Deck 43: Animal Reproduction

Question 1

Which of the following is not a component of asexual reproduction?

A) Identical genetic makeup of parent and progeny
B) Fertilization
C) Parthenogenesis
D) Regeneration
E) Budding

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Contractions of muscles in the uterine wall and milk letdown are stimulated by

A) progesterone.
B) estrogen.
C) prolactin.
D) oxytocin.
E) human chorionic gonadotropin.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ in that

A) spermatogenesis produces gametes with greater stores of raw materials than those produced by oogenesis.
B) spermatocytes remain in prophase of the first meiotic division longer than oocytes.
C) oogenesis produces four equally functional haploid cells per meiotic event and spermatogenesis does not.
D) spermatogenesis produces many gametes with meager energy reserves, whereas oogenesis produces relatively few, well-provisioned gametes.
E) spermatogenesis begins before birth in humans, whereas oogenesis does not start until the onset of puberty.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

One of the major differences between the sexual responses of men and women is

A) the increase in blood pressure in men.
B) the increase in heart rate in women.
C) the presence of a refractory period in women.
D) the presence of a refractory period in men after orgasm.
E) the increase in muscle tension in men.

Question 5

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Asexual reproduction involves an inefficient use of resources.
B) Sexually reproducing species are found in relatively constant environments where genetic diversity is relatively unimportant.
C) Because it is produced by meiosis, a bud is genetically distinct from the parent.
D) Only damaged tissues or lost limbs can be replaced by regeneration.
E) In some species, parthenogenesis requires sexual behavior, courtship displays, and mating.

Question 6

What characteristic is shared by the processes of budding and regeneration?

A) Both can lead to the production of a new individual through mitotic growth.
B) Both use meiosis to replace lost tissue.
C) Both can lead to the production of a new individual through meiotic growth.
D) Both serve as a trigger for the sexual phase of reproduction.
E) Both occur only in the apical meristem of plants.

Question 7

During oogenesis in mammals, the second meiotic division occurs

A) in the formation of the primary oocyte.
B) in the formation of the secondary oocyte.
C) before ovulation.
D) after fertilization.
E) after implantation.

Question 8

Which of the following methods of contraception is most likely to fail?

A) Rhythm method
B) Birth control pills
C) Diaphragm
D) Vasectomy
E) Condom

Question 9

Which of the following results in progeny that inherit all the characteristics of a single parent?

A) Copulation
B) Asexual reproduction
C) Gametogenesis
D) Sexual reproduction
E) Fertilization

Question 10

Which of the following statements about asexual reproduction is false?

A) It occurs in some species of fishes, amphibians, and reptiles.
B) Asexually reproducing species tend to live in variable environments.
C) Asexually reproducing species tend to be sessile.
D) Asexually reproducing species tend to live in sparse populations.
E) One method of asexual reproduction is parthenogenesis.

Question 11

In the early 1900s, oyster fishermen cut starfish into pieces and threw them back into the sea to kill predators of the oysters. This practice led to an explosion in the starfish population because

A) other starfish ate the pieces and were able to increase their reproductive output.
B) several pieces from each original starfish regenerated into a new individual.
C) removing competition from the weak starfish that were caught allowed stronger starfish to increase their reproductive output.
D) the oyster population grew in response to this new supply of food, allowing the population of their predators to increase as well.
E) None of the above

Question 12

The major advantage of internal fertilization is that

A) it ensures paternity.
B) it permits the fertilization of many gametes.
C) it reduces the incidence of destructive competitive interactions among the members of a group.
D) it increases the number of sperm having access to each egg.
E) it gives the developing organism a greater degree of protection during the early phases of development.

Question 13

Which of the following statements about asexual reproduction is false?

A) Cell division occurs only by mitosis.
B) Populations can grow until limited by resources.
C) Single individuals can produce offspring.
D) Genetic diversity in a population is generated in changing environments.
E) No energy expenditure is required for mating and fertilization.

Question 14

Animal reproduction without sex

A) occurs by budding.
B) occurs by parthenogenesis.
C) occurs by regeneration.
D) is seen mostly in invertebrates.
E) All of the above

Question 15

Sexual reproduction has an evolutionary advantage over asexual reproduction because it

A) results in both males and females of a species.
B) is a more lengthy process.
C) promotes genetic variability to cope with changes in the environment.
D) is controlled by many hormonal mechanisms.
E) protects and nurtures the embryo.

Question 16

A species in which the individual possesses both male and female reproductive systems is termed

A) dioecious.
B) parthenogenetic.
C) hermaphroditic.
D) monoecious.
E) ovoviviparous.

Question 17

Semen contains all of the following except

A) fructose.
B) mucus.
C) clotting enzymes.
D) substances to lower the pH of the uterine environment.
E) an active clot-dissolving enzyme.

Question 18

Which of the following statements about the ovarian and uterine cycles is false?

A) Falling estrogen and progesterone levels induce menstruation.
B) A sudden rise in LH induces ovulation.
C) Estrogen levels rise in the first half of the ovarian cycle and progesterone levels rise in the second half.
D) If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum secretes hCG.
E) Estrogen is produced by follicle cells

Question 19

The sexual role played by an individual of the parthenogenic whiptail lizard species

A) depends on its testosterone levels.
B) determines whether it will produce sperm.
C) depends on its current stage in the ovarian cycle.
D) determines whether it will fertilize its mate's eggs.
E) is determined at birth.

Question 20

Which statement about human oocytes is true?

A) By birth, the human female infant has produced a lifetime supply of oocytes.
B) At the onset of puberty, ovarian follicles produce new oocytes in response to hormonal stimulation.
C) At the onset of menopause, a woman stops producing oocytes.
D) Oocytes are produced by a woman throughout adolescence.
E) Oocytes produced by a woman are stored in the oviducts.

Question 21

Use the following to answer questions:
Match the cell stages listed below with the description of a cell in each question that follows. Each item may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

-First essential haploid germ cell produced during oogenesis

A) Second polar body
B) Primary oocyte
C) Secondary oocyte
D) First polar body
E) Ootid

Question 22

The parthenogenic whiptail lizard species, Cnemidophorus uniparens, is comprised of all females, yet they need stimulation from a male for ovulation to occur. How then do they reproduce?

A) Females hybridize with males of a related species, but accept only some of the chromosomes in the sperm.
B) Females that are the most fit become males temporarily, produce and transfer sperm to other females, and then revert to being females.
C) The least fit females become males temporarily, produce and transfer sperm to other females, and then revert to being female.
D) Females with high progesterone levels act like males, but they do not produce any sperm.
E) Females with high estrogen levels act like males, but they do not produce any sperm.

Question 23

Use the following to answer questions:
Match the cell states listed below with the description of a cell in each question that follows. Each item may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

-First haploid germ cell produced in spermatogenesis

A) Oogonia
B) Spermatogonia
C) Spermatid
D) Primary spermatocyte
E) Secondary spermatocyte

Question 24

The end result of spermatogenesis is the production of four haploid spermatids. The end result of oogenesis is the production of

A) four haploid ootids.
B) two haploid ootids.
C) one diploid ootid.
D) two diploid ootids.
E) one haploid ootid.

Question 25

Use the following to answer questions:
Match the cell states listed below with the description of a cell in each question that follows. Each item may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

-Initial products of germ cells in the female gonad

A) Oogonia
B) Spermatogonia
C) Spermatid
D) Primary spermatocyte
E) Secondary spermatocyte

Question 26

Use the following to answer questions:
Match the cell states listed below with the description of a cell in each question that follows. Each item may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

-Initial products of germ cells of the male gonad

A) Oogonia
B) Spermatogonia
C) Spermatid
D) Primary spermatocyte
E) Secondary spermatocyte

Question 27

Hermaphrodites are organisms that

A) possess both male and female reproductive systems.
B) breed for a time as one sex and then breed as the other.
C) develop offspring from unfertilized eggs.
D) usually fertilize themselves.
E) have abnormal reproductive organs.

Question 28

Use the following to answer questions:
Match the cell states listed below with the description of a cell in each question that follows. Each item may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

-Cell resulting from the second meiotic division

A) Oogonia
B) Spermatogonia
C) Spermatid
D) Primary spermatocyte
E) Secondary spermatocyte

Question 29

Use the following to answer questions:
Match the cell stages listed below with the description of a cell in each question that follows. Each item may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

-Stage during which the energy, raw materials, and RNA needed for the first cell divisions after fertilization are acquired.

A) Second polar body
B) Primary oocyte
C) Secondary oocyte
D) First polar body
E) Ootid

Question 30

Which of the following statements about blocks to polyspermy in sea urchins is false?

A) Blocks to polyspermy are triggered by fusion of the plasma membranes of the sperm and egg and entry of the sperm into the egg.
B) Blocks to polyspermy prevent more than one sperm from entering an egg.
C) The fast block causes release of the acrosomal enzymes.
D) The fast block results from a change in electric-charge difference across the plasma membrane of the egg.
E) The slow block results from the release of calcium.

Question 31

Unlike spermatogenesis, oogenesis in humans

A) is continuous over the life of the woman.
B) begins prenatally.
C) produces four haploid gametes.
D) occurs at a rapid rate.
E) results in swimming cells.

Question 32

Use the following to answer questions:
Match the cell stages listed below with the description of a cell in each question that follows. Each item may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

-The cell type that differentiates into the mature ovum at the end of oogenesis

A) Second polar body
B) Primary oocyte
C) Secondary oocyte
D) First polar body
E) Ootid

Question 33

Use the following to answer questions:
Match the cell stages listed below with the description of a cell in each question that follows. Each item may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

-Largest haploid cell resulting from second meiotic division of oogenesis

A) Second polar body
B) Primary oocyte
C) Secondary oocyte
D) First polar body
E) Ootid

Question 34

Use the following to answer questions:
Match the cell stages listed below with the description of a cell in each question that follows. Each item may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

-Daughter cell to the secondary oocyte

A) Second polar body
B) Primary oocyte
C) Secondary oocyte
D) First polar body
E) Ootid

Question 35

Reproductive systems involving external fertilization are most common in

A) terrestrial animals.
B) populations with many more males than females.
C) animals that are aquatic.
D) animals that produce few gametes.
E) animals that are widely dispersed.

Question 36

The term "dioecious" refers to

A) patterns of inheritance.
B) circulatory physiology.
C) patterns of cleavage in developing embryos.
D) the evolutionary origin of species.
E) separate male and female reproductive systems.

Question 37

Use the following to answer questions:
Match the cell states listed below with the description of a cell in each question that follows. Each item may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

-The cell type that differentiates into a sperm cell at the end of spermatogenesis

A) Oogonia
B) Spermatogonia
C) Spermatid
D) Primary spermatocyte
E) Secondary spermatocyte

Question 38

In male gametogenesis, the second meiotic division produces four haploid

A) germ cells.
B) primary spermatocytes.
C) secondary spermatocytes.
D) spermatids.
E) spermatogonia.

Question 39

Parthenogenesis, or the development of offspring from unfertilized eggs,

A) is theoretically possible but has never been confirmed in nature
B) occurs only in fish.
C) depends on cyclical hormonal states in whiptail lizards.
D) allows some species to produce only females.
E) Both c and d

Question 40

Use the following to answer questions:
Match the cell states listed below with the description of a cell in each question that follows. Each item may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

-Cell resulting from the initial mitotic division of a spermatogonium

A) Oogonia
B) Spermatogonia
C) Spermatid
D) Primary spermatocyte
E) Secondary spermatocyte

Question 41

Semen, which is the fluid matrix for sperm during emission and ejaculation, contains all of the following except

A) seminal fluid from the seminal vesicles.
B) glucose to serve as an energy source for the sperm.
C) alkaline secretions from the prostate gland.
D) hormonelike substances called prostaglandins.
E) clotting enzymes.

Question 42

In the testis, male sex hormones are produced by the

A) epididymis.
B) Leydig cells.
C) scrotum.
D) seminiferous tubules.
E) vas deferens.

Question 43

Which of the following statements about mammals is false?

A) All mammals have internal fertilization.
B) Some species of mammals are oviparous.
C) The uterine cycles of most mammals do not involve menstruation.
D) Some species of mammals are ovoviviparous.
E) All of the above are true; none is false.

Question 44

If the seminal vesicles in a human male are defective,

A) the man makes functional sperm but he is unable to ejaculate.
B) the man's sperm lack functional flagella.
C) the fluid needed to lubricate the man's urethra for easier sperm travel is defective.
D) the man's semen lacks the fructose fuel needed for the sperm to swim.
E) the man's Leydig cells do not make testosterone needed to stimulate spermatogenesis.

Question 45

Some species of mites and scorpions use indirect fertilization, excreting a gelatinous container of sperm called a(n)

A) spermatophore.
B) spermatogonium.
C) spermatid.
D) cloaca.
E) amplexus.

Question 46

For reproductive purposes, a penis is necessary for

A) all male animals.
B) all organisms except for hermaphrodites.
C) species with external fertilization.
D) species with internal fertilization.
E) species in which courtship precedes mating.

Question 47

Which of the following is the correct order of the structures through which sperm pass from the time they are produced to ejaculation?

A) Vas deferens, seminiferous tubules, epididymis, urethra
B) Epididymis, seminiferous tubules, vas deferens, urethra
C) Seminiferous tubules, vas deferens, epididymis, urethra
D) Seminiferous tubules, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra
E) Vas deferens, urethra, epididymis, seminiferous tubules

Question 48

Which of the following statements about the prostate gland is false?

A) Secretions from the prostate gland are contained in semen.
B) Secretions from the prostate gland make the uterine environment more hospitable to sperm.
C) Secretions from the prostate gland convert semen into a gelatinous mass.
D) The prostate gland surrounds the urethra as it leaves the bladder.
E) All of the above are true; none is false.

Question 49

After spermatogenesis, sperm cells are generally stored in the

A) spermatophore.
B) prostate gland.
C) vas deferens.
D) seminiferous tubule.
E) epididymis.

Question 50

Which of the following is the correct sequence of structures through which a mammalian sperm passes before fertilizing an egg?

A) Uterus, vagina, cervix, oviduct, ovary
B) Vagina, cervix, uterus, oviduct
C) Oviduct, uterus, vagina, ovary, body cavity
D) Vagina, cervix, oviduct, uterus
E) Vagina, uterus, oviduct, body cavity

Question 51

Which of the following anatomical features is shared in most mammals by both the reproductive and excretory systems?

A) Prostate gland
B) Seminiferous tubules
C) Vas deferens
D) Urethra
E) Epididymis

Question 52

Generally, among vertebrates

A) cells are haploid during embryological development and become diploid at birth.
B) cells are diploid during embryological development and become haploid at birth.
C) cells are diploid during adult life and are haploid as a blastocyst.
D) only gametic cells are haploid.
E) only gametic cells are diploid.

Question 53

A human female has the largest number of primary oocytes in her ovaries

A) at birth.
B) just before puberty.
C) early in her fertile years.
D) midway through her fertile years.
E) at menopause.

Question 54

The egg is propelled through the oviduct by means of

A) cilia on its surface.
B) its flagellum.
C) uterine contractions.
D) cilia lining the oviduct.
E) amoeboid motion.

Question 55

If the hypothalamus in a human male does not produce GnRH in normal amounts,

A) he makes functional sperm but is unable to ejaculate.
B) his sperm lack functional flagella.
C) the fluid needed to lubricate his urethra for sperm travel is defective.
D) his semen lacks the fructose fuel needed for the sperm to swim.
E) his Leydig cells do not make the testosterone needed to stimulate spermatogenesis.

Question 56

At birth, a female has about one million primary oocytes in each ovary. During a woman's fertile years, about _______ of these oocytes will mature completely into eggs and be released at ovulation.

A) 100
B) 200
C) 300
D) 450
E) None of the above

Question 57

Which of the following is the most likely advantage of hermaphroditism?

A) For a given species, every organism is a potential mate.
B) As compared to reproduction in dioecious species, simpler behavior patterns are required for mate selection.
C) More rapid reproduction of genetically successful individuals is possible through asexual reproduction as compared to sexual reproduction.
D) Complex hormonal control and feedback mechanisms are not required for reproduction.
E) Both b and c

Question 58

The blastocyst normally implants within the

A) vas deferens.
B) ovarian follicle tissue.
C) endometrium of the uterus.
D) myometrium of the vagina.
E) chorion.

Question 59

Which of the following is the physiological mechanism for erection of the penis in human males?

A) Contraction of skeletal muscle
B) Engorgement of spongy tissue
C) Contraction of smooth muscles
D) Emission of glandular fluid
E) Accumulation of intercellular fluid

Question 60

With a few exceptions, mammals are

A) oviparous.
B) ovoviviparous.
C) viviparous.
D) multiparous.
E) marsupial.

Question 61

Injections of which of the following hormones will induce labor in a pregnant woman?

A) Estrogen
B) Human chorionic gonadotropin
C) Progesterone
D) Oxytocin
E) Prolactin

Question 62

The two pituitary gonadotropins that coordinate female reproductive events are _______ and _______.

A) follicle-stimulating hormone; estrogen
B) estrogen; progesterone
C) follicle-stimulating hormone; progesterone
D) luteinizing hormone; progesterone
E) luteinizing hormone; follicle-stimulating hormone

Question 63

In comparison to females from other mammalian species, the human female

A) has fewer reproductive cycles per year.
B) reabsorbs the uterine lining following the completion of her uterine cycle.
C) must copulate in order to ovulate.
D) can be continuously sexually receptive.
E) has cycles that are under hormonal control.

Question 64

Which birth control method prevents ovulation?

A) Vasectomy
B) Intrauterine device
C) Condom
D) Rhythm method
E) Birth control pill

Question 65

Which of the following is the immediate trigger for ovulation and formation of the corpus luteum?

A) A peak in estrogen
B) A peak in luteinizing hormone
C) A peak in progesterone
D) Presence of sperm in the reproductive tract
E) Readiness of the endometrial lining of the uterus

Question 66

Which of the following represents the four phases of the human sexual response in the correct order?

A) Excitement, refractory, plateau, orgasm
B) Plateau, excitement, orgasm, resolution
C) Plateau, excitement, refractory, orgasm
D) Excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution
E) Excitement, plateau, refractory, orgasm

Question 67

If the egg is not fertilized following ovulation, the follicle cells

A) move with the egg into the oviduct.
B) degenerate.
C) develop into a corpus luteum.
D) stop secreting hormones.
E) begin to develop a new egg.

Question 68

The contragestational pill RU-486 blocks _______ receptors.

A) luteinizing hormone
B) progesterone
C) estrogen
D) follicle-stimulating hormone
E) gonadotropin-releasing hormone

Question 69

Which of the following is the most effective form of birth control?

A) Vasectomy
B) Condom
C) Intrauterine device
D) Rhythm method
E) Birth control pill

Question 70

Spontaneous abortions

A) typically occur late in pregnancy.
B) nearly always follow a pregnancy that has been painful.
C) often occur before the woman even knows she is pregnant.
D) are another name for therapeutic abortions.
E) None of the above

Question 71

New follicles do not mature as long as the corpus luteum is maintained because

A) the hormones released from the corpus luteum inhibit gonadotropin release.
B) the hormones released from the corpus luteum inhibit ovarian secretion.
C) the ovary receives negative feedback from the endometrial lining of the uterus.
D) the ovary receives negative feedback as long as the egg is viable.
E) new follicle development depends upon the hormones released from the corpus luteum.

Question 72

Pregnancy tests detect the presence of

A) luteinizing hormone.
B) follicle-stimulating hormone.
C) human chorionic gonadotropin.
D) estrogen.
E) progesterone.

Question 73

In the early half of the menstrual cycle, before ovulation, the steroid hormone at its highest level in the blood is

A) estrogen.
B) follicle-stimulating hormone.
C) luteinizing hormone.
D) progesterone.
E) testosterone.

Question 74

Which method of contraception also helps prevent the spread of sexually transmitted disease?

A) Diaphragm
B) Cervical cap
C) Condom
D) IUD
E) Birth control pill

Question 75

The hormone that normally triggers mammalian ovulation is

A) progesterone.
B) follicle-stimulating hormone.
C) luteinizing hormone.
D) estrogen.
E) prolactin.

Question 76

Which of the following describes the principal difference between menstrual and estrus cycles?

A) The estrus cycle occurs if the female is fertilized, whereas the menstrual cycle occurs if the female is not fertilized.
B) The menstrual cycle occurs if the female is fertilized, whereas the estrus cycle occurs if the female is not fertilized.
C) The estrus cycle lacks menstruation.
D) The menstrual cycle occurs in mammals, whereas the estrus cycle occurs in birds.
E) Only the menstrual cycle is controlled by estrogen.

Question 77

Which of the following statements about human reproduction is false?

A) Women are most likely to be fertile from day 10 to day 20 of their ovarian cycle.
B) Ovulation can be detected by tracking the woman's body temperature.
C) An ovum remains viable for up to 36 hours after ovulation.
D) Sperm may survive for up to 6 days in the female reproductive tract.
E) All of the above are true; none is false.

Question 78

In the female sexual response, the structure that is most sensitive is the

A) breast.
B) clitoris.
C) labium.
D) uterus.
E) vagina.

Question 79

Most methods of birth control focus on

A) preventing oogenesis.
B) preventing spermatogenesis.
C) preventing fertilization.
D) decreasing libido.
E) decreasing testosterone levels.

Question 80

Progesterone and estrogen are hormones produced by the

A) anterior pituitary.
B) posterior pituitary.
C) Sertoli cells.
D) hypothalamus.
E) corpus luteum.