Deck 11: The Cardiovascular System: Blood

Question 1

The process of blood clotting is an example of which function of blood?

A) stabilizing body temperature
B) transporting dissolved gases, nutrients, hormones, and metabolic wastes
C) defending against toxins and pathogens
D) regulating the pH and ion composition of interstitial fluids
E) restricting fluid losses at injury sites

Answer 1

E

Question 2

Figure 11-1 Components of Plasma and Types of WBCs
Use Figure 11-1 to identify the labeled part.
Label I represents

A) basophils.
B) neutrophils.
C) monocytes.
D) eosinophils.
E) lymphocytes.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Figure 11-1 Components of Plasma and Types of WBCs
Use Figure 11-1 to identify the labeled part.
Label J represents

A) basophils.
B) neutrophils.
C) monocytes.
D) eosinophils.
E) lymphocytes.

Answer 3

E

Question 4

Figure 11-1 Components of Plasma and Types of WBCs
Use Figure 11-1 to identify the labeled part.
Label G represents

A) basophils.
B) neutrophils.
C) monocytes.
D) eosinophils.
E) lymphocytes.

Question 5

Which organ synthesizes more than 90 percent of plasma proteins?

A) kidney
B) spleen
C) liver
D) bone marrow
E) thymus

Question 6

The term ________ refers to the combination of plasma and the formed elements together.

A) whole blood
B) hematocrit
C) thrombocyte
D) hemopoiesis
E) packed cell volume

Question 7

Fresh whole blood is usually collected through a procedure called

A) acupuncture.
B) transfusion.
C) venipuncture.
D) arterial puncture.
E) hematocrit.

Question 8

Figure 11-1 Components of Plasma and Types of WBCs
Use Figure 11-1 to identify the labeled part.
Label H represents

A) basophils.
B) neutrophils.
C) monocytes.
D) eosinophils.
E) lymphocytes.

Question 9

Blood is approximately ________ percent plasma by volume.

A) 46-63
B) 37-54
C) 12-33
D) 25-39
E) 99.9

Question 10

Figure 11-1 Components of Plasma and Types of WBCs
Use Figure 11-1 to identify the labeled part.
Label E represents

A) organic wastes.
B) globulins.
C) electrolytes.
D) leukocytes.
E) organic nutrients.

Question 11

Figure 11-1 Components of Plasma and Types of WBCs
Use Figure 11-1 to identify the labeled part.
Label A represents

A) electrolytes.
B) albumins.
C) globulins.
D) fibrinogen.
E) erythrocytes.

Question 12

Figure 11-1 Components of Plasma and Types of WBCs
Use Figure 11-1 to identify the labeled part.
Label B represents

A) electrolytes.
B) albumins.
C) globulins.
D) fibrinogen.
E) erythrocytes.

Question 13

What is the chief difference between plasma and serum?

A) amount of water
B) quantity of electrolytes
C) quantity of organic wastes
D) presence/absence of clotting proteins
E) concentration of glucose

Question 14

Plasma and interstitial fluid account for most of the volume of ________ in the body.

A) serum
B) lymphatic fluid
C) whole blood
D) extracellular fluid
E) packed blood

Question 15

In blood smear preparations, blood is collected from which type of vessel?

A) veins
B) peripheral capillaries
C) arteries
D) lymphatic ducts
E) venules

Question 16

Figure 11-1 Components of Plasma and Types of WBCs
Use Figure 11-1 to identify the labeled part.
Label C represents

A) electrolytes.
B) albumins.
C) globulins.
D) fibrinogen.
E) erythrocytes.

Question 17

Figure 11-1 Components of Plasma and Types of WBCs
Use Figure 11-1 to identify the labeled part.
Label D represents

A) organic wastes.
B) globulins.
C) electrolytes.
D) leukocytes.
E) organic nutrients.

Question 18

Figure 11-1 Components of Plasma and Types of WBCs
Use Figure 11-1 to identify the labeled part.
Label F represents

A) organic wastes.
B) globulins.
C) electrolytes.
D) leukocytes.
E) organic nutrients.

Question 19

Figure 11-1 Components of Plasma and Types of WBCs
Use Figure 11-1 to identify the labeled part.
Label K represents

A) basophils.
B) neutrophils.
C) monocytes.
D) eosinophils.
E) lymphocytes.

Question 20

Plasma proteins that are necessary for blood to maintain osmotic pressure are

A) albumins.
B) fibrinogens.
C) globulins.
D) fibrin.
E) platelets.

Question 21

________ are the most abundant cell population of the formed elements of blood.

A) Erythrocytes
B) Platelets
C) Neutrophils
D) Lymphocytes
E) Monocytes

Question 22

In the process of hemoglobin recycling, each heme molecule is stripped of its iron and converted to which pigmented organic compound?

A) urobilin
B) bilirubin
C) stercobilin
D) transferrin
E) biliverdin

Question 23

________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of RBCs is reduced.

A) Erythropoiesis
B) Lymphopoiesis
C) Anemia
D) Leukopenia
E) Leukemia

Question 24

The function of hemoglobin is to

A) bind and transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.
B) protect the body against pathogens.
C) aid in the process of blood clotting.
D) carry nutrients from the intestine to the body's cells.
E) absorb and neutralize the acids generated by active tissues.

Question 25

When large numbers of RBCs break down in the circulation, the urine can turn reddish or brown in a condition called

A) sickle cell anemia.
B) hemoglobinuria.
C) pernicious anemia.
D) leucopenia.
E) septicemia.

Question 26

In adults, the stem cells responsible for the production of red and white blood cells originate primarily in the

A) liver.
B) thymus.
C) spleen.
D) red bone marrow.
E) yellow bone marrow.

Question 27

Which condition results from abnormally high levels of bilirubin in the plasma of blood?

A) hematuria
B) hypoxia
C) hemoglobinuria
D) jaundice
E) thalassemia

Question 28

During their formation, RBCs

A) flatten.
B) multiply their mitochondria.
C) eject their nucleus.
D) are saturated with oxygen.
E) recycle hemoglobin into iron and pigment molecules.

Question 29

During red blood cell development, what is the term given to the first anucleate cell?

A) reticulocyte
B) erythrocyte
C) myeloid stem cell
D) hemocytoblast
E) proerythroblast

Question 30

For erythropoiesis to proceed normally, protein synthesis requires adequate supplies of factors, such as vitamin B₁₂, which is absorbed from the diet in the presence of which of the following?

A) thyroxine
B) intrinsic factor
C) Factor X
D) platelet factor
E) EPO

Question 31

Excess transferrins are removed in the ________, where the iron extracted from heme molecules is stored in special protein-iron complexes.

A) liver and thymus
B) liver and spleen
C) thymus and bone marrow
D) spleen and bone marrow
E) thymus and spleen

Question 32

Why might women be more prone to suffering from iron-deficient anemia than men?

A) Women require about 50% more heme units per hemoglobin.
B) Hemoglobin molecules break down more readily in women.
C) Women have approximately half as many iron reserves.
D) The RBCs in women have a shorter lifespan.
E) Women absorb less iron from their diet.

Question 33

Red blood cells result from the divisions of cells called

A) hemocytoblasts.
B) lymphoblasts.
C) monoblasts.
D) myeloblasts.
E) progenitor cells.

Question 34

The percentage of whole blood volume occupied by formed elements is called

A) normovolemic.
B) reticulocyte count.
C) hematocrit.
D) hemoglobin concentration.
E) differential count.

Question 35

EPO is released when

A) oxygen levels in the blood increase.
B) oxygen levels in the blood decrease.
C) carbon dioxide levels in the blood increase.
D) carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease.
E) protein levels in the blood increase.

Question 36

Which disease is characterized by defective hemoglobin that results from a mutation affecting the amino acid sequence of one pair of the globular proteins of the hemoglobin molecule resulting in stiff, markedly curved red blood cells?

A) sickle cell anemia
B) thalassemia
C) hematuria
D) jaundice
E) aplastic anemia

Question 37

________ directly stimulates red blood cell production.

A) Intrinsic factor
B) Thyroxine
C) EPO
D) Vitamin B₁₂
E) GH

Question 38

A hemoglobin molecule contains

A) three protein chains, four heme groups, and two iron ions.
B) two protein chains, two heme groups, and four iron ions.
C) four protein chains, two heme groups, and two iron ions.
D) four protein chains, four heme groups, and four iron ions.
E) four protein chains, six heme groups, and two iron ions.

Question 39

The average life span of a red blood cell is about

A) 1 week.
B) 1 month.
C) 4 months.
D) 6 months.
E) 1 year.

Question 40

Formation of red blood cells is called

A) thrombopoiesis.
B) leukocytosis.
C) leukopoiesis.
D) erythropoiesis.
E) erythrocytosis.

Question 41

During the recycling of hemoglobin, what is the breakdown product of the globular proteins of each hemoglobin molecule?

A) amino acids
B) stercobilins
C) bilirubin
D) transferrin
E) urobilins

Question 42

The primary function of white blood cells is to

A) remove carbon dioxide from active cells.
B) clump together and stick to the blood vessel walls.
C) carry oxygen from the lungs to the body's cells.
D) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells.
E) help defend the body against pathogens.

Question 43

The least numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the

A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) lymphocytes.
E) monocytes.

Question 44

The most abundant type of WBC in a normal blood sample is the

A) basophil.
B) neutrophil.
C) lymphocyte.
D) eosinophil.
E) monocyte.

Question 45

________ is the characteristic of WBCs that allow them to enter surrounding tissue by squeezing between adjacent epithelial cells in the capillary wall.

A) Hemotaxis
B) Positive chemotaxis
C) Hemolysis
D) Diapedesis
E) Amoeboid movement

Question 46

Agglutinins

A) are surface antigens on RBCs.
B) prevent blood clotting.
C) are substances that can trigger a protective defense mechanism called an immune response.
D) are antibodies that will attack surface antigens on RBCs of a different blood type.
E) contain abundant stained "granules."

Question 47

Without mitochondria, RBCs are relatively inefficient in terms of energy production. However, there is an advantage to RBC function. What is this advantage?

A) It ensures that its iron component will interact with the plasma protein transferrin.
B) It stimulates the conversion of yellow bone marrow to red bone marrow.
C) It stimulates the absorption of vitamin B₁₂.
D) It ensures that its iron component is converted to bilirubin.
E) It ensures that any oxygen the RBCs absorb will be delivered to peripheral tissues.

Question 48

Formed elements that are nucleated and capable of amoeboid movement are

A) leukocytes.
B) chondrocytes.
C) thrombocytes.
D) erythrocytes.
E) melanocytes.

Question 49

Type AB blood contains

A) A agglutinins on the red blood cells.
B) agglutinogen A and agglutinogen B.
C) B agglutinogens on the red blood cells.
D) B agglutinins in the plasma.
E) agglutinin A and B.

Question 50

Which of the following is an agranulocyte?

A) erythrocyte
B) basophil
C) neutrophil
D) eosinophil
E) monocyte

Question 51

Pus associated with infected wounds contains which type of white blood cell?

A) basophils
B) lymphocytes
C) eosinophils
D) monocytes
E) neutrophils

Question 52

Agglutinogens of the various blood types are examples of

A) surface antibodies.
B) channel proteins.
C) leukocytes.
D) surface antigens.
E) agranulocytes.

Question 53

As blood flows through peripheral tissues, what occurs regarding the hemoglobin molecules of RBCs?

A) Hemoglobin binds oxygen and releases its bound carbon dioxide.
B) Hemoglobin releases carbon dioxide and oxygen.
C) Hemoglobin binds oxygen and carbon dioxide.
D) Hemoglobin binds carbon dioxide and releases its bound oxygen.
E) Hemoglobin gains an increase in its oxygen-carrying capacity.

Question 54

When foreign cells invade the body, one would most likely expect to see increased numbers of

A) erythrocytes.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) lymphocytes.
E) thrombocytes.

Question 55

A normal WBC count is about ________ cells per microliter.

A) 1,500-4,000
B) 1,800-7,300
C) 5,000-10,000
D) 150,000-500,000
E) 4.4 million-6 million.

Question 56

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of stages in RBC maturation?

A) stem cell, erythroblast, proerythroblast, reticulocyte, RBC
B) hemocytoblast, myeloblast, reticulocyte, megakaryocyte, RBC
C) myeloid stem cell, proerythroblast, erythroblast, reticulocyte, RBC
D) monoblast, promonocyte, myelocyte, band cell, RBC
E) lymphoblast, proerythroblast, reticulocyte, band cell, RBC

Question 57

A toxin that blocks the stomach's ability to release intrinsic factor would most likely cause

A) hemophilia.
B) an embolism.
C) leukopenia.
D) iron deficiency anemia.
E) pernicious anemia.

Question 58

Erythropoietin is most likely released under which of the following conditions?

A) during anemia
B) when the respiratory surfaces of the lungs are optimally enhanced
C) when the carbon dioxide content of air in the lungs declines
D) during erythrocytosis
E) when blood flow to the thymus declines

Question 59

A person's blood type is determined by the

A) size and shape of red blood cells.
B) number of antibodies in the plasma.
C) chemical character of hemoglobin.
D) presence or absence of specific surface antigens on the plasma membrane.
E) type of oxygen- and carbon dioxide-binding sites on the hemoglobin molecules.

Question 60

Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A serum and anti-Rh serum, but not with the anti-B serum. This means

A) Bill could receive type B blood in a transfusion.
B) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type AB blood.
C) Bill is Rh-negative.
D) Bill's plasma would cross-react with type O negative red blood cells.
E) Bill's plasma contains anti-B antibodies.

Question 61

Platelets

A) are phagocytic.
B) are a major component of the vascular clotting system.
C) are a component of the unformed elements of blood.
D) are lymphocytes.
E) have multi-lobed nuclei.

Question 62

Which of the following begins with the activation of plasminogen?

A) thrombosis
B) fibrinolysis
C) agglutination
D) intrinsic pathway
E) extrinsic pathway

Question 63

Platelets are

A) giant, multinucleated cells.
B) cellular fragments.
C) immature leukocytes.
D) fixed macrophages.
E) surface antigens.

Question 64

What is a benefit of a vascular spasm at the onset of hemostasis?

A) a reduction in blood loss
B) an increase in peripheral blood flow
C) the formation of collagen fibers
D) an easier passage for neutrophils to the site of injury
E) greater availability of calcium

Question 65

Which of the following are the most active type of leukocytes, phagocytically, and are usually the first to arrive at an injury site?

A) neutrophils
B) eosinophils
C) basophils
D) lymphocytes
E) erythrocytes

Question 66

Thrombocytopenia is defined as a deficiency of

A) antibodies.
B) erythrocytes.
C) platelets.
D) eosinophils.
E) neutrophils.

Question 67

The common pathway of coagulation ends with

A) the sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
B) the activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen.
C) the release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium.
D) the activation of a clotting factor that converts prothrombin to thrombin.
E) the activation of a clotting factor that converts fibrinogen to fibrin.

Question 68

The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by

A) the sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
B) the activation of proenzymes exposed to collagen.
C) the release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium.
D) the release of heparin from the liver.
E) the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

Question 69

The white blood cells that are important in leaving the blood vessels and phagocytizing large materials, releasing chemicals that draw fibroblasts to the injured areas, are

A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) lymphocytes.
E) monocytes.

Question 70

A blood clot attached to the wall of a vessel is called a(n)

A) embolus.
B) thrombus.
C) plaque.
D) coagulant.
E) platelet plug.

Question 71

The inherited condition resulting from the inadequate production of clotting factors is termed

A) anemia.
B) thalassemia.
C) jaundice.
D) hemophilia.
E) leukopenia.

Question 72

Which cell population of WBCs migrate to sites of injury and cross the capillary wall to accumulate within damaged tissues, where they discharge their granules into the interstitial fluids?

A) monocytes
B) eosinophils
C) basophils
D) lymphocytes
E) neutrophils

Question 73

Neutrophils

A) are agranulocytes.
B) are not phagocytic.
C) have multiple nuclei.
D) are active in fighting bacterial infection.
E) are responsible for specific defenses.

Question 74

How long do platelets circulate before being removed by phagocytes?

A) 9-12 days
B) 6-18 hours
C) 2-3 days
D) 4-8 weeks
E) 1-2 months

Question 75

The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by

A) the sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
B) the activation of proenzymes exposed to collagen.
C) the release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium.
D) the release of heparin from the liver.
E) the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

Question 76

A sample of tissue from an injury shows a large number of eosinophils. This would indicate that the tissue was

A) abscessed.
B) inflamed.
C) being rejected.
D) infected by viruses.
E) infected by parasites.

Question 77

A drifting blood clot, air bubble, or fat globule is called

A) thrombus.
B) plaque.
C) clotting factor.
D) embolus.
E) hemostatic element.

Question 78

________ are large phagocytic WBCs that remain in circulation for only about 24 hours before entering peripheral tissues to become tissue macrophages.

A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Basophils
D) Lymphocytes
E) Monocytes

Question 79

The extrinsic and intrinsic pathways join at the common pathway through the activation of which clotting substance produced by the liver?

A) albumin
B) fibrinogen
C) Factor X
D) calcium
E) vitamin K

Question 80

As repairs proceed, a blood clot gradually dissolves in a process that begins with the activation of

A) Factor X.
B) thrombin.
C) fibrinogen.
D) prothrombin.
E) plasminogen.