Deck 16: Psychopathology

Question 1

After talking about feeling unhappy for several weeks, Claudia sees a psychologist. Afterwards, she states that she was given a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis of a psychological disorder, which means that her experiences of being unhappy __________.

A) are clinically significant behavioral or psychological syndromes
B) are associated with distressing symptoms or functional impairments
C) are associated with significantly increased risks of suffering, disability, or loss of freedom
D) all of the above

Answer 1

all of the above

Question 2

In the earlier days of psychology, some success was achieved in identifying physical ailments that explained symptoms of mental disorders. However, early researchers needed to widen their focus to include psychological factors because of a lack of evidence linking physical factors with which of the following?

A) psychopathic personality
B) general paresis
C) schizophrenia
D) hysteria

Answer 2

hysteria

Question 3

David has found that the somatogenic hypothesis has worked again and again in identifying a physical cause for a mental disorder. However, David found that the somatogenic hypothesis is not helpful in explaining which disorder?

A) hysteria
B) general paresis
C) mania
D) schizophrenia

Answer 3

hysteria

Question 4

General paresis once accounted for the occupancy of 10% of all beds in psychiatric hospitals. It is now known to be caused by __________.

A) alcohol
B) hereditary factors
C) axonal degeneration
D) iron deficiency
E) syphilis

Question 5

General paresis is an example of __________.

A) a psychogenic disorder
B) hysteria
C) paranoia
D) a somatogenic disorder

Question 6

Support for the somatogenic hypothesis was provided by __________.

A) general paresis
B) hypochondriasis
C) hysteria
D) mania

Question 7

Gary is disagreeing with a physician who states that the cause of Gary's brother's psychological illness can be traced to a physical disease. Gary's best argument against the physician is that psychopathology in the absence of any physical disease has repeatedly been observed in __________.

A) alcoholics
B) tumor victims
C) hysterics
D) syphilitics

Question 8

The distinction between psychogenic and somatogenic disorders __________.

A) will ultimately be a moot issue because all psychological events are based on neurophysiological processes
B) will remain with us until the discovery of the neurophysiological basis of learning and memory
C) is actually based on the differences between conditions with a known organic basis and those for which causes are as yet unknown
D) really amounts to saying that the most direct explanation of some disorders is at the psychological level, while for others it is at the organic level

Question 9

According to the diathesis-stress model of mental disorder, __________.

A) genes play little role in insanity
B) disorders will emerge only when both diathesis and stress are present
C) diathesis is a more important factor than is stress
D) stress is a more important factor than is diathesis

Question 10

Which of the following regarding the DSM-IV is false?

A) The DSM-IV provides specific criteria for diagnosing illnesses and diseases of both psychological and physiological origin.
B) The DSM-IV makes no reference to normality or abnormality because certain patterns of behavior qualify as mental disorders no matter how commonly they occur.
C) The DSM-IV has undergone several revisions or refinements and is now published by the American Psychiatric Association.
D) The DSM-IV categorizes as a mental disorder any clinically significant condition that is associated with present distress, disability, or increased risk of suffering death, pain, disability, or important loss of freedom.

Question 11

Marcia has been diagnosed with a mental disorder that is of somatogenic origin. Which of the following would Marcia have been diagnosed with?

A) multiple personality disorder
B) hysterical paralysis
C) phobia
D) general paresis

Question 12

After learning about the association between syphilis infection and the strange behaviors of general paresis, Monica becomes an adherent of the somatogenic hypothesis, which holds that mental illness __________.

A) results from conflict between the parents
B) has a psychological origin
C) is caused by an injury or infection
D) results from a psychologically traumatic event

Question 13

Dr. Dutra believes that David's depression emerged not from a biological predisposition interacting with a single stressor, but rather from a complex interaction among the events in his life and the development of different forms of vulnerability to depression. In other words, Dr. Dutra is utilizing a(n) __________.

A) enhanced diathesis-stress model
B) multicausal model
C) neuropsychosocial perspective
D) neuropsychoanalytic model

Question 14

Researchers believe that severe fear reactions suffered in childhood cause a certain mental disorder. A new discovery shows that the disorder is really caused by the lack of a specific enzyme. The disorder will now change in classification from what to what?

A) somatogenic to psychogenic
B) hysterical to psychoanalytic
C) psychoanalytic to pathological
D) psychogenic to somatogenic

Question 15

Although Shannon had a relatively trauma-free early childhood, she was highly emotionally sensitive to any form of stressor and began developing beliefs that the world was difficult and painful. This seems to have led her parents to shelter her more, and also to begin to treat her as though she were fragile and lacked competence. In time, she acquired these beliefs about herself as well. When faced with challenges in college, she quickly became depressed. The complex nature of these risks for depression highlights the principles of __________.

A) object-relations theory in conjunction with cognitive theory
B) a diathesis-stress model in conjunction with developmental trajectory perspectives
C) a multicausal model
D) psychoanalytic theory

Question 16

The discovery of a causal link between syphilis and general paresis __________.

A) followed the discovery of penicillin
B) strengthened the somatogenic position
C) led to the discovery of the causes of depression
D) occurred in America in 1926

Question 17

Which of the following is a symptom of what in Freud's time was called hysteria?

A) paralysis that had no organic cause
B) hearing voices
C) fear of open spaces
D) fear of crowds

Question 18

Which of the following is not part of the DSM-IV definition of mental disorder?

A) Mental disorders are clinically significant.
B) Mental disorders are associated with present distress.
C) Mental disorders are genetically inherited.
D) Mental disorders cause disability.

Question 19

If a person is at genetic risk for developing a particular disorder and then, when under stress, begins to experience assorted symptoms, which part of this equation would be referred to as the diathesis?

A) the genetic risk for the disorder
B) the presence of stress
C) the exact nature of the stress
D) the precise symptoms that developed

Question 20

Proponents of the somatogenic hypothesis argued that mental illness __________.

A) could be traced to some bodily injury or infection
B) was caused by bodily inhabitation of evil spirits
C) was caused by poverty
D) was in fact a form of syphilis infection

Question 21

Avichel has moved from India to the United States and has been experiencing some problems that have led him to see a psychologist. His symptoms are not common in the United States but reflect a culture-specific problem seen fairly frequently in India. This problem, dhat, refers to a __________.

A) fear of cameras taking photos
B) fear of falling bricks
C) fear about the discharge of one's semen
D) fear about the sudden disappearance of the force of gravity
E) fear of music that includes loud drumming

Question 22

Regarding the causes of generalized anxiety disorder, __________.

A) it is unclear if there is a genetic predisposition for this disorder
B) it may be linked to abnormalities in levels of the neurotransmitter GABA
C) the psychoanalytic interpretation is that it occurs when unacceptable impulses enter consciousness
D) all of the above

Question 23

The primary symptoms of anxiety disorders are __________.

A) intense anxiety, often accompanied by unsuccessful strategies for dealing with the anxiety
B) withdrawal and loss of contact with reality
C) unconscious conflicts
D) mania and/or depression

Question 24

A patient might complain of hearing voices that tell him to harm himself, yet comfortably sit and watch a football game in the dayroom. This underscores the fact that __________.

A) mental disorder is not inherited
B) voices are almost always mild in nature
C) patients rarely listen to their "voices"
D) symptoms do not always correspond to signs

Question 25

The DSM-IV attempts to concisely describe the features that define a mental disorder. In doing so it makes references to distress, impairment, and the importance of considering whether an individual's behavior is expected within a particular culture. However, the DSM-IV __________.

A) makes no reference to normality
B) excludes the possibility of cross-cultural variation
C) excludes organic disorders-those associated with brain damage
D) all of the above are correct

Question 26

Matt carefully listens to what his new girlfriend says she sees in the shapes of different clouds, how she interprets the meaning of an ambiguous fortune cookie, and what she says about an abstract painting in a museum. Knowing that Matt has had experience with projective tests, we can assume that Matt is __________.

A) interested in finding out her beliefs about different topics
B) interested in identifying her values and priorities
C) interested in what her responses say about her unconscious wishes and motives
D) planning to recommend that his new girlfriend start psychoanalysis

Question 27

Research supports the view that specific phobias develop __________.

A) as a result of classical conditioning
B) because the feared object is symbolic of some repressed event
C) as a reasonable response to truly dangerous situations
D) all of the above

Question 28

Connor is very concerned that his occasional shyness and concerns about doing things the right way may mean that he has a psychological disorder. His friends and roommates view him as completely normal and think he is no more shy or worried than anyone else. In order for Connor to actually receive a DSM-type diagnosis, his symptoms must __________.

A) be present and active for two years
B) have begun expressing themselves in early childhood
C) correspond to specific criteria outlined in the manual itself
D) all of the above are correct answers

Question 29

Why is it clearly the case that merely labeling a disorder is not the same thing as explaining a disorder?

A) because the label is purely descriptive-it provides a name for the symptoms, not a causal mechanism
B) because labels can be harmful
C) because labels are extremely unreliable, according to research
D) because labels have no connection to signs and symptoms

Question 30

If Joshua had a long-lasting intense and irrational fear of riding in elevators, this would be called a(n) __________.

A) hysteria
B) obsession
C) compulsion
D) phobia

Question 31

Unlike many other types of other fears, a phobia is __________.

A) inconsistent
B) irrational
C) unconscious
D) all of the above

Question 32

Dr. Kotchick has been presenting a series of ambiguous pictures to her patient and carefully recording what the patient says about the pictures. She has also presented a series of inkblot shapes and recorded what the patient says he sees in each. Dr. Kotchick is utilizing __________.

A) objective tests
B) subjective tests
C) unconscious tests
D) projective tests

Question 33

The DSM is a so-called multi-axial system. Every diagnosis includes five different axes. What kind of information is coded on Axis IV?

A) social or environmental problems
B) personality disorder
C) overall level of functioning
D) contributing medical conditions

Question 34

Which of the following terms has been dropped from the most current version of the DSM?

A) dissociation
B) disorder
C) symptom
D) neurosis

Question 35

Which of the following is true regarding specific phobias?

A) Phobic individuals typically know that their fears are irrational.
B) The DSM-IV-TR lists every specific phobia by its Latin name
C) Although phobias themselves are not incapacitating, if left untreated they can lead to madness.
D) All of the above answers are correct.

Question 36

In her first therapy session, Tara's therapist makes a number of observations during the clinical interview. Which of the following observations of Tara would be considered a symptom as opposed to a sign?

A) looking teary-eyed
B) not making eye contact
C) shaking visibly
D) saying "I feel nervous a lot"

Question 37

Alan is training his psychology supervisees in clinical interviewing and how to acquire information about a patient. In doing so, he explains the distinction between symptoms and signs, which is that __________.

A) symptoms are complaints by the patient, while signs are behaviors or physiological measures that accompany the symptoms
B) signs are complaints by the patient, and symptoms are behaviors or physiological measures that accompany the signs
C) signs are complaints by the patient, while a symptom is a recurring pattern of signs
D) none of the above

Question 38

Andy has seen a psychologist for an evaluation, and the psychologist used the DSM-IV-TR format to record his diagnoses and other information. Using the DSM-IV-TR, what kind of information would have been coded on Axis III?

A) psychosocial stress
B) personality disorder
C) overall level of functioning
D) medical conditions

Question 39

Rhonda has unfortunately just been diagnosed with schizophrenia. The psychiatrist making the diagnosis would enter the diagnosis on which axis?

A) I
B) II
C) III
D) V

Question 40

Dr. Black wants to gather as much valid information about his new patients as he can, but also needs to be efficient with his time. One method that can gather information without requiring face-to-face time with the patient is the __________.

A) self-report measure
B) projective test
C) structured clinical interview
D) efficiently structured clinical interview

Question 41

Jane has declined to take higher-paying promotions that would involve speaking in front of groups and leading team meetings in front of a group of employees because she is afraid she will blush and that her voice will shake. Jane probably has social phobia, which __________.

A) is categorized as a specific phobia
B) involves the fear of embarrassment or humiliation in front of others
C) appears to arise from early unsatisfactory or traumatic experiences in relationships with others
D) all of the above

Question 42

What is the main difference between generalized anxiety disorder and panic disorder?

A) Panic disorder involves specific objects or events, while generalized anxiety disorder does not.
B) Panic disorder is chronic, while generalized anxiety disorder is not.
C) Generalized anxiety disorder is brought on by stress, while panic disorder is not.
D) Panic disorder is intermittent, while generalized anxiety disorder is not.

Question 43

All of the anxiety disorders involve some experience of fear or apprehension. However, a feature of generalized anxiety disorder that distinguishes it from the other anxiety disorders is the presence of __________.

A) episodes of irrational panic
B) displacement
C) constant and pervasive worry
D) unpleasant physiological arousal

Question 44

A person tells you that she is constantly tense and has difficulty concentrating. She frequently suffers from insomnia and a rapid heartbeat. She probably has __________.

A) panic disorder
B) phobia of some sort
C) a conversion disorder
D) generalized anxiety disorder

Question 45

Research indicates that, as a woman, Meredith will be at greater risk for __________ than her brother will be.

A) general paresis
B) post-traumatic stress disorder
C) depression
D) dissociative fugue

Question 46

Which of the following is an example of a mood disorder?

A) hysterical conversion
B) phobia
C) schizophrenia
D) major depression

Question 47

Jean has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder, following several years of symptoms. Which of the following symptoms would not have been relevant to her diagnosis?

A) oversensitivity
B) inability to concentrate
C) fear of a particular object or situation
D) insomnia

Question 48

Julie's mother died of lung cancer but Julie is not fearful of cigarettes, and she shocked herself accidentally on a faulty electrical outlet but is not fearful of outlets. However, she has phobias of both snakes and spiders, despite never having been harmed by either. A likely reason for this is that __________.

A) people do not prepare themselves properly when faced with something that frightens them
B) evolution favors those creatures with a built-in fear of dangerous things, like snakes or spiders
C) society prepares people to be afraid of dangerous things like snakes
D) none of the above

Question 49

A commercial jingle that keeps running through your mind is an example of a mild __________.

A) obsession
B) compulsion
C) conversion reaction
D) none of the above

Question 50

When she was 7 years old, Wendy was bitten by a neighbor's dog and subsequently developed a fear of nearly all dogs. According to a conditioning account of phobias, the dog that initially bit Wendy served as a(n) __________.

A) conditioned stimulus
B) unconditioned stimulus
C) conditioned response
D) unconditioned response

Question 51

Agoraphobia is a fear of __________.

A) heights
B) being alone outside the home
C) driving
D) closed spaces

Question 52

Which of the following is an example of an obsession?

A) persistent thoughts of murder
B) incessant counting and recounting
C) ritualistic, repetitive hand washing
D) all of the above

Question 53

Which of the following is not a characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder?

A) ritualistic acts
B) persistent unwanted thoughts
C) intense need for symmetry
D) psychogenic paralysis

Question 54

Depression often includes various physical manifestations, such as __________.

A) inexplicable bodily paralysis
B) sore neck
C) a feeling of weightlessness
D) loss of appetite

Question 55

Which of the following is NOT one of the symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder?

A) a period of numbness or dissociation immediately after the trauma
B) recurrent nightmares and flashbacks of the trauma
C) survival guilt, if friends or relatives were harmed or killed
D) reduced startle response
E) sleep disturbances

Question 56

If you notice that your friend has begun to wash her hands every 15 minutes, you might suspect she has developed a(n) __________.

A) phobia
B) compulsion
C) conversion reaction
D) social phobia

Question 57

Nemi has a long-standing fear of contamination that compels her to carry out numerous cleansing activities each day. If she notices any dirt on her person, she thoroughly washes her hands and arms. Nemi is probably suffering from __________.

A) schizophrenia
B) obsessive-compulsive disorder
C) conversion disorder
D) bipolar disorder
E) none of the above

Question 58

For which of the following has research indicated that it may be a partial cause of obsessive-compulsive disorder?

A) a common bacterium called streptococcus
B) the influenza virus
C) early exposure to high levels of nicotine in the home
D) none of the above

Question 59

John was robbed at gunpoint and beaten, and ever since has suffered from nightmares and other anxiety symptoms. John would be diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder rather than acute stress disorder if __________.

A) the reaction to the stressful event is dissociation
B) the post-traumatic symptoms include waking flashbacks to the stressful event
C) the reaction to the stressful event had persisted for at least one month
D) all of the above

Question 60

A blood-injection-injury phobia is different from other specific phobias because the phobic stimulus causes __________.

A) panic instead of a parasympathetic response
B) a feeling of disgust and drop in blood pressure rather than feelings of fear with increased blood pressure
C) both a panic response and a parasympathetic response
D) neither panic nor a parasympathetic response

Question 61

Although Katie's mother had bipolar disorder, Katie herself has been experiencing a less severe form of distinctly elevated mood called __________.

A) fugue
B) dissociative identity disorder
C) dhat
D) hypomania

Question 62

Michael was diagnosed with bipolar disorder several years ago. This means that he will experience mood states that include which of the following?

A) mania and normalcy
B) depression and normalcy
C) depression, mania, and normalcy
D) aggression and mania

Question 63

Tai lives in China, and as a result of some recent losses and problems he has become depressed. Compared with someone in a similar situation in the United States, Tai's depressive symptoms will tend to be __________.

A) more severe
B) less psychological and more bodily in nature
C) more sudden, often emerging over the course of an hour or so
D) easier to treat

Question 64

In discussing the prevalence of mood disorders, __________.

A) bipolar disorder occurs in about 0.5 to 1% of the population
B) between 10 and 20% of all Americans will experience a major depressive episode at some time in their lives
C) both major depression and bipolar disorder are more frequently diagnosed in women than in men
D) all of the above

Question 65

Robert repeatedly missed work during the last year. A year ago he became hyperactive, staying up for numerous nights working on projects that caught his interest. He gradually became quiet and withdrawn. Recently, Robert swallowed a large quantity of sedatives. He is probably suffering from __________.

A) bipolar disorder
B) schizophrenia
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder
D) conversion disorder
E) none of the above

Question 66

Stacy has gone into a manic state over the past few days. Which of the following would we NOT expect to observe as a symptom?

A) very lively and infectiously merry
B) extremely talkative and on the go
C) able to handle frustration easily
D) very self-confident

Question 67

Which one of the following people is most likely to successfully commit suicide?

A) John: deep in his depression, does not care about anyone or anything
B) Sissy: still in a hospital setting, seems to be on the road to recovery
C) Bart: having had several good outpatient therapy sessions, seems to be regaining some of his energy
D) Karyn: extremely depressed,and will not leave her apartment or see anyone

Question 68

Missy has been having a very bad couple of days at work. According to research on attributions, Missy will be at greater risk for depression if she attributes these bad events to __________ causes.

A) stable, global, and internal
B) unstable, local, and internal
C) stable, local, and external
D) stable, global, and external
E) none of the above

Question 69

Although the DSM-IV-TR lists specific criteria for the diagnosis of depression, the experience of depression may manifest itself differently in adolescents and younger adults. Which of the following symptoms would be consistent with the experience of depression in an adolescent?

A) a preoccupation with nihilistic books and music
B) missed classes
C) belligerent and defiant behavior
D) substance abuse
E) all of the above

Question 70

Doug has been diagnosed with unipolar depression for the first time. If he is like most patients diagnosed with unipolar depression, he will __________.

A) remain depressed throughout his life span
B) suffer periods of deep depression
C) experience mood swings every few hours
D) experience a manic episode at some point in his life

Question 71

A depressed individual is most likely to commit suicide __________.

A) at the onset of a depressive episode
B) at the point of deepest despair
C) at the beginning of recovery from a depressive episode
D) between depressive episodes

Question 72

Tariq lives in Iraq and has seen years of war, with several of his relatives and friends killed; Taylor lives in the United States and has had a relatively sheltered upbringing, with no significant losses. Which of the following is most likely to be true?

A) Tariq will be less likely to develop depression because he has grown stronger and more resilient.
B) Taylor will be less likely to develop depression because he has experienced less loss and less chronic stress.
C) They will be equally likely to develop depression but because of different risk factors.
D) Taylor will be more likely to develop depression because he has not yet had to develop emotional strength.

Question 73

Darius has been experiencing major depressive disorder for the past two months. He has had a fairly severe episode. Which of the following symptoms could occur as part of his major depressive disorder?

A) delusions or hallucinations
B) disrupted attention and short-term memory
C) fatigue, weakness, and sleep disorders
D) all of the above

Question 74

Cristina has been depressed for weeks and has found herself thinking negatively about herself and her situation. She wonders what role these thoughts play in her depression. According to Beck's cognitive theory of depression, __________.

A) bleak thoughts cause depression
B) depression causes bleak thoughts
C) a bleak future causes depression
D) depression makes the future seem bleak

Question 75

Schizophrenia, literally translated, means __________.

A) multiple personality
B) cleft mind
C) split mind
D) mixed brain

Question 76

Researchers generally believe that problems with neurotransmitter activity are associated with depression, and several lines of evidence support this belief. At the same time, chemical models of depression are inadequate because __________.

A) antidepressant drugs work immediately to increase neurotransmission, but clinical effects generally do not become apparent for several weeks
B) the chemical structure of the drugs is impossible to assay
C) the proper drug dosage is impossible to decide on
D) brain chemicals can only be measured postmortem

Question 77

Janice and Bill are married, live in the same house, and have similar jobs. Despite their similar situations, as a woman Janice is more likely to become depressed than Bill. One reason for this gender difference in depression is that __________.

A) men are unable to describe their emotions and cannot identify depression
B) women tend to ruminate more on their emotional difficulties
C) women are more likely to develop drinking problems that lead to depression
D) none of the above

Question 78

With respect to the genetic components of mood disorders, it has been shown that __________.

A) concordance rates for both identical and fraternal twins are the same
B) genetic factors play a stronger role in bipolar than unipolar disorder
C) mood disorders are generally inherited through matrilinear descent
D) the same genetic factors give rise to both uni- and bipolar disorders

Question 79

Both Cindy and Jim are thinking seriously of committing suicide. Although Cindy is more likely to attempt suicide, Jim is more likely to die of suicide. Why is this?

A) Fewer women than men attempt to kill themselves.
B) Women are not, on average, as seriously depressed as men.
C) Women use methods that are less likely to be fatal than methods used by men.
D) All of the above answers are correct.

Question 80

Jamie is poor and lives in an area with high unemployment; Jason is well educated and comes from an upper-middle-class family. What is true of their relative risk for mood disorders?

A) Jamie is less likely to develop any mood disorder.
B) Jason is less likely to develop any mood disorder.
C) Jamie is more likely to develop major depressive disorder, but Jason is more likely to develop bipolar disorder.
D) Jamie is more likely to develop bipolar disorder, but Jason is more likely to develop major depressive disorder.