Deck 12: Hiv Disease and Aids
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Deck 12: Hiv Disease and Aids
1
The presence of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in an HIV-positive patient indicates AIDS.
True
2
A patient receiving zidovudine and a protease inhibitor to manage HIV infection is found to have an undetectable viral load. This means that the
A) dosage of both agents should be reduced.
B) zidovudine can be discontinued.
C) therapy is effective.
D) HIV virus has been eliminated.
A) dosage of both agents should be reduced.
B) zidovudine can be discontinued.
C) therapy is effective.
D) HIV virus has been eliminated.
therapy is effective.
3
The HIV virus is susceptible to killing by application of a 10% bleach solution.
True
4
HIV has a tendency to mutate during replication.
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5
Protease inhibitors work by blocking HIV virions from entering cells.
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6
HIV attaches to T helper cells by binding to the CD8 protein on its surface.
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7
Which of the following statements about HIV testing is correct?
A) Any patient can be tested for HIV without consent.
B) A negative HIV test ensures absence of infection.
C) The false-positive rate for HIV testing is zero.
D) HIV testing should be avoided in persons with no risk factors and no symptoms.
A) Any patient can be tested for HIV without consent.
B) A negative HIV test ensures absence of infection.
C) The false-positive rate for HIV testing is zero.
D) HIV testing should be avoided in persons with no risk factors and no symptoms.
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8
The immune system disorder associated with HIV is
A) an overactive B-cell system.
B) proliferation of immature WBCs (blasts).
C) deficiency of T helper lymphocytes.
D) cancerous growth of lymph tissue.
A) an overactive B-cell system.
B) proliferation of immature WBCs (blasts).
C) deficiency of T helper lymphocytes.
D) cancerous growth of lymph tissue.
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9
The HIV viral protein gp120 is necessary for the virus to gain entry into T cells.
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10
The HIV virus is transmissible to others through casual contact.
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11
Macrophages and T helper cells are the primary host cells for HIV.
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12
HIV infection of T helper cells is facilitated by attachment of the viral envelope protein gp120 to
A) CD8 proteins on suppressor cells.
B) reverse transcriptase.
C) CD4 proteins on helper cells.
D) the macrophage lipid bilayer.
A) CD8 proteins on suppressor cells.
B) reverse transcriptase.
C) CD4 proteins on helper cells.
D) the macrophage lipid bilayer.
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13
As of 2006, _____ individuals worldwide have been infected with HIV infection.
A) 100,000
B) 1 million
C) slightly less than 10 million
D) nearly 40 million
A) 100,000
B) 1 million
C) slightly less than 10 million
D) nearly 40 million
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14
Which of the following statements best describes the etiologic development and transmission of AIDS?
A) AIDS is caused by a retrovirus and transmitted through body fluids.
B) The mechanism of AIDS transmission is unknown; therefore AIDS is considered to be highly contagious.
C) AIDS is an autoimmune disease triggered by a homosexual lifestyle.
D) AIDS is caused by a virus that can be transmitted only by sexual contact.
A) AIDS is caused by a retrovirus and transmitted through body fluids.
B) The mechanism of AIDS transmission is unknown; therefore AIDS is considered to be highly contagious.
C) AIDS is an autoimmune disease triggered by a homosexual lifestyle.
D) AIDS is caused by a virus that can be transmitted only by sexual contact.
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15
Which of the following HIV-positive patients should be given a diagnosis of AIDS?
A) One who has a CD4 count of 300/µl
B) One who has neuropathy
C) One who has tuberculosis
D) One who has genital herpes
A) One who has a CD4 count of 300/µl
B) One who has neuropathy
C) One who has tuberculosis
D) One who has genital herpes
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16
R.V. is a 28-year-old HIV-positive man recently hospitalized for evaluation of symptoms of progressive weakness, dyspnea, weight loss, and low-grade fever. A biopsy of R.V.'s lung tissue reveals Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. This diagnosis means that R.V.
A) has AIDS.
B) has less than 2 years to live.
C) cannot be treated.
D) was an intravenous drug abuser.
A) has AIDS.
B) has less than 2 years to live.
C) cannot be treated.
D) was an intravenous drug abuser.
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17
As a retrovirus, HIV directs the transcription of DNA from an RNA template.
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18
The primary reason that an effective HIV vaccine is difficult to produce is that
A) HIV is not immunogenic.
B) B cells are unable to produce antibodies against HIV.
C) HIV mutates frequently.
D) reverse transcriptase cleaves the vaccine.
A) HIV is not immunogenic.
B) B cells are unable to produce antibodies against HIV.
C) HIV mutates frequently.
D) reverse transcriptase cleaves the vaccine.
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19
Which of the following is not a group of drugs used for the management of HIV?
A) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) DNA polymerase inhibitors
C) Protease inhibitors
D) Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
A) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) DNA polymerase inhibitors
C) Protease inhibitors
D) Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
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20
An HIV-positive patient with a CD4 lymphocyte count below 200/µl has AIDS.
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21
HIV infection causes immunodeficiency because it
A) directly inhibits antibody production by B cells.
B) causes the destruction of T helper cells.
C) causes excessive production of cytotoxic T cells.
D) blocks the ability of macrophages to present antigens.
A) directly inhibits antibody production by B cells.
B) causes the destruction of T helper cells.
C) causes excessive production of cytotoxic T cells.
D) blocks the ability of macrophages to present antigens.
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22
Match each of the following mechanisms of action with the drugs below (letters may be used more than once).
Nelfinavir (Viracept)
A)Protease inhibitor
B)Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C)Anonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D)Fusion inhibitor
Nelfinavir (Viracept)
A)Protease inhibitor
B)Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C)Anonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D)Fusion inhibitor
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23
The clinical latency period after HIV infection is a time when no
A) viral replication occurs.
B) decline in CD4 lymphocytes occurs.
C) virus is detectable in the blood.
D) significant symptoms of immunodeficiency occur.
A) viral replication occurs.
B) decline in CD4 lymphocytes occurs.
C) virus is detectable in the blood.
D) significant symptoms of immunodeficiency occur.
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24
Match each of the following mechanisms of action with the drugs below (letters may be used more than once).
Saquinavir (Invirase)
A)Protease inhibitor
B)Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C)Anonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D)Fusion inhibitor
Saquinavir (Invirase)
A)Protease inhibitor
B)Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C)Anonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D)Fusion inhibitor
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25
Which of the following modes of transmission does not occur with HIV infection?
A) Sexual transmission
B) Parenteral transmission
C) Fomite transmission to intact skin
D) Perinatal transmission to fetus
A) Sexual transmission
B) Parenteral transmission
C) Fomite transmission to intact skin
D) Perinatal transmission to fetus
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26
Opportunistic infections are a hallmark of AIDS. All of the following infections would be considered opportunistic except
A) Staphylococcus aureus.
B) cytomegalovirus.
C) Candida albicans.
D) Pneumocystis carinii.
A) Staphylococcus aureus.
B) cytomegalovirus.
C) Candida albicans.
D) Pneumocystis carinii.
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27
Match each of the following mechanisms of action with the drugs below (letters may be used more than once).
Nevirapine (Viramune)
A)Protease inhibitor
B)Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C)Anonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D)Fusion inhibitor
Nevirapine (Viramune)
A)Protease inhibitor
B)Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C)Anonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D)Fusion inhibitor
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28
Which type of HIV virus causes most infections in the United States and Europe?
A) HIV type 1
B) HIV type 2
C) HIV type A
D) HIV type B
A) HIV type 1
B) HIV type 2
C) HIV type A
D) HIV type B
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29
Match each of the following mechanisms of action with the drugs below (letters may be used more than once).
Lamivudine (3TC)
A)Protease inhibitor
B)Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C)Anonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D)Fusion inhibitor
Lamivudine (3TC)
A)Protease inhibitor
B)Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C)Anonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D)Fusion inhibitor
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30
Match each of the following mechanisms of action with the drugs below (letters may be used more than once).
Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon, ENF)
A)Protease inhibitor
B)Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C)Anonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D)Fusion inhibitor
Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon, ENF)
A)Protease inhibitor
B)Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C)Anonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D)Fusion inhibitor
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31
Match each of the following mechanisms of action with the drugs below (letters may be used more than once).
Aidovudine (AZT)
A)Protease inhibitor
B)Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C)Anonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D)Fusion inhibitor
Aidovudine (AZT)
A)Protease inhibitor
B)Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C)Anonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D)Fusion inhibitor
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