the antibody level present against rubella
G)To screen individuals for gestational diabetes mellitus
H)To detect the presence of the amount of circulating Rh antibodies

Question 69

Match each definition with its medical term.
The lower narrow end of the uterus that opens into the vagina.

A)Amenorrhea
B)Cervix
C)Colposcopy
D)Dysmenorrhea
E)Dyspareunia
F)Dysplasia
G)Effacement
H)Embryo
I)Fetus
J)Fundus
K)Gestation
L)Gravidity
M)Infant
N)Metrorrhagia
O)Multigravida
P)Parity
Q)Perimenopause
R)Preeclampsia
S)Primigravida
T)Trimester+

Question 70

Match each definition with its medical term.
Bleeding between menstrual periods.

A)Amenorrhea
B)Cervix
C)Colposcopy
D)Dysmenorrhea
E)Dyspareunia
F)Dysplasia
G)Effacement
H)Embryo
I)Fetus
J)Fundus
K)Gestation
L)Gravidity
M)Infant
N)Metrorrhagia
O)Multigravida
P)Parity
Q)Perimenopause
R)Preeclampsia
S)Primigravida
T)Trimester+

Question 71

Match the following test names with the correct test purpose.
Glucose challenge test

A)To detect the presence of anemia
B)To detect the presence of an organism that if left untreated could infect the infant's eyes at birth
C)To anticipate any ABO or Rh incompatibilities
D)Used as a basic screening test to assess the patient's state of health; includes white blood cell count, red blood cell count, hematocrit, hemoglobin blood type, and differential
E)To detect the presence of syphilis
F)To assess the antibody level present against rubella
G)To screen individuals for gestational diabetes mellitus
H)To detect the presence of the amount of circulating Rh antibodies

Question 72

Match the following test names with the correct test purpose.
VDRL

A)To detect the presence of anemia
B)To detect the presence of an organism that if left untreated could infect the infant's eyes at birth
C)To anticipate any ABO or Rh incompatibilities
D)Used as a basic screening test to assess the patient's state of health; includes white blood cell count, red blood cell count, hematocrit, hemoglobin blood type, and differential
E)To detect the presence of syphilis
F)To assess the antibody level present against rubella
G)To screen individuals for gestational diabetes mellitus
H)To detect the presence of the amount of circulating Rh antibodies

Question 73

Match each definition with its medical term.
The growth of abnormal cells.

A)Amenorrhea
B)Cervix
C)Colposcopy
D)Dysmenorrhea
E)Dyspareunia
F)Dysplasia
G)Effacement
H)Embryo
I)Fetus
J)Fundus
K)Gestation
L)Gravidity
M)Infant
N)Metrorrhagia
O)Multigravida
P)Parity
Q)Perimenopause
R)Preeclampsia
S)Primigravida
T)Trimester+

Question 74

Match each definition with its medical term.
Pain associated with the menstrual period.

A)Amenorrhea
B)Cervix
C)Colposcopy
D)Dysmenorrhea
E)Dyspareunia
F)Dysplasia
G)Effacement
H)Embryo
I)Fetus
J)Fundus
K)Gestation
L)Gravidity
M)Infant
N)Metrorrhagia
O)Multigravida
P)Parity
Q)Perimenopause
R)Preeclampsia
S)Primigravida
T)Trimester+

Question 75

Match each definition with its medical term.
Before the onset of menopause, the phase during which the woman with regular periods changes to irregular cycles and increased periods of amenorrhea.

A)Amenorrhea
B)Cervix
C)Colposcopy
D)Dysmenorrhea
E)Dyspareunia
F)Dysplasia
G)Effacement
H)Embryo
I)Fetus
J)Fundus
K)Gestation
L)Gravidity
M)Infant
N)Metrorrhagia
O)Multigravida
P)Parity
Q)Perimenopause
R)Preeclampsia
S)Primigravida
T)Trimester+

Question 76

Match each definition with its medical term.
Examination of the cervix using a lighted instrument with a magnifying lens.

A)Amenorrhea
B)Cervix
C)Colposcopy
D)Dysmenorrhea
E)Dyspareunia
F)Dysplasia
G)Effacement
H)Embryo
I)Fetus
J)Fundus
K)Gestation
L)Gravidity
M)Infant
N)Metrorrhagia
O)Multigravida
P)Parity
Q)Perimenopause
R)Preeclampsia
S)Primigravida
T)Trimester+

Question 77

Match each definition with its medical term.
The dome-shaped upper portion of the uterus between the fallopian tubes.

A)Amenorrhea
B)Cervix
C)Colposcopy
D)Dysmenorrhea
E)Dyspareunia
F)Dysplasia
G)Effacement
H)Embryo
I)Fetus
J)Fundus
K)Gestation
L)Gravidity
M)Infant
N)Metrorrhagia
O)Multigravida
P)Parity
Q)Perimenopause
R)Preeclampsia
S)Primigravida
T)Trimester+

Question 78

All of the following are performed during the 6-week postpartum visit except

A) Breast examination
B) Pelvic examination
C) Rectovaginal examination
D) Pap test

Question 79

Match the following test names with the correct test purpose.
Rh factor and ABO blood type

A)To detect the presence of anemia
B)To detect the presence of an organism that if left untreated could infect the infant's eyes at birth
C)To anticipate any ABO or Rh incompatibilities
D)Used as a basic screening test to assess the patient's state of health; includes white blood cell count, red blood cell count, hematocrit, hemoglobin blood type, and differential
E)To detect the presence of syphilis
F)To assess the antibody level present against rubella
G)To screen individuals for gestational diabetes mellitus
H)To detect the presence of the amount of circulating Rh antibodies

Question 80

Match the following test names with the correct test purpose.
Rh antibody titer

A)To detect the presence of anemia
B)To detect the presence of an organism that if left untreated could infect the infant's eyes at birth
C)To anticipate any ABO or Rh incompatibilities
D)Used as a basic screening test to assess the patient's state of health; includes white blood cell count, red blood cell count, hematocrit, hemoglobin blood type, and differential
E)To detect the presence of syphilis
F)To assess the antibody level present against rubella
G)To screen individuals for gestational diabetes mellitus
H)To detect the presence of the amount of circulating Rh antibodies