Deck 18: Aids and Other Immune Disorders

Question 1

When mast cells degranulate and release histamine, which of the following events may occur?

A) constriction of small blood vessels
B) bronchial spasms
C) increased mucus production
D) constriction of small blood vessels and bronchial spasms
E) bronchial spasms and increased mucus production

Answer 1

E

Question 2

Which of the following bind the constant region of IgE?

A) eosinophils
B) mast cells
C) monocytes
D) mast cells and monocytes
E) eosinophils and mast cells

Answer 2

E

Question 3

Which of the following is a connective tissue cell which produces leukotrienes and prostaglandins?

A) neutrophil
B) basophil
C) eosinophil
D) lymphocyte
E) mast cell

Answer 3

E

Question 4

Which of the following substances released during a type I hypersensitivity reaction stimulates the release of eosinophils from the bone marrow?

A) peptides
B) prostaglandins
C) leukotrienes
D) histamine
E) proteases

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT considered a hypersensitivity reaction?

A) a rash caused by poison ivy
B) immune system attack on the thyroid gland
C) itchy eyes and a runny nose in a dusty environment
D) dermatitis at the site of a metal watchband
E) breaking into hives after eating strawberries

Question 6

Which of the following immunoglobulins is produced by plasma cells in response to an allergen?

A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM

Question 7

How can type I allergic reactions be diagnosed?

A) by encouraging the patient to visit rural areas during pollen season
B) by injecting very small quantities of dilute solutions of suspected allergens under the skin
C) by mixing antigens and antibodies with red blood cells
D) by injecting a protein solution from Mycobacterium tuberculosis under the skin
E) by taking a biopsy from the kidney to detect the deposition of immune complexes

Question 8

Which of the following statements concerning the Rh factor is FALSE?

A) It is an antibody found in humans and rhesus monkeys.
B) It is present on the surface of the red blood cells of 85% of humans.
C) Preexisting antibodies do not occur.
D) Rh antibodies are less abundant than the ABO antibodies.
E) 85% of the population is Rh negative.

Question 9

Which antibody can cross the placenta and cause hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM

Question 10

Which of the following causes graft-versus-host disease?

A) bone marrow transplant
B) kidney transplant
C) skin transplant from one location in the body to another or from one identical twin to another
D) cornea transplant
E) an Rh-positive fetus in the uterus of an Rh-positive mother

Question 11

An accident victim receives a blood transfusion. Shortly thereafter, he begins to have difficulty breathing, develops a fever, and experiences nausea and vomiting. Which of the following is the most likely interpretation of these events?

A) the blood transfusion was mismatched.
B) the blood transfusion contained pyrogens.
C) the recipient had previously been exposed to the foreign blood group antigens.
D) the blood transfusion was mismatched and contained pyrogens.
E) the blood transfusion was mismatched, and the recipient had previously been exposed to the foreign blood group antigens.

Question 12

Which of the following is an example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A) watery eyes after exposure to animal dander
B) destruction of red blood cells after an incompatible blood transfusion
C) farmer's lung
D) deposition of immune complexes in the glomeruli of the kidneys
E) the tuberculin response

Question 13

If circulating immune complexes are deposited in the glomeruli, the ensuing type III hypersensitivity reaction can result in

A) allergic contact dermatitis.
B) pneumonitis.
C) kidney damage.
D) multiple sclerosis.
E) rheumatoid arthritis.

Question 14

Which of the following allergic reactions is the result of type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity?

A) runny nose triggered by pollen
B) dermatitis in response to latex gloves
C) sensitivity to pet dander
D) skin irritation after wearing wool
E) breathing difficulties after exposure to mold spores

Question 15

The glycoprotein and glycolipid molecules on the surface of red blood cells

A) stimulate the production of antibodies that contribute to the development of a transfusion reaction.
B) act to transport glucose and ions across the cytoplasmic membrane.
C) cause degranulation of the cell when it is exposed to allergens.
D) function as a binding site for IgD.
E) act as receptors for foreign antigens and trigger an early immune response.

Question 16

Grafting skin from one area of the body to another in order to cover a burn is considered

A) a xenograft.
B) an allograft.
C) an isograft.
D) a dermograft.
E) an autograft.

Question 17

An agricultural worker experiences difficulty breathing which becomes progressively worse. Tests show inflammation and damage of the lung tissue, but IgE antibodies and granulocytes are in the normal ranges. With which disorder of the immune system are these signs and symptoms consistent?

A) allergic reaction
B) type III (immune complex-mediated) hypersensitivity
C) type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity
D) autoimmunity
E) acquired immunodeficiency

Question 18

A small amount of antigen is injected under the skin of a patient. After 30 minutes there is no apparent change at the injection site, but 36 hours later the patient reports that the area is red and swollen. This type of response is due to

A) type I hypersensitivity.
B) type II hypersensitivity.
C) type III hypersensitivity.
D) type IV hypersensitivity.
E) immunodeficiency.

Question 19

Which of the following could result in hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A) Rh-negative mother and Rh-negative father
B) Rh-positive mother and Rh-positive father
C) Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative father
D) Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father
E) Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative father or Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father

Question 20

What is the function of the proteases released when mast cells degranulate?

A) destruction of nearby cells and activation of the complement system
B) increased vascular permeability
C) contraction of smooth muscle in the lungs and gastrointestinal tract
D) increased production of tears and saliva
E) stimulation of nerve endings, causing itching and pain

Question 21

Type I diabetes is a(n)

A) autoimmune disease.
B) immunodeficiency disease.
C) immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity disorder.
D) delayed hypersensitivity disorder.
E) immediate hypersensitivity disorder.

Question 22

Which of the following statements concerning rheumatoid arthritis is correct?

A) It occurs in humans and animals.
B) The symptoms are due to damage caused by cytotoxic T cells.
C) There is no genetic influence on the likelihood of developing RA.
D) Accumulations of antibody complexes lead to inflammation and destruction of the joints.
E) The onset of disease is clearly correlated with having been infected with a specific microbe.

Question 23

What is the underlying problem in most acquired immunodeficiencies?

A) declining cell-mediated immunity
B) declining humoral immunity
C) production of autoantibodies
D) eosinophilia
E) anemia

Question 24

Hypotheses explaining the development of autoimmune disease include

A) molecular mimicry.
B) genetic factors.
C) hormonal stimulation of cytotoxic T cells.
D) anaphylactic shock triggered by molecular mimicry.
E) molecular mimicry, genetic factors, and hormonal stimulation of cytotoxic T cells.

Question 25

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura is

A) a drug induced cytotoxic reaction.
B) an autoimmune disease.
C) a delayed hypersensitivity reaction.
D) a cell-mediated immune reaction.
E) a type of immunodeficiency.

Question 26

The disorder known as DiGeorge syndrome is a form of

A) autoimmune disease.
B) immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity.
C) immediate hypersensitivity.
D) immunodeficiency.
E) delayed hypersensitivity.

Question 27

Which of the following would test positive for the tuberculin response?

A) someone who has previously had tuberculosis
B) someone who has been immunized with the tuberculosis vaccine
C) someone who has previously been injected subcutaneously with tuberculin
D) someone who has been immunized with the tuberculosis vaccine or has previously had tuberculosis
E) someone who has been immunized with the tuberculosis vaccine or previously been injected subcutaneously with tuberculin

Question 28

A child has a history of repeated severe infections and frequently has recurring infections with the same bacterial pathogen. A blood sample shows some lymphopenia, and serological tests are negative. Based on this information, which of the following is the best diagnosis for this child?

A) Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia
B) DiGeorge syndrome
C) severe combined immune deficiency (SCID)
D) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
E) hemolytic disease of the newborn

Question 29

A person comes to the clinic complaining of aching joints and muscles, swelling, and a decrease in urine output. The clinician also notes a rash on the skin of the face. A probable diagnosis is

A) pneumonitis.
B) immunodeficiency.
C) systemic lupus erythematosus.
D) dermatitis.
E) Graves' disease.

Question 30

HIV, the virus responsible for AIDS, is a member of what family?

A) Picornaviridae
B) Herpesviridae
C) Poxviridae
D) Retroviridae
E) Rhinoviridae

Question 31

The tuberculin response is mediated by

A) memory T cells.
B) mast cells.
C) B lymphocytes.
D) plasma cells.
E) eosinophils.

Question 32

Which of the following cells is NOT a target for HIV infection?

A) monocytes
B) cytotoxic T lymphocytes
C) helper T lymphocytes
D) dendritic cells
E) microglia

Question 33

If a T cell is exposed to a "hidden" antigen, what kind of immune reaction will result?

A) an autoimmune disease
B) a delayed hypersensitivity reaction
C) a cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
D) allergic contact dermatitis
E) an allergy

Question 34

Treatment with which of the following may result in acquired immunodeficiency?

A) corticosteroids
B) interferon
C) azathioprine
D) antihistamine
E) RhoGAM

Question 35

Primary immunodeficiency diseases

A) develop later in life.
B) are detectable close to birth.
C) may be caused by malnutrition.
D) are never associated with genetic defects.
E) are sometimes caused by severe stress.

Question 36

A young woman comes into the clinic complaining of itchy, red skin and swelling on her arms and legs. She had not been in any parks or wooded areas recently, but she had been shopping. A blood sample reveals elevated levels of granulocytes. What treatment is the physician likely to prescribe at this point?

A) corticosteroids
B) cyclophosphamide
C) interferon
D) methotrexate
E) antihistamines

Question 37

Multiple sclerosis is

A) an autoimmune disease in which cytotoxic T cells attack the myelin sheath of neurons.
B) a genetic birth defect of the nervous system.
C) a type of allergy to myelin.
D) the formation of antibodies against transplanted tissue.
E) the development of neurological disease due to the deposition of immune complexes in nerves.

Question 38

Which of the following statements regarding cyclosporine is FALSE?

A) It is useful in preventing allograft rejection.
B) It is active on resting and activated T cells.
C) It is produced by fungi.
D) It is less toxic than cyclophosphamide.
E) It is sometimes used in combination with steroids.

Question 39

Which condition occurs when antibodies bind to and stimulate receptors that elicit production of thyroid hormone and growth of the thyroid gland?

A) multiple sclerosis
B) Graves' disease
C) DiGeorge syndrome
D) type I diabetes
E) farmer's lung

Question 40

Which of the following statements concerning allografts is correct?

A) They are the best type of transplants because they are not associated with rejection.
B) They induce strong type IV hypersensitivity reactions and must be treated with immunosuppressive drugs.
C) They always require complete destruction of the recipient's bone marrow cells.
D) They are impossible to perform because the antigens between donor and recipient are so different.
E) They are the rarest type of transplants.

Question 41

Normally, complement-activating immune complexes are eliminated from the body by phagocytosis.

Question 42

Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is an effective cure for HIV infection.

Question 43

In most cases, production of antibodies against foreign ABO antigens is stimulated by exposure to foreign blood cells.

Question 44

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a disease resulting from accumulation of immune complexes in various organs and tissues.

Question 45

MHC genes are significant genetic factors in predisposition to develop autoimmune disease.

Question 46

Rheumatoid arthritis is a type __________ hypersensitivity reaction that results when B cells produce autoantibodies that damage the cartilage in the joints. (Use roman numerals in your answer.)

Question 47

Children with Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia are highly susceptible to recurrent bacterial infections.

Question 48

Type I hypersensitivity reactions are also commonly known as __________.

Question 49

Although autoantibodies to nucleic acids are characteristic of __________, many other autoantibodies are produced. (Be sure to use all capital letters in your answer.)

Question 50

Infection with certain viruses may lead to the development of type I diabetes.

Question 51

A young woman is experiencing persistent diarrhea that is at times bloody, and a nagging cough with shortness of breath. She has slight fever, but no rash. A blood test reveals normal leukocyte levels except for low levels of lymphocytes. Antibody titers are normal. The patient reports that she is currently monogamous, but previously "played around a bit," and her mother has SLE. Which immune system disorder is this information consistent with?

A) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
B) AIDS
C) chronic granulomatous disease
D) Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia
E) hypersensitivity pneumonitis

Question 52

Opportunistic infections typical of AIDS but rare otherwise include

A) tuberculosis.
B) Pneumocystis pneumonia.
C) Kaposi's sarcoma.
D) tuberculosis and shingles.
E) Pneumocystis pneumonia and Kaposi's sarcoma.

Question 53

Which of the following bodily fluids is primarily responsible for vertical transmission of HIV?

A) saliva
B) semen
C) breast milk
D) vaginal secretions
E) blood

Question 54

If an Rh-positive woman marries an Rh-negative man, their children are at risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn.

Question 55

The tuberculin response is an example of allergic contact dermatitis.

Question 56

Which of the following proteins is NOT a target of ART?

A) reverse transcriptase
B) integrase
C) protease
D) gp120
E) both gp120 and integrase

Question 57

When bone marrow is transplanted, the donated bone marrow cells regard the patient's cells as foreign, a condition referred to as __________ -versus-host disease.

Question 58

Xenografts are tissue transplants from one individual to another within the same species.

Question 59

The HIV genome encodes a variety of proteins required for successful infection. Which of the following enzymes contributes to the antigenic variation characteristic of this virus?

A) integrase
B) protease
C) gp41
D) reverse transcriptase
E) RNA polymerase

Question 60

Critically low levels of CD lymphocytes are a key diagnostic indicator of __________. (Be sure to use capital letters appropriately.)

Question 61

Failure of the __________ to develop results in DeGeorge syndrome.

Question 62

Hashimoto's thyroiditis and Graves' disease are autoimmune diseases involving the thyroid, but Hashimoto's results in hypothyroidism (low thyroid function), whereas Graves' results in hyperthyroidism (overactive thyroid). Both diseases are characterized by antithyroid antibodies. Discuss ways in which the autoimmune responses may produce the different outcomes.

Question 63

The virus responsible for AIDS was identified in 1983, and since that time scientists have been working to develop a vaccine to prevent HIV infection. Discuss the reasons why a safe and effective vaccine is not yet available.

Question 64

The __________ released in an immediate hypersensitivity reaction leads to the destruction of nearby cells and the activation of the complement system.

Question 65

Stress may result in the production of __________, which may lead to acquired immunodeficiency disease.

Question 66

Compare and contrast type I hypersensitivity with type IV hypersensitivity with respect to reaction time, mediators, and cells involved.

Question 67

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is the tuberculin response?

Question 68

Immunological attack on the islets of Langerhans resulting in the inability to produce insulin leads to type __________ diabetes Mellitus. (Use roman numerals in your answer.)

Question 69

One feature of hemolytic disease of the newborn is excessive __________, which leads to jaundice in the newborn.

Question 70

A graft that is from one identical twin to another is a(n) __________.

Question 71

When the donor's blood group antigens stimulate the production of antibodies in the recipient, __________ reactions occur.

Question 72

Binding of IgE to the surface of sensitized cells leads to __________ of the cell, releasing many inflammatory chemicals.

Question 73

When the release of chemicals in an allergic reaction exceeds the body's ability to adjust, a life-threatening condition called __________ may occur.

Question 74

Graves' disease is an autoimmune disease that affects the __________ gland.

Question 75

One of the important inherited defects in the second line of immune defense is a condition called chronic granulomatous disease. What is this disease, and how is it caused?