Deck 16: The Law and Mental Health

Question 1

John Hinkley was famous for ______.

A) trying to assassinate a U.S. president
B) pushing a young woman in front of a subway train
C) stalking and eventually stabbing a fellow college student
D) seducing, assaulting, and killing 17 men

Answer 1

trying to assassinate a U.S. president

Question 2

The two basic conditions of the M'Naghten rule are (1) the presence of a mental disorder and (2) ______.

A) the act was the product of the mental disorder
B) the person was not able to control themselves
C) the lack of comprehension of the wrongfulness of the act at the time of the act
D) the lack of comprehension of the wrongfulness of the act at the time of the trial

Answer 2

the lack of comprehension of the wrongfulness of the act at the time of the act

Question 3

Andrea Yates ______.

A) attempted to assassinate Ronald Reagan
B) drowned her children in a bathtub
C) pushed a young woman in front of a subway train
D) stalked and stabbed a fellow college student

Answer 3

drowned her children in a bathtub

Question 4

The MOST recent legal criteria for determining insanity are specified in the ______.

A) Comprehensive Crime Control Act
B) M'Naghten rule
C) Durham rule
D) volitional test

Question 5

For a person to be able to appreciate the nature of the situation he or she is in and its consequences, he or she must be able to do all of the following EXCEPT ______.

A) remember committing the crime
B) know what a trial is
C) understand in general terms the potential outcomes of a trial in court
D) be aware of what the specific trial could mean for the individual

Question 6

The first step in a trial in which the defendant is believed to be mentally ill is to determine ______.

A) whether or not the defendant has a mental illness
B) if the defendant is competent to stand trial
C) if the defendant is guilty of the crime
D) if recidivism is likely

Question 7

Which choice is the BEST estimate of how often the insanity defense is used in our legal system?

A) less than 1% of the time
B) about 5% of the time
C) almost 10% of the time
D) just over 15% of the time

Question 8

The current criteria for the insanity defense in the United States are in part a response to the attempted assassination of the President in ______.

A) 1963
B) 1975
C) 1981
D) 1997

Question 9

The Durham rule was based on a case that occurred in ______.

A) England
B) New Hampshire
C) Louisiana
D) France

Question 10

Shelvin is found not guilty by reason of insanity. He will ______.

A) be released without parole
B) be released with parole
C) face a predetermined confinement in an institution
D) face an indeterminate confinement in an institution

Question 11

The legal term for mental illness is ______.

A) psychopathology
B) insanity
C) mental disorder
D) grave disability

Question 12

As compared to the usual guilty verdict, the verdict of guilty but mentally ill ______.

A) precludes incarceration
B) specifies shorter sentences
C) specifies longer sentences
D) specifies mandatory treatment

Question 13

Which type of information is NOT considered when determining whether a person is competent to stand trial?

A) information from tests similar to those used for evaluating neurocognitive disorders
B) family mental health history
C) medical history
D) interviews with the person's family and friends

Question 14

The factors that are used to determine whether or not a person is competent to make a decision about his or her own treatment prior to standing trial do NOT include an evaluation of the individual's ability to ______.

A) communicate a choice
B) understand relevant information
C) appreciate the nature of the situation and its consequences
D) afford other types of treatment

Question 15

Based on the textbook's discussion, the insanity defense is probably LEAST likely to be used by an individual diagnosed with ______.

A) major depressive disorder
B) bipolar disorder.
C) substance use disorder
D) schizophrenia

Question 16

An individual who believes that the members of a political party are conspiring against him is experiencing a(n) ______.

A) illusion
B) obsession.
C) hallucination
D) delusion

Question 17

By the ______, a person may be found not guilty by reason of insanity if they cannot control themselves, even if they know the difference between right and wrong.

A) M'Naghten rule
B) Durham rule
C) Comprehensive Crime Control Act
D) volitional test

Question 18

Daniel M'Naghten was a _____-schizophrenic experiencing delusions of ______.

A) catatonic; grandeur
B) catatonic; persecution
C) paranoid; grandeur
D) paranoid; persecution

Question 19

Over the past 75 years, the criteria for the insanity defense have ______.

A) remained constant
B) fluctuated wildly
C) become more stringent
D) become less stringent

Question 20

By some insanity test criteria, an individual could be found not guilty by reason of insanity even if he or she knew he or she was committing a crime at the time he or she committed it. This is a shortcoming of ______.

A) the product test but not the volitional test
B) the volitional test but the product test
C) both the product and the volitional tests
D) neither the product test nor the volitional test

Question 21

By the principle of informed consent, the client does NOT have a right to know ______.

A) what will take place in the therapy session
B) whether the therapist has a mental health disorder.
C) what they will be expected to do in therapy
D) the potential outcomes of therapy

Question 22

In session, a client tells a therapist that he has been thinking about killing his exgirlfriend. The therapist can take all of the following steps to ensure the exgirlfriend's safety according to the Tarasoff II decision EXCEPT ______.

A) warning the intended victim
B) notifying the police
C) restraining the client until the police arrive
D) taking whatever steps reasonably necessary under the circumstances

Question 23

Therapists MUST consider emergency commitment for ______ clients.

A) addicted
B) abused
C) sexually violent
D) suicidal

Question 24

A court can compel a therapist to reveal what was discussed in therapy ______.

A) in a murder trial
B) in a divorce trial
C) if a client wants the therapist to reveal the information
D) if the judge deems the information is necessary

Question 25

The ______ states that therapists have a duty to protect individuals whom they believe their patients may harm.

A) Tarasoff decision
B) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
C) American Law Institute criterion
D) Comprehensive Crime Control Act

Question 26

The exception to confidentiality that requires health care professionals to report firsthand knowledge of child abuse or neglect is known as ______.

A) the duty to protect
B) the duty to warn
C) mandated reporting
D) psychiatric advance directives

Question 27

Rick is a recovering addict. He has been clean for many years and traces his success to his participation in the nation's very first drug court program, initiated in ______ in the year ______.

A) Indianapolis; 1989
B) Indianapolis; 1993
C) Minneapolis; 1989
D) Minneapolis; 1993

Question 28

The legal term for confidentiality is ______.

A) privacy
B) protected information
C) privileged communication
D) accountability

Question 29

The ______ made it mandatory for therapists to warn anyone who might be in foreseeable danger as result of their clients' conditions.

A) Tarasoff I decision
B) Tarasoff II decision
C) Comprehensive Crime Control Act
D) American Law Institute criterion

Question 30

The duty to protect overrides the ethical principle of ______ in professional therapist-client relationships?

A) informed consent
B) beneficence
C) confidentiality
D) competence

Question 31

The Tarasoff II decision made it mandatory for therapists to ______.

A) warn persons who are threatened by their clients
B) notify the police when their patients are a harm to themselves
C) use reasonable care to protect persons who are threatened by their clients
D) notify the police when their patients are a harm to others

Question 32

The first action a mental health professional should take when he or she believes the client is a risk to himself or herself is to ______.

A) involve the courts to compel the client to be admitted to a mental health facility
B) encourage the client to voluntarily place him or herself in a mental health facility
C) involve the police to compel the client to be admitted to a mental health facility
D) encourage the client to start medication immediately

Question 33

By the principle of ______, the client has the right to know what will take place in the therapy sessions and what sort of relationship with the therapist the treatment will entail.

A) informed consent
B) confidentiality
C) privileged communication
D) reasonable care

Question 34

Individuals with mental health problems are often sent to jail, released, and reappeared in court for repeat offenses. This is referred to as the ______ phenomenon.

A) turnaround
B) recidivism
C) revolving door
D) mental health

Question 35

______ is the principle that the health care professionals cannot discuss information learned in a therapy session in any other context.

A) Informed consent
B) Confidentiality
C) Privileged communication
D) Duty to warn

Question 36

Confidentiality and informed consent should be discussed with the client ______.

A) before services are rendered
B) when a client discloses information that falls under mandated reporting
C) when a client discloses information that suggests they might harm someone else
D) at the end of therapy

Question 37

In a landmark 1972 decision known as ______, a federal court ruled that mentally ill individuals needed to display both a need for treatment and a danger to self or others to be committed.

A) Kansas v. Hendricks
B) Lessard v. Schmidt
C) Roper v. Simpson
D) Jackson v. Hobbs

Question 38

Mental health and drug courts use all of the following to motivate mentally ill and addicted offenders to engage in treatment EXCEPT ______.

A) rewards such as gift cards
B) forced treatment
C) sanctions such as more frequent meetings with court officials
D) the threat of potential incarceration

Question 39

Parens patriae is a legal principal that holds that rulers have the authority to ______.

A) ensure public health
B) ensure public safety and welfare
C) care for those who cannot care for themselves
D) compel treatment for those who need it

Question 40

______ is NOT one of the legal and ethical protections provided to those seeking treatment for psychological disorders.

A) Informed consent
B) Confidentiality
C) Reasonable care
D) The protection of healthcare records

Question 41

Which is NOT a piece of legislation that provides protection for the public against sexual offenders?

A) Jeffrey Dahmer Act
B) Jacob Wetterling Act
C) Adam Walsh Act
D) Megan's Law

Question 42

The text suggests that the legal system holds adolescents less responsible for their actions than it does adults because the adolescent brain is different than an adult's. As compared to adult brains, adolescent brains are deficient in ______ because the ______ has yet to mature.

A) emotional processing; limbic system
B) emotional processing; prefrontal cortex
C) executive control; limbic system
D) executive control; prefrontal cortex

Question 43

Allie receives a postcard in the mail identifying a registered sexual offender who lives in the next block. This postcard reflects a policy established by ______.

A) the Comprehensive Crime Control Act
B) the Jacob Wetterling Act
C) the Adam Walsh Act
D) Megan's Law

Question 44

The field of study that involves using neuroscience to arrive at answers to legal questions is referred to as ______.

A) bioforensics
B) forensic biology
C) neuroforensics
D) forensic neuroscience

Question 45

Which high-profile individual is infamous for sexual crimes?

A) John Hinckley
B) Andrew Goldstein
C) Andrea Yates
D) Jeffrey Dahmer

Question 46

Dr. Shah uses diffusion tensor imaging to map connections between the fusiform face area and other parts of the brain. She then uses this data to understand the limitations on eyewitnesses' performance when they try to identify a perpetrator in a lineup. Dr. Shah is BEST described as a ______.

A) bioforensic specialist
B) forensic neuroscientist
C) forensic biologist
D) neuroforensic specialist

Question 47

Insanity is a psychological term.

Question 48

Which statement is NOT among the arguments made by the American Psychological Association against sexually violent predator statutes?

A) These laws represent a form or preventative detention.
B) These laws do not allow a person to have due process.
C) These laws may invalidate earlier plea bargains by which a person was sentenced.
D) These laws unfairly mandate treatment for individuals who may not need it.

Question 49

______ refers to the imprisonment of an individual imprisoned for a crime he or she has yet to commit.

A) Unnecessary imprisonment
B) Preventative detention
C) Illegal jailing
D) Premature imprisonment

Question 50

The textbook mentions that Charles Whitman, the 1966 University of Texas gunman, had a tumor pressing on his amygdala. This tumor would MOST likely have an impact on Whitman's ______.

A) memory
B) basic sensory processing
C) emotions and impulses
D) coordinated movement

Question 51

______ statutes allow for the ongoing civil commitment of individuals who have committed sexual crimes and who are believed to pose a continued threat if they are released.

A) Sexually violent predator
B) Sexual crime prevention
C) Detention of sexual criminals
D) Detention of sexual deviancy

Question 52

The Patient Self-Determination Act of 1991 is a set of federal requirements intended to implement advanced directive policies at ______.

A) all health care facilities that receive federal funding
B) all inpatient psychiatric hospitals
C) all health care facilities that receive state funding
D) all outpatient psychiatric hospitals

Question 53

With respect to criteria for the insanity defense, the 1962 American Law Institute (ALI) rule is based on an expansion of the Durham rule.

Question 54

A defendant under the age of 18 can receive the death penalty for a crime in ______ states.

A) no
B) some
C) most
D) all

Question 55

It is ______ to use brain imaging techniques to predict whether a given individual will commit a crime.

A) impossible
B) extremely difficult
C) quite challenging
D) rather straightforward

Question 56

Individuals found not guilty by reason of insanity serve as much or more time in an institution than those who are found guilty of the crime.

Question 57

Research on the effectiveness of laws aimed at making the identities of known sexual predators public show that these laws ______.

A) reduce all sexual crimes in the community
B) reduce sexual crimes in those who know the sexual predator personally
C) reduce sexual crimes in those who do not know the sexual predator personally
D) deter sexual predators from repeat offenses

Question 58

Andrea Yates was eventually found guilty but mentally ill by the courts.

Question 59

One argument against sexually violent predator statutes is that such laws ______.

A) provide sexual predators too many rights
B) take away the rights of victims of sexual predators
C) represent a form of preventative detention
D) unfairly mandate treatment for individuals who may not need it

Question 60

Individuals with ______ personality disorder are MORE likely to commit crimes than are other people.

A) paranoid
B) antisocial
C) dependent
D) histrionic

Question 61

Contrast the consequences of these two verdicts: (a) not guilty by reason of insanity and (b) guilty but mentally ill.

Question 62

______ is the legal term for mental illness.

Question 63

A witness's memory for a crime can be manipulated by subsequent questioning by police officers and lawyers

Question 64

Privileged communication is a legal term for ______.

Question 65

An individual who has committed a sexual crime may be held after his or her sentence has been committed if he or she is believed to pose a continued threat to public safety.

Question 66

Outline the four factors that have been used for determining an individual's decision-making competence when his or her ability to consent to mental health treatment is being evaluated.

Question 67

The insanity defense is used approximately ______% of the time in our criminal justice system.

Question 68

Individuals with mental health problems are often sent to jail, released, and reappeared in court for repeat offenses. This is referred to as the ______ phenomenon.

Question 69

Also called sexually dangerous person statutes, ______ laws allow for an individual who committed a sexual crime to be held after his or her sentence has been completed.

Question 70

Confidentially is legally required for those who are legally licensed to practice psychotherapy.

Question 71

In a field called ______, professionals use neuroscience to answer legal questions.

Question 72

The Tarasoff decisions mandate mental health professionals to report information about child abuse or neglect to the appropriate state agency.

Question 73

Since the 1970s, legislation has strengthened the principle of parens patriae.

Question 74

Forensic neuroscience is to categorical answer as legal system is to probabilistic answer.

Question 75

The notion that the state has the authority to care for those who cannot care for themselves is enshrined in the principle of ______.

Question 76

One of the main differences between mental health courts and drug courts is that mental health courts focus on recovery whereas drug courts focus on abstinence.

Question 77

Although brain research cannot tell us whether a specific individual will commit a crime, it can suggest which groups of people may be more likely to commit crimes. One such group is people with ______ personality disorder.

Question 78

Create a timeline illustrating the evolution of the legal criteria for the insanity defense in the American legal system. Be sure to note how the criteria have fluctuated between becoming broader and becoming more restrictive over time. Suggest some of the difficulties inherent in applying the criteria for the insanity defense.

Question 79

The ______ decision determined that therapists have a duty to protect individuals who they believe their patients may harm.

Question 80

Adolescents can receive a sentence of life without parole.