Deck 15: Psychological Disorders

Question 1

What are some behavioural changes seen in a depressed person?

Answer 1

A good answer will include the following key points.
- The depressed person may overeat or stop eating.
- The person may have difficulty falling asleep or sleeping through the night.
- The person may have trouble concentrating and feel tired all the time.
- The person may lose interest in activities that usually give them satisfaction and pleasure.

Question 2

Explain the role of the DSM in helping clinicians diagnose mental disorders.

Answer 2

A good answer will include the following key points.
- The DSM provides diagnostic categories that include many different mental disorders and general problems in living.
- The goal of the DSM is to improve the ability of researchers and clinicians to agree on the problems people have.
- Most psychiatric and clinical psychology textbooks base their discussions on the DSM.

Question 3

What is the fundamental fear in agoraphobia?

Answer 3

A good answer will include the following key points.
- The fear of fear-of panic and its imagined consequences.
- A set of phobias, often set off by a panic attack, involving the basic fear of being away from a safe place or person.

Question 4

Although the MMPI is an objective test with fairly good reliability and validity, what problems have been noted in regard to it?

Question 5

Differentiate unusual behaviour, mental disorder, and insanity.

Question 6

Explain why one depression researcher wrote that "Women think and men drink."

Question 7

What is the assumption behind projective tests?

Question 8

What are typical symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder?

Question 9

The authors of the textbook point out several reasons for the low validity of projective tests. List some of the reasons for their low validity.

Question 10

How might the hippocampal volume be related to posttraumatic stress disorder?

Question 11

Identify the symptoms of bipolar disorder.

Question 12

Everyone experiences occasional shyness and social anxiety, but a person with a social phobia has intense reactions of fear. What are some of the common social phobias?

Question 13

Describe four serious problems with the effort to diagnose and label mental disorders.

Question 14

A line of investigation in the study of depressive disorders emphasizes the life experiences and social circumstances that could lead to stress and depression. How do these researchers explain the gender differences in depression?

Question 15

Some psychologists argue that the whole enterprise of the DSM is an inherently subjective process because clinicians vote on which diagnoses should be included or rejected. For example, new disorders have been voted in that reflect today's prejudice and values. Describe one of these changes in the DSM that reflects contemporary values.

Question 16

Describe two conditions in which anxiety would be an ordinary and adaptive response rather than a disorder.

Question 17

When individuals are diagnosed with OCD, are the obsessive thoughts usually positive or negative? Illustrate your answer with an example of an obsessive thought.

Question 18

Although panic attacks seem to come out of nowhere, they usually occur in the aftermath of stress, prolonged emotion, exercise, specific worries, or frightening experiences. Delayed attacks after life-threatening scares are common. What is the essential difference between people who have panic attacks and develop panic disorder and those that do not?

Question 19

People all over the world paint their bodies, but what defines whether a particular type of body art is normal or abnormal in a particular culture? If residents of the United States have visible tattoos over half of their bodies, is that normal? Is it abnormal? Explain your reasoning.

Question 20

Discuss briefly the genetic contribution to posttraumatic stress disorder.

Question 21

Cases of schizophrenia:

A) result from erratic, cold, rejecting mothers.
B) vary in severity, duration, and prognosis.
C) occur from living in an unpredictable environment.
D) are seldom associated with biological factors.

Question 22

Mary went to the emergency room for the second time in a month complaining of difficulty in breathing and chest pain that had come on suddenly. She thought she was having a heart attack and was afraid she was dying, but the doctor could not find anything wrong. She may be suffering from:

A) panic disorder.
B) a somatoform disorder.
C) PTSD.
D) hypochondria.

Question 23

________ consist of ambiguous pictures, sentences, or stories that the test taker interprets or completes.

A) Objective tests
B) Projective tests
C) Personality inventories
D) Diagnoses based on the DSM

Question 24

Which of the following is NOT a problem with the DSM?

A) the danger of overdiagnosis
B) the power of diagnostic labels
C) the likelihood of ignoring symptoms that fall along a spectrum
D) the inclusion of objectivity and universality

Question 25

The text defines mental disorder as:

A) the inability to distinguish right from wrong.
B) behaviour that violates cultural standards.
C) any behaviour or emotional state that causes an individual suffering, is self-destructive, endangers others, or impairs a person's ability to function and work with others.
D) behaviour that deviates strongly from the norm and prevents a person from functioning normally.

Question 26

Describe the ways that antisocial personality disorder might take different forms over time, from childhood to adulthood.

Question 27

Explain the ways in which addiction patterns vary according to cultural practices and the social environment.

Question 28

Describe typical hallucinations experienced by people with schizophrenia.

Question 29

________ is the fear of being trapped in enclosed places.

A) Claustrophobia
B) Brontophobia
C) Triskaidekaphobia
D) Agoraphobia

Question 30

What are the common traits of a psychopath?

Question 31

The primary purpose of the DSM is to:

A) help psychologists assess normal, as well as abnormal, behaviour.
B) keep the number of diagnostic categories of mental disorders to a minimum.
C) provide descriptive criteria for diagnosing mental disorders.
D) describe the causes of common psychological disorders.

Question 32

The primary purpose of the ________ is to aid in the diagnosis of mental disorders.

A) MMPI
B) DSM
C) Rorschach test
D) clinical interview

Question 33

Obsessive-compulsive disorder may involve brain abnormalities in the:

A) thalamus.
B) amygdala.
C) prefrontal cortex.
D) hippocampus.

Question 34

The two dominant approaches to understanding addiction and drug abuse are:

A) the biological model and the learning model.
B) the cultural model and the psychodynamic model.
C) the humanist model and the biological model.
D) the learning model and the psychodynamic model.

Question 35

After surviving a train derailment, John experienced frequent, vivid thoughts and images of the accident for several months. He also had problems sleeping and was irritable and withdrawn. John is suffering from:

A) major depression.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) panic disorder.

Question 36

Alcoholism is most likely to occur in:

A) Italy.
B) Greece.
C) France.
D) Ireland.

Question 37

Discuss the biological events of adolescence that may lead to schizophrenia in vulnerable individuals.

Question 38

The key symptoms of ________ are rule-breaking, aggressiveness, and irresponsibility.

A) schizophrenia
B) borderline personality disorder
C) antisocial personality disorder
D) social phobia

Question 39

Briefly describe the hallmarks of borderline personality disorder.

Question 40

________ refers to a fear of being trapped in a crowded, public place.

A) Claustrophobia
B) Social phobia
C) Mysophobia
D) Agoraphobia

Question 41

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of mania?

A) feelings of power
B) extreme euphoria
C) impulsive behaviour
D) excess rumination

Question 42

Critics point out that one of the problems of the DSM is that:

A) it has strict criteria needed for making a diagnosis and has reduced the number of people who can be labelled with a disorder.
B) it is too resistant to change and too reluctant to add new diagnostic categories, even though today's concerns are far different from those from 1952.
C) it relies too much on empirical evidence and research findings rather than focusing on the person who is at the heart of the diagnostic process.
D) it is not called the "Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders and a Whole Bunch of Everyday Problems," yet the compilers keep adding everyday problems!

Question 43

In the United States, the group at highest risk of suicide is:

A) African-American women.
B) American Indian men.
C) African-American men.
D) Caucasian women.

Question 44

A nineteenth century physician's diagnosis of drapetomania, which purported to explain why slaves sought freedom, exemplifies:

A) the recognition of the intolerable conditions of slavery and the need to escape those conditions.
B) how notions of mental disorder can serve the interests of those who are in power by putting a veneer of science on a subjective process.
C) how great suffering elicits the "fight-or-flight" response, which is a normal human reaction.
D) recognition of panic disorder as far back as the early years of the nineteenth century.

Question 45

Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement regarding the DSM?

A) The first edition of the DSM, published in 1952, listed about 100 disorders.
B) The DSM-4 revised edition, published in 2000, contains nearly 400 disorders.
C) The primary aim of the DSM is to explain the causes of various psychological disorders.
D) The DSM has had a powerful influence on notions of mental disorder.

Question 46

Which of the following is NOT a problem with the DSM?

A) the danger of overdiagnosis
B) the power of diagnostic labels
C) the likelihood of ignoring symptoms that fall along a spectrum
D) the illusion of objectivity and universality

Question 47

________ is a controversial disorder marked by the apparent appearance within one person of two or more distinct personalities, each with its own name and traits.

A) Borderline personality disorder
B) Antisocial personality disorder
C) Dissociative identity disorder
D) Bipolar disorder

Question 48

Projective tests are based on:

A) behavioural assumptions.
B) psychodynamic assumptions.
C) humanist assumptions.
D) social-cognitive learning assumptions.

Question 49

________ consist of ambiguous pictures, sentences, or stories that the test taker interprets or completes.

A) Objective tests
B) Projective tests
C) Personality inventories
D) Diagnoses based on the DSM

Question 50

The primary purpose of the DSM is to:

A) help psychologists assess normal, as well as abnormal, behaviour.
B) keep the number of diagnostic categories of mental disorders to a minimum.
C) provide descriptive criteria for diagnosing mental disorders.
D) describe the causes of common psychological disorders.

Question 51

The text defines mental disorder as:

A) the inability to distinguish right from wrong.
B) behaviour that violates cultural standards.
C) any behaviour or emotional state that causes an individual suffering, is self-destructive, endangers others, or impairs a person's ability to function and work with others.
D) behaviour that deviates strongly from the norm and prevents a person from functioning normally.

Question 52

A(n) ________ is a persistent, unwanted thought.

A) obsession
B) compulsion
C) delusion
D) hallucination

Question 53

Alcoholism might be less likely to occur:

A) if it was used as a rite of passage into adulthood.
B) if the adults drank moderately at family gatherings.
C) if drinking occurred outside of homes, not in them.
D) if national abstinence was enforced by law once again.

Question 54

When a person has a mental illness:

A) he or she is diagnosed as insane.
B) he or she engages in socially unusual behaviour.
C) he or she is engaging in a statistically rare behaviour.
D) he or she may or may have symptoms that are extremely common.

Question 55

In defining a mental disorder, it is common to consider all of the following EXCEPT:

A) whether a person's behaviour violates cultural standards.
B) whether a person is legally insane.
C) whether a person's behaviour causes him or her to feel distressed.
D) whether a person's behaviour is self-destructive or harmful to others.

Question 56

Ramona has lost her interest in gardening, which brought her joy in the past. She's lost her appetite and life seems hopeless. Which disorder would Ramona be most likely to have?

A) generalized anxiety disorder
B) narcissistic disorder
C) major depression
D) borderline personality disorder

Question 57

The primary purpose of the ________ is to aid in the diagnosis of mental disorders.

A) MMPI
B) DSM
C) Rorschach test
D) clinical interview

Question 58

________ disorders include conditions that cause persistent sad, empty, or irritable moods.

A) Personality
B) Depressive
C) Anxiety
D) Dissociative identity

Question 59

Which of the following holds true for diagnostic labels?

A) Once a person has been given a diagnosis, other people begin to see that person primarily in terms of the label.
B) People are likely to consider many possible explanations for the mental condition of a person.
C) People tend to notice positive behavioural changes in a teenager diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder.
D) People do not consider the problems of another person to be inherent.

Question 60

When people are said to be insane, this means that:

A) psychologists have compared their behaviours to characteristics of individuals with disorders and found a strong correlation.
B) a psychiatrist has determined that they are suffering from one of the psychological disorders, as described in the DSM.
C) a legal determination has been made that they are unaware of the consequences of their actions and unable to control their behaviour.
D) a diagnosis of schizophrenia has been made either by a psychologist or by a psychiatrist specializing in the treatment of the insane.

Question 61

After surviving a train derailment, John experienced frequent, vivid thoughts and images of the accident for several months. He also had problems sleeping and was irritable and withdrawn. John is suffering from:

A) major depression.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) panic disorder.

Question 62

Mary went to the emergency room for the second time in a month complaining of difficulty in breathing and chest pain that had come on suddenly. She thought she was having a heart attack and was afraid she was dying, but the doctor could not find anything wrong. She may be suffering from:

A) panic disorder.
B) a somatoform disorder.
C) PTSD.
D) hypochondria.

Question 63

Joey experiences a continuous state of uncontrollable worry and tension. Most of the time, he feels jittery and breathless, even though he doesn't drink coffee. According to the DSM, this disorder is called:

A) a panic attack.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) agoraphobia.
D) generalized anxiety disorder.

Question 64

The chief characteristic of generalized anxiety disorder is:

A) chronic uncontrollable anxiety or worry.
B) short-lived, but intense, feelings of spontaneous anxiety.
C) excessive fear of a particular situation.
D) repeated thoughts used to ward off anxious feelings.

Question 65

Research has indicated that:

A) in order to experience a generalized anxiety disorder, a person must have lived through a specific anxiety-producing event.
B) it is normal for an individual to feel anxious, be in a general state of apprehension, or experience psychological tension for a period of time.
C) the majority of people who live through a traumatic experience continue to have posttraumatic stress disorder symptoms for many years.
D) if loss of interest in familiar activities and a sense of detachment from others persist for two weeks after a trauma, then posttraumatic stress disorder is diagnosed.

Question 66

Sheldon is asked to report what he sees in the cards presented with symmetrical abstract patterns. It is likely that Sheldon is being given:

A) the Taylor Manifest Anxiety Scale.
B) the Beck Depression Inventory.
C) the Rorschach inkblot test.
D) the MMPI.

Question 67

Candice experiences a continuous state of anxiety marked by feelings of worry and dread, apprehension, difficulties in concentration, and signs of motor tension. According to the DSM, this disorder is called:

A) a panic attack.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) agoraphobia.
D) generalized anxiety disorder.

Question 68

Which of the following statements about the MMPI is NOT true?

A) It is the most widely used test for assessing personality and emotional disorders.
B) It is organized into ten categories, or scales.
C) It is an example of a projective test of personality.
D) It has four validity scales.

Question 69

________ refers to the fear of heights.

A) Claustrophobia
B) Acrophobia
C) Triskaidekaphobia
D) Agoraphobia

Question 70

Marvella has recurring bouts of trembling and shaking, dizziness, chest pain or discomfort, rapid heart rate, feelings of unreality, hot and cold flashes, and sweating. She feels that she is going crazy. Marvella is showing the symptoms of:

A) a panic attack.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) agoraphobia.
D) generalized anxiety disorder.

Question 71

Psychologists regard _______________ as the "fear of fear."

A) panic attacks
B) posttraumatic stress disorder
C) agoraphobia
D) generalized anxiety disorder

Question 72

Psychological tests used to infer motives, conflicts, and unconscious dynamics on the basis of a person's interpretations of ambiguous stimuli are called:

A) clinical judgment tests.
B) inventories.
C) objective tests.
D) projective tests.

Question 73

The assessment method that would have the most validity and reliability would be:

A) the MMPI (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory).
B) the Rorschach Inkblot Test.
C) tests using doll play to determine whether a child has been sexually abused.
D) clinical observations and interviews.

Question 74

Which of the following is a leading objective test for major depression?

A) Rorschach Inkblot Test
B) Thematic Apperception Test
C) Beck Depression Inventory
D) Myers Briggs Inventory

Question 75

Kellie is fearful in situations where she must eat in public or write in the presence of others. She is worried that she might say or do something embarrassing. Kellie is exhibiting the symptoms of:

A) a generalized anxiety disorder.
B) an idiosyncratic phobia.
C) an obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D) a social phobia.

Question 76

________ is the fear of being trapped in enclosed places.

A) Claustrophobia
B) Brontophobia
C) Triskaidekaphobia
D) Agoraphobia

Question 77

According to the textbook's discussion on anxiety:

A) panic attacks are called the fear of fears because people feel that they are dying.
B) in many situations it is sensible to feel anxiety, and in fact, this emotion is often adaptive.
C) posttraumatic stress disorder occurs within the first two days after a trauma.
D) it is unusual for a mentally healthy person to experience a panic attack.

Question 78

________ refers to a fear of being trapped in a crowded, public place.

A) Claustrophobia
B) Social phobia
C) Mysophobia
D) Agoraphobia

Question 79

In many people who continue to suffer for years from posttraumatic stress disorder, the ________ is significantly smaller than in those people who recover from the trauma.

A) hypothalamus
B) thalamus
C) amygdala
D) hippocampus

Question 80

Johnny has recurring periods of intense fear during which he thinks that he is having a heart attack. He trembles and has a rapid heart rate. These symptoms indicate:

A) a panic attack.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) agoraphobia.
D) generalized anxiety disorder.