Deck 3: Prenatal Development and Birth

Question 1

The teratogen that affects mainly the development of the heart, eyes, and brain is

A) rubella.
B) thalidomide.
C) amphetamine.
D) quinine.

Answer 1

rubella.

Question 2

The major accomplishment of the fetal period is that

A) the blood vessels that will become the heart begin to pulsate.
B) the fetus becomes capable of movement.
C) the facial features become delineated.
D) the brain and central nervous system develop at a rapid pace.

Answer 2

the brain and central nervous system develop at a rapid pace.

Question 3

The semipermeable membranes that separate maternal and child bloodstreams are located in the

A) amniotic sac.
B) amniotic fluid.
C) placenta.
D) umbilical cord.

Answer 3

placenta.

Question 4

The period of the zygote in prenatal development ends

A) when the fertilized ovum becomes implanted in the uterine wall.
B) when bone development begins.
C) when the neural tube fuses.
D) with birth.

Question 5

Proximal-distal development is human growth

A) from central areas, such as internal organs, to more distant areas, like arms and legs.
B) from the area of the head downward, to the trunk and legs.
C) from the area of the feet upward, to the head.
D) from the area of the hands inward, to the internal organs.

Question 6

The age of viability is considered to be

A) 18-22 weeks.
B) 22-26 weeks.
C) 27-32 weeks.
D) 33-36 weeks.

Question 7

The period during prenatal development in which the developing organism is most susceptible or vulnerable to environmental intrusions is the period of the

A) ovum.
B) zygote.
C) embryo.
D) fetus.

Question 8

By the end of the period of the embryo,

A) the embryo is recognizable as a tiny human being.
B) the embryo is just beginning a state of rapid growth.
C) muscular development is rapid.
D) reflexes such as sucking, swallowing, and hiccupping usually appear.

Question 9

In the period of the embryo, the inner mass of the zygote differentiates into three layers known as

A) ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm.
B) placenta, amnion, and chorion.
C) blastocyst, trophoblast, and zygote.
D) skin, muscle, and bone.

Question 10

Your sister has just had a spontaneous abortion, or miscarriage. This was most likely to occur at what stage of prenatal development?

A) Period of the ovum
B) Germinal period
C) Period of the embryo
D) Period of the fetus

Question 11

The longest period of pregnancy is the

A) embryonic period.
B) fetal period.
C) zygotic period.
D) germinal period.

Question 12

Cephalocaudal development is human growth

A) from central areas, such as internal organs, to more distant areas, like arms and legs.
B) from the area of the head downward, to the trunk and legs.
C) from the area of the feet upward, to the head.
D) from the area of the hands inward, to the internal organs.

Question 13

Which of the following principles does NOT accurately describe the effects of teratogens on prenatal development?

A) Individual teratogens influence specific developmental processes.
B) Maternal genotypes can affect the developing organism's response to teratogens.
C) Physiological status of the mother will influence the action of a teratogen.
D) Teratogenic agents will produce a detrimental effect on the mother.

Question 14

The amniotic sac, the placenta, and the umbilical cord develop during

A) the germinal period.
B) the period of the embryo.
C) the fetal period.
D) labor.

Question 15

Which of the following does not occur during the course of prenatal development?

A) Systems and structures increase in size and complexity.
B) The growing organism is protected by the amnion and placenta.
C) Structures gradually disappear (a tail, for example).
D) The embryo is safe from environmental hazards.

Question 16

Prenatal development is divided into three distinct but continuous periods. In the correct developmental order following conception, these periods are

A) ovum, zygote, and fetus.
B) zygote, fetus, and ovum.
C) germinal, embryo, and zygote.
D) zygote, embryo, and fetus.

Question 17

The harmful effects of teratogens on the developing fetus are least likely to occur

A) before implantation.
B) during implantation.
C) during days 15 to 25.
D) during days 20 to 40.

Question 18

Maternal reports of movement, or "quickening," during pregnancy usually happen by about

A) 10 weeks.
B) 16 weeks.
C) 24 weeks.
D) 30 weeks.

Question 19

Ectoderm is to hair, nails, and sensory cells as mesoderm is to

A) skin glands.
B) circulatory systems.
C) bronchia and lungs.
D) nervous system.

Question 20

The premature infant's inability to produce the liquid "surfactant" often results in

A) respiratory distress syndrome.
B) premature delivery.
C) damage to the infant's cornea.
D) damage to the infant's intestines.

Question 21

Research on effects of mothers' sedation during labor/delivery has shown

A) very clearly that sedatives are harmful to the newborn.
B) long-term effects (two months or more) in attention and motor abilities of children whose mothers were heavily sedated during the birth.
C) the effects may interfere with newborn attention for up to one month.
D) even very low levels of medication have deleterious effects on the newborn.

Question 22

Children born with fetal alcohol syndrome tend to exhibit

A) abnormal behaviors, such as excessive irritability, hyperactivity, and distractibility.
B) chromosomal breakages.
C) withdrawal from social interaction.
D) respiratory distress.

Question 23

Which statement best describes our current understanding of this issue of drug ingestion during pregnancy?

A) As long as prescription drugs are taken in very low doses, no harmful effects will occur.
B) As long as the only drugs used are prescription drugs, there will be no adverse effects to the fetus.
C) Any over-the-counter drugs are safe for pregnant women and their developing fetuses.
D) Even if a drug is prescribed or sold over the counter, it may not be safe to use during pregnancy.

Question 24

Fetal damage attributed to alcohol consumption appears to be greatest during

A) the first trimester.
B) the second trimester.
C) the third trimester.
D) all trimesters equally.

Question 25

are now thought to be attributed to

A) immaturity or deterioration of the reproductive system.
B) the general health of the mother.
C) the rare blood type 0.
D) the general support available to the mother.

Question 26

If you are an African American pregnant woman, what is the most likely reason that you do not get prenatal care?

A) Not enough social support
B) Difficulties finding a doctor
C) Problems scheduling and keeping appointments
D) Inadequate transportation

Question 27

The link between thalidomide ingestion and birth defects

A) was easily traced because pregnant mothers had obvious violent reactions to the sedative.
B) was difficult to establish because many pregnant mothers had no obvious side effects or reactions to the sedative.
C) was obvious before the children were born but not able to be rectified.
D) had been established in previous research to have been harmful to animals.

Question 28

Phocomelia is associated with

A) thalidomide exposure.
B) cocaine exposure.
C) rubella.
D) caffeine consumption.

Question 29

If you are a pregnant teenage mother, what should be your biggest concern in order to give birth to a healthy baby?

A) Childbirth classes
B) Parenting
C) Your health
D) Finishing high school

Question 30

Research on offspring of women who took DES during pregnancy found harmful effects

A) only in daughters.
B) only in sons.
C) in both daughters and sons.
D) in all offspring, but the effects are outgrown by puberty.

Question 31

According to the dose-response principle,

A) the higher the dose, the more severe the damage will be to the developing fetus.
B) the lower the dose, the more severe the damage will be to the developing fetus.
C) particular drugs will cause damage to a developing fetus regardless of the amount of the dosage.
D) the higher the dose, the more the mother's functioning is impaired, which impacts the ways in which she cares for herself during pregnancy.

Question 32

Which teratogens are associated with changes in maternal physiology that lead to oxygen deprivation and structural and functional changes in the brain of the fetus?

A) Smoking and drinking
B) Caffeine and aspirin
C) Nicotine and heroin
D) Rubella and herpes

Question 33

Heavy use of ______ has been found to increase the risk of miscarriage.

A) aspirin
B) diet pills
C) caffeine
D) sugar substitutes

Question 34

Research on alcohol ingestion by pregnant women has shown that

A) mothers who were only social drinkers had babies who, for the most part, were unaffected by the alcohol consumption.
B) when mothers were given one ounce of vodka during their last trimester of pregnancy, no ill effects were seen in their fetus.
C) when pregnant mothers who were heavy drinkers ceased drinking during pregnancy, their babies tended to be longer and heavier at birth than mothers who continued drinking through their pregnancy.
D) infants whose mothers used both alcohol and tobacco during pregnancy were not found to be different in growth deficiencies than infants whose mothers had used only one or the other.

Question 35

Studies have shown that mothers who are chronic smokers tend to

A) have premature infants, but they tend to be of average weight.
B) have premature infants more often than non-smoking mothers.
C) be more likely to have full-term infants than non-smoking mothers.
D) have babies with chromosomal breakages.

Question 36

Working as a nurse in the neonatal ward, you notice that the newborns exposed to cocaine in utero exhibit

A) aversive reactions to their mothers.
B) high-pitched crying and elevated blood pressure.
C) prolonged periods of sweating.
D) abnormalities of the fingers and toes.

Question 37

Mental retardation in children with fetal alcohol syndrome may be due to

A) chromosomal damage.
B) periods where breathing movements cease in the fetus.
C) ingestion of alcohol by the father.
D) a degeneration in the quality of brain tissue.

Question 38

Your sister is pregnant and working in a smoking environment. You urge her to quit her job because

A) secondary smoke can contribute to hyperactivity in childhood.
B) secondary smoke can contribute to low birth weight.
C) she may be tempted to start smoking.
D) her baby's lungs may not develop adequate surfactant.

Question 39

Which of the following issues regarding infants born to mothers who are drug users is INCORRECT?

A) Infants may exhibit symptoms that can disrupt parenting.
B) Drug-using mothers may have their own problems to deal with.
C) Drug exposure may have long-term adverse effects on development.
D) Infants who survive prenatal drug exposure show no long-term ill effects.

Question 40

You counsel addicted teenagers on the hazards of drug use, and at times you counsel expectant mothers. You warn them that if they use drugs during pregnancy, the health of their baby is related to

A) how they ingest the drugs.
B) the duration and amount of drugs they abuse.
C) whether they used drugs before they became pregnant.
D) the age at which they began using drugs.

Question 41

As an obstetrician, you sometimes encounter maternal syphilis. You advise your patients that treatment is most successful when administered

A) after the age of viability.
B) after the fetus has reached 5 pounds.
C) prior to 18 weeks gestation.
D) a week before birth.

Question 42

The presence of a supportive father during the delivery

A) reduces incidences of labor and delivery problems.
B) increases the amount of medication needed.
C) promotes closeness of fathers to infants.
D) increases marital stress during the postnatal period.

Question 43

The actual birth of the baby occurs during which stage of labor?

A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Final

Question 44

One of the best ways for the United States to improve prenatal care is to

A) make prenatal services more available.
B) adopt national health-care standards.
C) provide low-cost prenatal care.
D) All of these

Question 45

As an expectant father, you are looking forward to your baby's birth. Your wife's blood type is O- and yours is A+. What prenatal condition is associated with incompatible blood types?

A) Rh factor incompatibility
B) PKU
C) Anemia
D) Hemophilia

Question 46

The chance that an untreated pregnant woman infected with AIDS will transmit the disease to her baby is

A) 25%.
B) 50%.
C) 75%.
D) 100%.

Question 47

As part of your medical internship, you are responsible for educating pregnant women with AIDS. You tell them that they can reduce the risk of transmission to their unborn child by

A) continuing with their prescription drug therapy.
B) discontinuing their intravenous drug use.
C) obtaining a complete blood transfusion.
D) remaining in the hospital during their pregnancy.

Question 48

The first stage of labor

A) tends to last about two hours for firstborn children.
B) involves expulsion of the placenta.
C) tends to last the longest of the three stages.
D) is characterized by the child descending through the birth canal.

Question 49

Which one of the following is NOT true of children with AIDS?

A) The majority of children infected are African.
B) The average age of diagnosis is at birth.
C) AIDS can be transmitted by breast milk.
D) The vast majority of children with AIDS were infected by their mothers.

Question 50

If you are a pregnant woman in Belgium, what can you expect in terms of prenatal care?

A) low-cost prenatal care and unpaid maternity leave from work
B) a decline in prenatal care due to a poor national economy
C) an absence of national health-care standards, resulting in high infant mortality
D) low-cost prenatal care and paid maternity leave from work

Question 51

Which ethnicities tend to begin childbearing earlier and to end it later and to have poorer diets and poorer prenatal and delivery care?

A) European American and Asian American
B) African American and Latino
C) Asian American and African American
D) European American and Latino

Question 52

If you were pregnant and contracted the mumps, during which trimester would your unborn child be most affected?

A) First trimester
B) Second trimester
C) Third trimester
D) Mumps has no effect on the unborn child.

Question 53

Which maternal disease/disorder has NOT been found to affect prenatal development?

A) Diabetes
B) High blood pressure
C) AIDS
D) The common cold

Question 54

Pregnant women least likely to get prenatal care are those who

A) are over age 35.
B) are at risk for complications.
C) deny that they are pregnant.
D) are pregnant for the first time.

Question 55

During your pregnancy, you experienced marital problems when your spouse became unemployed. You are concerned that you may experience

A) toxemia.
B) increased chance of neonatal abnormalities.
C) prolonged labor and complications.
D) decreased levels of hormones needed to breastfeed.

Question 56

You are pregnant and living in poverty, unable to provide yourself with adequate nourishment. What may happen to your unborn baby while you are pregnant?

A) Microencephaly
B) Hormonal abnormalities
C) Limb abnormalities
D) Miscarriage and prematurity

Question 57

The effects of malnutrition appear greatest on

A) maternal development.
B) social, cognitive, and motor development.
C) emotional development.
D) intellectual development.

Question 58

Your cousin is a nurse in labor and delivery at a local hospital. During a discussion concerning maternal diseases, your cousin informs you that in order to reduce the risk of pregnant women transmitting genital herpes to their newborns,

A) they are given antibiotics during labor.
B) their babies are given antibiotics after birth.
C) their labor is induced prematurely.
D) their babies are delivered by cesarean section.

Question 59

The birth of later-born children in comparison to firstborn children is

A) longer.
B) more intense.
C) less emotional.
D) shorter.

Question 60

Which one of the following factors is NOT associated with marked impairment of intellectual development in children associated with prenatal malnutrition?

A) Mother has a history of dietary deprivation.
B) Malnutrition has been severe and long lasting.
C) A previously well-nourished mother goes through a temporary period of malnourishment.
D) The postnatal environment is characterized by adverse nutritional, social, and economic factors.

Question 61

The rate of cesarean deliveries has been

A) decreasing because of recent trends toward natural childbirth through the past three to four decades.
B) increasing through the past three to four decades.
C) decreasing due to better prenatal preparation and education.
D) unchanged during the past three to four decades.

Question 62

Your neighbors recently gave birth to a premature baby. When you first saw their baby in the hospital, you also noticed that their baby was

A) crying more often than other newborns.
B) of low birthweight.
C) being monitored for irregular heart rate.
D) born at 38 weeks gestational age.

Question 63

The most consistent long-term effects of stress associated with raising a premature baby have been found

A) between parents.
B) between mother and child.
C) between father and child.
D) among siblings.

Question 64

Preterm babies

A) are born when they have completed the normal, or full-term, gestational period.
B) have an appropriate weight for the amount of time spent in utero.
C) may be born close to their due date.
D) do not have an appropriate weight for the amount of time spent in utero.

Question 65

Which of the following is NOT true about home deliveries?

A) Between 15 and 25% of women who begin labor at home are subsequently moved to a hospital because of birth complications.
B) Rates of home deliveries have steadily increased since the 1970s.
C) Mothers who deliver at home are trying new methods of childbirth never seen before.
D) In home delivery, the risk of problems with medications is lower than in medically assisted births.

Question 66

Today's advancing medical technologies have made it possible for

A) fewer babies to be born prematurely.
B) preterm babies to totally overcome long-term developmental problems.
C) babies to be born without mental retardation.
D) more preterm babies to survive but still be at risk for developmental problems.

Question 67

Contact between a mother and her premature infant during the first few hours of life

A) is crucial to the development of a healthy attachment relationship.
B) appears to be most beneficial to the building of maternal self-confidence, which can lead to more sensitive parenting.
C) has been found to be extremely beneficial for the father/mother relationship.
D) when missed, has been found to have long-term effects on the cognitive development of the child.

Question 68

Which function is NOT assessed by the Apgar?

A) Respiratory effort
B) Body color of the infant
C) Vision
D) Heart rate

Question 69

Birth factors that have been found to be related to developmental deviations include all of the following EXCEPT

A) anoxia.
B) premature birth.
C) low birthweight.
D) prenatal diet.

Question 70

Which of the following has been shown to be an effective form of stimulation for premature infants?

A) Providing tape-recorded heartbeats
B) Providing limited access to parents
C) Increased lighting
D) Exposure to other premature infants

Question 71

When are Apgar ratings generally performed?

A) Immediately after birth
B) At 1 and 5 minutes after birth
C) At 5 and 10 minutes after birth
D) Immediately after birth and just before hospital discharge

Question 72

Of the following Apgar scores, which would be the most favorable?

A) 1 or 2
B) 3 or 4
C) 6 or 7
D) 8 or 9

Question 73

As a parent of a premature infant, you have been taught techniques for stimulating your baby. As a result, your baby is less likely to suffer from

A) hearing problems.
B) allergies to formula.
C) apnea.
D) visual problems.

Question 74

One advantage of a cesarean birth may be that

A) fathers may become more involved with their infants while mothers recover.
B) there is less risk of infection and the longer hospital stay is beneficial to the mother.
C) although babies tend to be less responsive and wakeful, studies suggest there may be an advantage to neurological and cognitive development.
D) there really are no advantages to having a child by cesarean section.

Question 75

An Apgar score of 2 indicates

A) a favorable condition.
B) a stable, satisfactory condition.
C) the age of the baby in minutes.
D) possible developmental difficulties.

Question 76

The interpretation of results from studies concerning preterm birth

A) is easy because establishing prematurity is fairly straightforward.
B) is difficult because there is frequent confounding by postnatal environmental factors.
C) changes depending on the current definition of prematurity.
D) had been made difficult due to the impact of technology on such research.

Question 77

Apnea is

A) temporary cessation of breathing.
B) oxygen deprivation.
C) increased heart rate.
D) decreased heart rate.

Question 78

with premature infants showed that

A) very young premature infants clearly preferred the stimulation of the breathing bear to the nonbreathing bear.
B) very young premature babies were over-stimulated by the breathing bear and therefore preferred the nonbreathing bear.
C) very young premature babies who slept with the breathing bear had difficulties adjusting their breathing rhythm to the bear's rhythm.
D) very young premature babies who slept with the breathing bear had difficulty sleeping while the bear was breathing.

Question 79

Very low birthweight is considered to be less than

A) 1.5 pounds.
B) 2.5 pounds.
C) 3.3 pounds.
D) 4.5 pounds.

Question 80

Providing some stimulation for premature infants appears to

A) be beneficial for neurological development, sensory-motor and motor skills development, and exploratory behavior of the child.
B) be detrimental since it causes such infants to over-stimulate and inhibit self-control.
C) have no effects when compared to non-stimulated preterm infants.
D) be more beneficial for parents since it allows them to be active in their infant's treatment.