Deck 15: Section 2: Psychological Disorders

Question 1

Possible social or environmental factors in mental disorders include all of these EXCEPT:

A)maladaptive learning and coping.
B)poor socialization.
C)stressful life experiences.
D)cultural and social inequities.

Answer 1

maladaptive learning and coping.

Question 2

Possible psychological factors in mental disorders include all these EXCEPT:

A)maladaptive coping.
B)dysfunctional attitudes.
C)interpersonal problems.
D)stressful life circumstances.

Answer 2

stressful life circumstances.

Question 3

Possible biological factors in mental disorders include all these EXCEPT:

A)genetic influences.
B)biochemical imbalances.
C)reaction to stress.
D)brain abnormalities.

Answer 3

reaction to stress.

Question 4

Which of these is NOT a component of the DSM-5?

A)22 major categories of mental disorders
B)causes of psychological disorders
C)cultural considerations in diagnosing mental disorders
D)specific criteria that must be met in order for a person to be diagnosed with a disorder

Question 5

Stacey's mother has schizophrenia, but Stacey herself showed no symptoms of schizophrenia until she experienced the stress of medical school final exams. The final exams prompted a psychotic break. Stacey's case is a good example of:

A)hereditary induced stress.
B)etiology and prognosis.
C)the diathesis-stress model.
D)the medical model.

Question 6

Which statements about diatheses is FALSE?

A)A diathesis could be genetic.
B)If a diathesis is inherited, the disease associated with it will occur.
C)A diathesis is an internal factor affecting the manifestation of a disease.
D)A diathesis could be psychological.

Question 7

According to the theory of physiognomy, mental disorders could be diagnosed from:

A)physiological reactions to stress.
B)the strength of bodily reflexes.
C)facial features.
D)bumps on the head.

Question 8

The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders is currently in its _____ edition.

A)third
B)fourth
C)fifth
D)sixth

Question 9

Different individuals experience a mental disorder for different reasons. This phenomenon illustrates:

A)the complexity of causation.
B)the medical model.
C)the diathesis-stress model.
D)comorbidity.

Question 10

The Draft Research Domain Criteria (RDoC) Matrix includes all of these EXCEPT:

A)cognitive systems
B)systems for social processes
C)negative valence systems
D)neutral valence systems

Question 11

All of these were early explanations of strange behavior or bizarre thoughts or emotions EXCEPT:

A)God's punishment for wrongdoing
B)possession by demons.
C)witchcraft.
D)disease.

Question 12

The diathesis-stress model explains disease as the result of:

A)a predisposition for a disease and a triggering event.
B)a triggering event such as stress.
C)a predisposition for a disease.
D)heritability.

Question 13

Which construct is the Research Domain Criteria Project NOT based on?

A)biological
B)personality
C)cognitive
D)behavioral

Question 14

During their lifetimes, approximately _____ percent of Americans will experience some type of mental disorder.

A)50
B)30
C)20
D)10

Question 15

Prognosis is defined as:

A)the typical course of disease.
B)a cause of disease.
C)a pattern of causes.
D)the classification of disease.

Question 16

With respect to the medical model of disease, etiology is defined as:

A)the typical course of disease.
B)the susceptibility of a disease to treatment and cure.
C)a pattern of causes of disease.
D)the classification of disease.

Question 17

Which statement regarding psychological disorders is true?

A)They rarely have physical causes.
B)They rarely have a single cause.
C)They rarely have environmental causes.
D)They often have a single, physical cause.

Question 18

The conceptualization of psychological abnormalities as diseases, which, similar to biological diseases, have symptoms, causes, and possible cures, is known as a _____ model.

A)biopsychosocial
B)medical
C)DSM
D)prescriptive

Question 19

Kaylie has been diagnosed with both social phobia and depression. Kaylie's case exemplifies:

A)comorbidity.
B)a global assessment of functioning.
C)dissociative disorders.
D)the diathesis-stress model.

Question 20

Diathesis can be defined as:

A)a triggering event such as stress.
B)a disease.
C)a predisposition for a disease.
D)the heritability of a disease.

Question 21

Kathryn says she is deathly afraid of spiders. She refuses to go into any location (garage, basement, attic) where she may run into a spider. Her fear of spiders is so great that she is losing sleep for fear a spider will crawl on her while she is asleep. As a result, her grades are beginning to worsen. Kathryn would probably be diagnosed with:

A)panic disorder.
B)specific phobia.
C)social phobia.
D)obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Question 22

Approximately _____ percent of people in the United States develop a specific phobia at some point in their lives.

A)12
B)22
C)32
D)42

Question 23

Which of these is NOT an anxiety disorder described in DSM-5?

A)phobia
B)generalized anxiety disorder
C)seasonal affective disorder
D)panic disorder

Question 24

The stigma associated with mental disorders may explain why most people with diagnosable psychological disorders, approximately _____ percent, do not seek treatment.

A)60
B)70
C)80
D)90

Question 25

Ellen was kicked by a horse as a child. She now has a severe fear of horses. Even pictures of horses can make her sweat and feel anxious. Ellen's behavior demonstrates _____ conditioning.

A)classical
B)operant
C)observational learning
D)instrumental learning

Question 26

Who proposed the preparedness theory of phobias?

A)John Watson
B)Martin Seligman
C)Hans Selye
D)Karl Lashley

Question 27

A marked, persistent, and excessive fear and avoidance of specific objects, activities, or situations is termed _____ disorder.

A)generalized anxiety
B)panic
C)phobic
D)posttraumatic stress

Question 28

Research on facial expressions has shown that people are more easily conditioned to fear facial expressions of _____ than other types of expressions.

A)pain
B)disgust
C)anger
D)sadness

Question 29

Which of these is NOT an anxiety disorder?

A)phobic disorder
B)bipolar disorder
C)panic disorder
D)generalized anxiety disorder

Question 30

The preparedness theory of phobia suggests that:

A)there is a critical time period in which the body prepares for a phobic episode.
B)we learn to fear objects because of classical conditioning.
C)more women than men experience phobic disorders.
D)we are instinctively predisposed toward certain fears.

Question 31

John cannot go to the bathroom in a public restroom. He fears that someone will hear him or see him going to the bathroom, which he would find embarrassing. John could be diagnosed with:

A)a specific phobia.
B)a social phobia.
C)generalized anxiety disorder.
D)obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Question 32

Situation-related anxiety is:

A)a symptom that one of the anxiety disorders probably is present.
B)a defining feature of obsessive-compulsive disorder.
C)a defining feature of panic disorder.
D)normal and adaptive.

Question 33

Claustrophobia is the fear of:

A)heights.
B)enclosed spaces.
C)public places.
D)bridges.

Question 34

Individuals with phobic disorders:

A)believe that their fear is adaptive.
B)are good at not letting the phobia interfere with their everyday functioning.
C)tend to have depressed levels of activity in the amygdala.
D)recognize that their fear is irrational.

Question 35

All of these have been implicated as playing a role in vulnerability to phobias EXCEPT:

A)having close relatives with phobias.
B)excessive shyness as a child.
C)abnormalities in the neurotransmitters serotonin and dopamine.
D)abnormally low levels of activity in the amygdala.

Question 36

Specific phobias may be categorized as any of these EXCEPT:

A)foods.
B)animals.
C)blood, injections, and injury.
D)natural environments.

Question 37

Which statement regarding the relationship between classical conditioning and phobias is true?

A)Phobias cannot be classically conditioned.
B)Most specific phobias are formed through classical conditioning.
C)Most social phobias are formed through classical conditioning.
D)Classical conditioning provides a useful model of therapy for phobias.

Question 38

Which statement about social phobia is FALSE?

A)It is more common in women than men.
B)It is an irrational fear of being publicly embarrassed.
C)It is more common in children than adults.
D)It is an irrational fear of being publicly humiliated.

Question 39

Human beings and monkeys have been shown to be instinctively primed to learn fears of certain things, such as of snakes and spiders. Which theory supports this proposition?

A)confirmation bias
B)learning theory
C)classical conditioning
D)preparedness theory

Question 40

Which person would MOST likely be diagnosed with a social phobia?

A)a female of college age who is poor and a high school dropout
B)a male college student who has little spending money
C)a 7-year-old female living with her two biological parents and who is labeled as gifted
D)a 7-year-old male living with adoptive parents in an upper-middle-class community

Question 41

GAD is almost _____ times as common in women as in men.

A)two
B)three
C)four
D)five

Question 42

Family studies suggest some hereditary component to panic disorder, with _____ percent of the variance in liability for developing panic disorder attributed to genetic influence.

A)10-20
B)20-30
C)30-40
D)40-50

Question 43

The percentage of pairs of twins who share a particular characteristic is called the _____ rate.

A)common
B)coefficient
C)concordance
D)comorbidity

Question 44

Due to the unexpected nature of panic attacks, some people develop a fear of public places; they are afraid that they will have a panic attack and help will not be available. The fear of public places is which disorder?

A)claustrophobia
B)social phobia
C)agoraphobia
D)acrophobia

Question 45

Which neurotransmitter has been linked to treatment of generalized anxiety disorder?

A)GABA
B)ACTH
C)serotonin
D)dopamine

Question 46

In generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), chronic excessive worry is accompanied by all these symptoms EXCEPT:

A)restlessness.
B)fatigue.
C)panic attacks.
D)concentration problems.

Question 47

About _____ percent of the U.S. population reports having had at least one panic attack during a period of intense stress.

A)2
B)12
C)22
D)42

Question 48

Which person is MOST likely to be diagnosed with GAD?

A)a male African American psychology professor
B)a poor woman living in a homeless shelter after recently being laid off
C)a woman who is an upper-level manager
D)a male plumber who is married to a lawyer

Question 49

Josh constantly complains about fatigue, muscle tension, and sleep problems. He is irritable, worries incessantly about little things that cause others in his family no concern, and has trouble concentrating. From his symptoms, it is likely that Josh has:

A)generalized anxiety disorder.
B)major depression.
C)bipolar disorder.
D)dissociative disorder.

Question 50

The anxiety of someone with GAD is:

A)often irrational.
B)usually caused by extreme fatigue.
C)known to lead to compulsions.
D)related to a specific situation.

Question 51

Valium belongs to a class of drugs known as:

A)barbiturates.
B)benzodiazepines.
C)opiates.
D)anesthetics.

Question 52

Just over _____ percent of North Americans are estimated to suffer from GAD at some point in their lives.

A)5
B)10
C)15
D)20

Question 53

Pat finds herself worrying about most things in her life, from whether her children are safe drivers to making the right decision on refinancing her home, what to fix for dinner, and whether her husband is faithful. Pat's worrying has begun to interfere with her sleep. Pat MOST likely has:

A)dysthymia.
B)obsessive-compulsive disorder.
C)generalized anxiety disorder.
D)panic disorder.

Question 54

Over the past year, Lauren has repeatedly experienced symptoms that she believes indicate a heart attack, sending her to the emergency room complaining of dizziness, inability to catch her breath, and heart palpitations. She tells her parents she is afraid she's going to die, although doctors have found nothing physically wrong. From her symptoms, it is likely that Lauren is experiencing:

A)generalized anxiety disorder.
B)dissociative episodes.
C)manic episodes.
D)panic attacks.

Question 55

Approximately _____ percent of the population are diagnosed with panic disorder using DSM criteria.

A)2
B)3)5
C)5
D)8

Question 56

Which of these is NOT a characteristic of a panic attack?

A)shortness of breath
B)depersonalization
C)derealization
D)disorganized speech

Question 57

A feeling of being detached from one's body is termed:

A)deindividuation.
B)depersonalization.
C)derealization.
D)dysthymia.

Question 58

Which characteristic is NOT a common symptom of GAD?

A)concentration problems
B)sleep problems
C)muscle tension
D)psychosis

Question 59

Which of these people would MOST likely be diagnosed with panic disorder?

A)Abe, who had a panic attack when he was pulled over by the police
B)Lauren, who has occasional panic attacks during periods of intense stress but has learned not to fear them
C)Margaret, who is terrified of contracting a virus and is agoraphobic
D)Casey, who has occasional panic attacks and dreads having another

Question 60

Administration of the chemical _____ induces a panic attack in most people with panic disorder.

A)capsaicin
B)sodium lactate
C)l-amphetamine
D)pentobarbital

Question 61

Major depressive disorder is also known as:

A)unipolar depression.
B)manic depression.
C)dysthymia.
D)bipolar depression.

Question 62

Jose is terrified that someone is going to break into his house; he checks his locks dozens of times each day and sets up traps to detect the presence of intruders when he is away. It is likely that Jose has:

A)panic disorder.
B)obsessive-compulsive disorder.
C)social phobia.
D)agoraphobia.

Question 63

All of these are symptoms of major depressive disorder EXCEPT:

A)feelings of worthlessness.
B)lethargy or loss of pleasure.
C)chronic excessive worries.
D)sleep disturbances.

Question 64

Generalized anxiety disorder is more prevalent in all of these EXCEPT:

A)women.
B)people living in rural areas.
C)people living in poverty.
D)people living in large cities.

Question 65

In obsessive-compulsive disorder, the obsessive thoughts _____, and the compulsive behaviors _____.

A)produce anxiety; reduce it
B)produce anxiety; further increase it
C)trigger panic attacks; decrease anxiety
D)trigger panic attacks; prolong them

Question 66

Which statement regarding pharmacological treatment of GAD is true?

A)Effective treatments decrease the activity of GABA in the brain.
B)Benzodiazepines have largely proven ineffective at treating GAD.
C)Certain antidepressants can be effective at treating GAD.
D)Effective treatments increase the activity of glutamate in the brain.

Question 67

Which of these is NOT a common obsession/compulsion in people with OCD?

A)contamination
B)moral concerns
C)ordering
D)counting

Question 68

Which brain structure has been implicated in obsessive-compulsive disorder?

A)amygdala
B)hypothalamus
C)caudate nucleus
D)prefrontal cortex

Question 69

If you have experienced a trauma and are experiencing chronic physiological arousal, recurrent unwanted thoughts or images of the trauma, and avoidance of things that call the traumatic event to mind, you may be suffering from:

A)depression
B)anxiety disorder
C)posttraumatic stress disorder
D)autism spectrum disorder

Question 70

Approximately what percentage of U.S. veterans of recent operations in Iraq met criteria for PTSD after their deployment?

A)12
B)22
C)32
D)42

Question 71

Which statement about OCD is FALSE?

A)Compulsions temporarily reduce anxiety.
B)People realize their obsessions are irrational.
C)Women are slightly more susceptible to OCD than men.
D)Treatment involves learning to actively ignore the obsessive thought.

Question 72

About _____ percent of people will develop OCD sometime in their lives.

A)1
B)2
C)5
D)10

Question 73

Which of these is NOT a mood disorder?

A)depression
B)bipolar disorder
C)SAD
D)OCD

Question 74

Over the past 9 months, Trisha has become lethargic and has stopped working out at the gym (and as a consequence has gained considerable weight). Previously full of energy and curiosity, she now shows a lack of interest in virtually everything, even sex. It is likely that Trisha is suffering from a _____ disorder.

A)personality
B)dissociative
C)mood
D)generalized anxiety

Question 75

A diagnosis of major depressive disorder requires evidence of a severely depressed mood that has lasted at least:

A)6 months.
B)2 months.
C)4 weeks.
D)2 weeks.

Question 76

Which of these is the MOST common obsession/compulsion in people with OCD?

A)contamination
B)putting things in order
C)checking
D)cleaning

Question 77

Drugs that increase _____ have been shown to reduce the symptoms of OCD.

A)GABA
B)ACTH
C)dopamine
D)serotonin

Question 78

What is the mental disorder in which repetitive, intrusive thoughts and ritualistic behaviors designed to fend off those thoughts interfere significantly with functioning?

A)generalized anxiety disorder
B)specific phobia
C)dissociative disorder
D)obsessive-compulsive disorder

Question 79

Dysthymia is _____ severe than major depressive disorder and lasts at least 2 _____.

A)more; years
B)less; years
C)more; weeks
D)less; weeks

Question 80

Kelly has been feeling very sad for a month. Her sadness is so pronounced that she has not showered for days on end, sometimes has forgotten to eat, and has not been interested in doing anything. Kelly probably has:

A)double depression.
B)dysthymia.
C)SAD.
D)unipolar depression.