Deck 30: DNA and Biotechnology

Question 1

A tRNA with a long chain of amino acids is released from the ribosome because the stop codon does not correspond with a particular anticodon that causes the tRNA to fall off, leaving only the polypeptide chain. This process is called ________.

A) initiation
B) elongation
C) termination
D) deletion

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Which of the following is a process in translation in which tRNA molecules deliver amino acids in the correct sequence, causing peptide bonds to form and increasing the length of the polypeptide chain?

A) initiation
B) elongation
C) termination
D) transcription

Answer 2

B

Question 3

The process of using each strand of a DNA molecule as a template to form a new strand is called ________.

A) semiconservative replication
B) conservative replication
C) transcription
D) translation

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Which of the following uses patterns of STR fragments that have been cut by restriction enzymes and sorted by size?

A) DNA fingerprinting
B) DNA sequencing
C) cloning
D) genetic engineering

Question 5

Which of the following is the signal that functions to begin transcription and consists of a sequence on the DNA?

A) mRNA
B) promoter
C) vector
D) exon

Question 6

In which part of the molecule does tRNA pair with mRNA?

A) rRNA
B) codon
C) anticodon
D) gene

Question 7

Which chemical carries the DNA's instructions for synthesizing a particular protein from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?

A) transfer RNA
B) messenger RNA
C) RNA transcriptase
D) ribosomal RNA

Question 8

This technique has thousands of DNA sequences on a slide and is used to determine which are active at the time.

A) microarray
B) PCR
C) recombinant DNA
D) translation

Question 9

If a mutation occurred in this area, it would not directly change the specific placement of an amino acid in the resulting polypeptide.

A) gene
B) codon
C) exon
D) intron

Question 10

Which process converts the nucleotide language of mRNA into the amino acid language of a protein?

A) DNA replication
B) transcription
C) translation
D) meiosis

Question 11

Which of the following brings tRNA with an amino acid close enough to mRNA to permit interaction and the assembly of amino acids to form a protein?

A) DNA polymerase
B) RNA polymerase
C) ribosome
D) mRNA

Question 12

This rare condition was the first to be experimentally treated with gene therapy.

A) sickle-cell anemia
B) Down syndrome
C) SCID
D) AIDS

Question 13

The following is a part of a gene sequence: ATCAGC. What would be the resulting product of transcription?

A) TAGTCG
B) UAGUCG
C) GACGTC
D) CUGCUA

Question 14

The extra sequences of nucleotides that are excised out of the mRNA prior to leaving the nucleus are called ________.

A) exons
B) vestigial sequences
C) tRNA
D) introns

Question 15

Which of the following is a method of gene amplification that involves complementary primers and uses heat to unzip DNA to make multiple copies of a particular gene?

A) vector
B) polymerase chain reaction
C) sticky ends
D) recombinant

Question 16

Segments of DNA that increase the rate of transcription of certain genes are known as ________.

A) enhancers
B) polymerases
C) short tandem repeats
D) introns

Question 17

The process in which the mRNA, tRNA, and ribosomal subunits come together during translation is called ________.

A) initiation
B) elongation
C) termination
D) deletion

Question 18

The base sequences that are left behind after the introns have been spliced out by enzymes are the ________.

A) genes
B) anticodons
C) exons
D) phosphates

Question 19

A chemical that delivers amino acids one at a time in the ordered sequence specified by the mRNA strand is called ________.

A) DNA
B) tRNA
C) rRNA
D) mRNA

Question 20

Why are the complementary base-pairing rules so important when a cell needs to copy its DNA?

A) The cells need both strands to be accurate because each strand codes for one half of the gene.
B) As long as there is one strand, a copy can be made by following the pairing rules.
C) Unless the bases pair up correctly, the DNA strand can break apart.
D) Transcription cannot proceed unless the pairs are in the proper sequence.

Question 21

A goal of genomics is to ________.

A) understand the mechanisms that control gene expression
B) provide a way to produce large quantities of a particular gene product
C) manipulate genetic material for human purposes
D) regulate how genes are expressed without changing the protein they encode

Question 22

If there are 64 potential codons that code for various amino acids but only about 20 specific amino acids, what must be true about the genetic code?

A) Most of the codons are not used.
B) There are two codons for each amino acid, and the rest are stop codons.
C) All are used, but bacteria and plants each have 20 different amino acids.
D) Multiple codons code for the same amino acid.

Question 23

The ________ is used to convert the linear sequences of bases in DNA to the sequence of amino acids in proteins.

Question 24

DNA fingerprinting is now widely used to tie a particular suspect to the DNA samples found at a crime scene. What benefits can be derived from this technology in fighting crime?

A) "Persons of interest" can be excluded more rapidly as suspects, so police can focus on other leads.
B) A jailed convict can be proven to have no connection to evidence found at a crime scene.
C) Solid matches can aid a district attorney's case in proving guilt to a jury.
D) All of the above are true.

Question 25

Translation occurs at the ________ in the cell.

Question 26

If you could neither synthesize nor acquire deoxyribose in any way, you could not make the nucleic acid ________.

Question 27

The genetic code works only because each codon is read in a specific manner that results in the correct amino acid being placed in that particular spot. What physically places each amino acid by matching up the correct codon?

A) tRNA
B) mRNA
C) DNA
D) rRNA

Question 28

In gene expression, ________.

A) DNA directs the synthesis of a polypeptide that directs the synthesis of RNA
B) RNA determines the sequence of DNA, which directs the synthesis of polypeptides
C) DNA directs the synthesis of RNA that directs the synthesis of a polypeptide
D) polypeptides direct the synthesis for both RNA and DNA

Question 29

UV rays from the sun cause a specific type of improper base pairing called a thymine dimer. If a cell cannot correct this problem, the section of DNA can be removed, causing a deletion of several nucleotides. What will this cause?

A) A point mutation forms that leads to a change in one amino acid.
B) A point mutation forms that leads to changes in a handful of amino acids.
C) The codons shift by one letter, and all the codons before the mutation are changed.
D) The codons could shift by one letter, and all the codons after that point would be off.

Question 30

Why do transcription and translation take place in two different locations?

A) DNA is located in the nucleus, whereas the ribosomes needed for translation are not in the nucleus.
B) DNA is located in the nucleus, whereas the ribosomes needed for translation are found outside the cell.
C) DNA is located in the nucleus, whereas the ribosomes needed for transcription are found outside the cell.
D) Translation takes place in the nucleus, whereas the DNA is located elsewhere.

Question 31

The p53 gene is a tumor-suppressing gene that prevents damaged cells from undergoing cell division. If this gene ceases to function due to a mutation, what will happen to the cell?

A) Tumors will be suppressed.
B) The cell will die.
C) Uncontrolled cell division will occur.
D) The cell will be prevented from undergoing division.

Question 32

________ is attached to a specific amino acid and transports it to the appropriate region of mRNA.

Question 33

________ are small pieces of DNA separate from the bacterial chromosome.

Question 34

A new antibiotic is developed that interferes with the way tRNA fits into bacterial ribosomes. How would this kill the bacteria?

A) The bacteria would be unable to produce necessary enzymes to carry out basic metabolism.
B) The tRNA would be unable to carry out transcription.
C) Ribosomes would not be able to produce mRNA, and cell functions would halt.
D) tRNA would not unwind the DNA to allow DNA polymerase to copy it; thus, cell division would stop.

Question 35

A(n) ________ is composed of one sugar (deoxyribose or ribose), one phosphate, and one nitrogenous base.

Question 36

Changes in the DNA are called ________.

Question 37

The end product of transcription is the production of a(n) ________.

Question 38

Many factors control the activity of genes. The array of chemicals that is responsible for turning a gene "on" is known as the ________.

A) genetic engineer
B) epigenome
C) fingerprint
D) recombinant gene

Question 39

Genes are really just segments of DNA in patterns of As, Ts, Gs, and Cs. How does an RNA polymerase "know" where to start transcribing at the beginning of a particular gene?

A) The polymerase finds the end of the previous gene and copies past that point.
B) The polymerase starts transcribing anywhere because the beginning point counts only during translation.
C) It looks for a specific promoter region that marks the beginning of a gene.
D) RNA polymerase does not know, so it has to rely on the ribosome to help it start at the correct place.

Question 40

Point mutations can occur in any given cell type, but they mostly affect only that one cell and cells produced by it. What cell type, if mutated, would allow the mutation to be passed on to family members for generations?

A) glial cells, such as those that produce a myelin sheath
B) skin cells
C) white blood cells
D) gametes, such as an egg or sperm

Question 41

Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Thymine
B) DNA polymerases
C) RNA polymerase
D) Codons
E) Guanine
F) Gene therapy
G) Epigenetics
H) Biotechnology
I) Genome
According to base-pairing rules, cytosine will pair only with this.

Question 42

A group of identical organisms that are all descendants from a single ancestor is known as a(n) ________.

Question 43

The amount of DNA can be increased when primers are heated with a mix of the original small amount of DNA, DNA polymerase, and nucleotides in the process known as ________.

Question 44

RNA usually is ________ stranded.

Question 45

DNA methylation and histone acetylation are considered two ________ processes.

Question 46

Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Thymine
B) DNA polymerases
C) RNA polymerase
D) Codons
E) Guanine
F) Gene therapy
G) Epigenetics
H) Biotechnology
I) Genome
The RNA "words" are called this.

Question 47

Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Thymine
B) DNA polymerases
C) RNA polymerase
D) Codons
E) Guanine
F) Gene therapy
G) Epigenetics
H) Biotechnology
I) Genome
An individual's complete set of DNA.

Question 48

Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Thymine
B) DNA polymerases
C) RNA polymerase
D) Codons
E) Guanine
F) Gene therapy
G) Epigenetics
H) Biotechnology
I) Genome
According to base-pairing rules, adenine will pair only with this.

Question 49

Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Thymine
B) DNA polymerases
C) RNA polymerase
D) Codons
E) Guanine
F) Gene therapy
G) Epigenetics
H) Biotechnology
I) Genome
The process of replacing a faulty gene with healthy functional genes.

Question 50

If a double-stranded DNA has 20% adenine, then it will have ________ % cytosine.

Question 51

Some tRNA often contains sections of noncomplementary, unusual bases (i.e., other than U, C, A, and
G), which are added after transcription. What area of the tRNA would never contain such odd bases in a living organism?

Question 52

The gene for one form of hemophilia is added to a harmless virus, and then the virus is given to someone with the hereditary disease. The virus is acting as a(n) ________.

Question 53

The manipulation of genetic material for human purposes, the practice of ________, began almost as soon as we began to understand the language of DNA.

Question 54

Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Thymine
B) DNA polymerases
C) RNA polymerase
D) Codons
E) Guanine
F) Gene therapy
G) Epigenetics
H) Biotechnology
I) Genome
Enzymes that link the sugars and phosphates of the newly attached nucleotides to form a new strand during DNA replication.

Question 55

Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Thymine
B) DNA polymerases
C) RNA polymerase
D) Codons
E) Guanine
F) Gene therapy
G) Epigenetics
H) Biotechnology
I) Genome
The science of making a living cell perform a task considered useful by humans in a controlled way.

Question 56

Why is DNA replication semiconservative?

Question 57

Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Thymine
B) DNA polymerases
C) RNA polymerase
D) Codons
E) Guanine
F) Gene therapy
G) Epigenetics
H) Biotechnology
I) Genome
The alteration of gene activity without DNA sequence change.

Question 58

Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Thymine
B) DNA polymerases
C) RNA polymerase
D) Codons
E) Guanine
F) Gene therapy
G) Epigenetics
H) Biotechnology
I) Genome
An enzyme that binds with the promoter on DNA and then synthesizes mRNA.

Question 59

Explain why some people fear genetically modified foods despite commercial organization claims that these foods are safe for human consumption.

Question 60

The nitrogenous base found in RNA but not DNA is ________.

Question 61

Could your lifestyle or the food you eat influence evolution? How?

Question 62

Both DNA and RNA polymerases must be able to copy from a template strand with great accuracy. Still, either one can make mistakes that could lead to a mutation. For which one of these polymerases would a mistake be the most serious in the long term? Explain your answer.

Question 63

The text says that bovine somatotropin can be given to cows to boost milk production. Suppose that it would be possible to alter the genes of cows so that the animals always made excess somatotropin. What concerns do you think people might have about this procedure?

Question 64

Compare and contrast DNA and RNA.

Question 65

The drug Humulin is a modified form of the human insulin protein that is used to treat diabetes. Describe the process that would allow a drug company to take the gene responsible for producing this protein and, using bacteria, produce large amounts of this human protein.

Question 66

Scientists study the genomes of many different living organisms besides humans, including, for example, fruit flies, yeasts, and mice. Of what value is understanding the genes of a mouse in comparison to those of a human? Are the two even remotely comparable?

Question 67

Genetically modified (GM) salmon have now been approved for sale in the United States. What environmental concern has been expressed about these salmon? What is being considered to reduce this risk?

Question 68

Gene therapy is being explored as a means of permanently correcting a defective gene to cure a disease rather than to merely treat symptoms with drugs. Ideally, it would be best to correct these defective genes before a baby is even born. But if it's possible to change diseased genes, what about changing genes that regulate other characteristics, such as height or eye color? Would it be desirable to change the genes of babies for more cosmetic purposes?