Deck 7: Interest Groups And Political Parties

Question 1

"Umbrella groups" represent

A) collections of businesses or other entities.
B) umbrella manufacturers.
C) only small businesses.
D) only manufacturing businesses.
E) only international entities looking to do business with U.S. companies.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

When it comes to influencing the U.S. government, foreign governments

A) only engage in lobbying when the nation they are representing is large.
B) frequently hire former members of Congress to promote their positions on Capitol Hill.
C) engage only in official diplomatic processes.
D) are rarely interested in policy debates concerning trade issues.
E) are prohibited by law from attempting to influence U.S. policy.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which type of interest group has probably been more successful in obtaining U.S. government subsidies than any other?

A) Public safety
B) Environmental
C) Professional
D) Economic
E) Agricultural

Answer 3

E

Question 4

An interest group is

A) any association of individuals.
B) an organized group of individuals who want to gain control of the government.
C) an organized group of individuals sharing common objectives who actively attempt to influence policymakers.
D) any organization that requires members to pay dues.
E) an organized group of individuals who support a specific candidate for public office.

Question 5

The key to success for interest groups is

A) using a narrow range of strategies.
B) access to government officials.
C) having a small number of members.
D) having members that are concentrated in one area.
E) focusing on a broad range of issues.

Question 6

Because of the decline in the sector of the economy, national unions are looking to nontraditional areas for their membership.

A) nonprofit
B) migrant worker
C) agricultural
D) industrial
E) service

Question 7

The American Bar Association and the American Medical Association are examples of

A) interest groups that do not engage in lobbying.
B) interest groups with small memberships less than 1,000 members).
C) interest groups with relatively little influence.
D) interest groups of professionals.
E) public-interest groups.

Question 8

Successful interest groups and their representatives try to cultivate long-term relationships with

A) foreign ambassadors.
B) legislators and government officials.
C) federal judges.
D) business leaders.
E) police commissioners and chiefs of police.

Question 9

Which of the following best describes how a political party differs from an interest group?

A) Political parties want to operate the government, but interest groups do not aim to do so.
B) Political parties do not want to operate the government, but interest groups do.
C) Interest groups share common objectives and attempt to influence policymakers.
D) A political party tries to win elections, but interest groups do not.
E) Political parties and interest groups determine public policy.

Question 10

The National Right to Life Committee and the National Rifle Association are examples of

A) economic interest groups.
B) single-interest groups.
C) public-interest groups.
D) foreign interest groups.
E) fringe interest groups.

Question 11

A political party is a group of political activists who

A) agree on all policy issues.
B) organize to win elections, operate the government, and determine public policy.
C) pay monthly dues to an ideological organization.
D) have been previously elected to office.
E) organize to stage protests.

Question 12

Lobbyists are best defined as

A) any association of individuals.
B) representatives of one of the two major political parties.
C) organizations or individuals that attempt to influence legislation and the government's administrative decisions.
D) members of Congress who challenge the majority position.
E) members of the congressional leadership who are in a position to shape the legislative agenda in a way that benefits powerful interest groups.

Question 13

Which types of interest groups are defined as economic interest groups?

A) Business, labor, and public-interest groups
B) Labor, agriculture, and single-issue groups.
C) Business, labor, and professional organizations.
D) Business, labor, and foreign governments.
E) Professionals, agriculture, and foreign governments.

Question 14

When an interest group and its lobbyists approach officials personally to present their case, they are engaging in

A) closed-door negotiations.
B) a breach of trust.
C) illegal fraternizing.
D) indirect techniques.
E) direct techniques.

Question 15

Which of the following best defines a social movement?

A) A group of people on the fringes of U.S. society
B) A group bent on subverting the government
C) A movement of people
D) A demand by a vast majority of the population to do something
E) A movement that represents the demands of a large segment of the population for political, economic, or social change

Question 16

The system of interest group politics has been accused of leaving out which of the following groups?

A) The middle class
B) The unorganized poor
C) Professionals
D) The public sector
E) Consumers

Question 17

Which of the following best describes what Common Cause does?

A) It helped establish, then repeal, Prohibition.
B) It has led to an overhaul of the Internal Revenue Service.
C) It works to make governmental institutions more responsive to the needs of the public.
D) It is the smallest interest group in the country in terms of numbers.
E) It strives to ignore national priorities of the public.

Question 18

All of the following statements about public-interest groups are true EXCEPT

A) a variety of lobbying organizations have been formed "in the public interest."
B) the best-known and perhaps most effective public-interest groups are those founded under the leadership of consumer activist Ralph Nader.
C) public-interest groups work for issues that will benefit only the narrow interests of a particular group.
D) public-interest groups are concerned with the overall community.
E) conservative public-interest groups have formed in response to Nader organizations.

Question 19

The Audubon Society and the National Wildlife Federation are examples of interest groups.

A) environmental
B) economic
C) agricultural
D) relatively ineffective
E) professional

Question 20

Most interest groups form to represent interests.

A) economic
B) agricultural
C) foreign
D) environmental
E) professional

Question 21

An independent is a

A) contrarian voter.
B) voter or a candidate who does not identify with a political party.
C) voter or a candidate who votes Democratic.
D) voter or a candidate who votes Republican.
E) voter or a candidate who votes Libertarian.

Question 22

Interest groups recognize that the greatest concern of legislators is to

A) support the principles of their political party.
B) be reelected.
C) vote for the ideas of the constituents.
D) be totally informed on issues requiring their vote.
E) please the congressional leadership.

Question 23

Which of the following best describes indirect techniques employed by an interest group?

A) Testifying before a Congressional committee
B) Lobbying for legislation that the members of a group might not approve of
C) Using the general public or individual constituents to influence government officials
D) Approaching officials personally to try to influence them
E) Suggesting nominations for federal appointments

Question 24

Which of the following is true regarding politics and the Great Depression?

A) The Great Depression shattered the working-class belief in Democratic economic competence.
B) Hoover supported federal relief for the unemployed and the destitute.
C) Roosevelt's relief programs were generally not available to African Americans, resulting in African Americans' antagonism toward the Democratic Party that lasted for decades.
D) The Great Depression shattered the working-class belief in Republican economic competence.
E) The Republican ascendancy lasted from the early 1930s until the late 1960s.

Question 25

Which of the following is NOT a function of U.S. political parties?

A) Taking the responsibility of operating the government
B) Acting as the organized opposition to the party in power
C) Signing up large numbers of committed, dues-paying members
D) Recruiting political candidates
E) Presenting alternative policies

Question 26

Which of the following best describes the realignment of 1968?

A) After 1968, the country was much less divided than before.
B) After 1968, the country shifted to a majority of independents.
C) After 1968, the country shifted to a Democratic majority.
D) After 1968, the country shifted to a Republican majority.
E) After 1968, there was a slow-motion realignment that left the nation almost evenly divided in politics.

Question 27

Which of the following statements about the early Republican Party is false?

A) Thomas Jefferson initially led it.
B) It favored a strong national government.
C) Artisans and farmers supported the party.
D) It was a staunch advocate of states' rights.
E) When it was in office, its members acquired the Louisiana Territory and established a national bank.

Question 28

The modern Republican Party was founded when the issue of divided both existing political parties.

A) income taxation
B) export taxation
C) slavery
D) the stagnant domestic economy
E) government response to public health issues

Question 29

George Washington viewed political parties as a

A) necessity for the functioning of democracy.
B) tradition from colonial times that would always exist.
C) threat to national unity and the concept of popular government.
D) legitimate means for interest groups to attempt to gain control of the government.
E) vestige of politics under Great Britain and thus a thing of the past.

Question 30

A group or bloc in a legislature or political party acting in pursuit of some special interest or position is called an)

A) minority opinion.
B) independent party.
C) exclusive committee.
D) interest group.
E) faction.

Question 31

A political system in which only two parties have a reasonable chance of winning is called

A) a bipartisan government.
B) a two-party system.
C) a bicameral system.
D) bifurcated government.
E) representative democracy.

Question 32

All of the following statements about the early Democratic Party are true EXCEPT

A) it came into existence when the Republican Party split in two.
B) it was organized by supporters of Andrew Jackson.
C) it favored personal liberty and opportunity for the "common man."
D) its hostility toward African Americans was an important force holding it together.
E) it supported a policy of federal spending on "internal improvements" such as roads.

Question 33

Which of the following best describes a national political realignment?

A) When voters abandon a political party in droves
B) When there is a major sea change
C) A large-scale, lasting change in the types of voters who support each of the major political parties
D) A major exodus from a political party to the point that it disappears
E) A change in the dominant school of thought of the time

Question 34

Which of the following is true regarding political party membership?

A) One must pay dues to be a member of a political party.
B) An oath of allegiance is required by most political parties from its members.
C) To be a member of a political party, one must be a card-carrying member.
D) Nothing is required to be a member of a political party.
E) One must pass an examination to be a member of a political party.

Question 35

A major development in the run-up to the 2010 elections was the growth of the movement.

A) Tea Party
B) Socialist
C) Atheist
D) Neo-Whig
E) Labor

Question 36

Under Woodrow Wilson, the Democratic Party

A) rejected progressivism.
B) continued to adhere to the same basic policies that it did in the nineteenth century.
C) began a radical change by becoming at least as receptive as the Republicans to government action in the economy.
D) permanently split into three antagonistic factions.
E) adopted a policy of isolating the United States from the affairs of the rest of the world.

Question 37

are a shorthand way of describing congressional members' voting records for interested citizens.

A) Newspaper op-eds
B) Official legislator evaluations
C) Ratings
D) "Astroturf lobbying" activities
E) Power rankings

Question 38

Title III of the Legislative Reorganization Act of 1946

A) was Congress' first attempt to control lobbyists and lobbying activities.
B) is also known as the Lobbying Disclosure Act.
C) provided for regulation more than for disclosure.
D) failed to include a definition of "lobbyist."
E) proved to be very effective.

Question 39

Which of the following best describes why interest groups try to generate public pressure?

A) To convince policymakers that public opinion supports the group's position
B) To get the public to support only environmental initiatives
C) To avoid the legislative process
D) To make bureaucrats testify before Congress
E) To directly lobby lawmakers

Question 40

Legislation to reform the regulation of federal lobbying in 1995 resulted in all of the following EXCEPT

A) lobbyists were forced to register.
B) lobbying efforts had to be disclosed in semiannual reports.
C) the Senate adopted a flat ban on gifts provided by lobbyists.
D) a lobbyist was defined as someone who spent at least 20 percent of his or her time lobbying Congress, their staffs, or executive-branch officials.
E) the House adopted a flat ban on gifts provided by lobbyists.

Question 41

The document drawn up at each national convention outlining the policies, positions, and principles of the party is called the

A) rulebook.
B) statement of intent.
C) party platform.
D) national promise.
E) political covenant.

Question 42

Which of the following best describes patronage?

A) The practice of rewarding faithful party workers and followers with government employment and contracts
B) Putting family members in government jobs
C) Committing to voting for something in exchange for a favorable vote in return
D) Equal opportunity without regard to race, creed, gender, national origin, or sexual orientation
E) Giving people a reason to do something

Question 43

Divided government is best understood as

A) the situation when a person votes for candidates of two parties for different offices.
B) the situation when the presidency and Congress are controlled by different parties.
C) another name for federalism.
D) increasing the control of the winning party in an election.
E) the indication of a strong party identification among voters.

Question 44

Explain how economic interest groups, public-interest groups, and single-issue interest groups differ from each other.

Question 45

One of the main ways third parties have influenced American politics is by

A) refusing to allow their policies to be adopted by a major party.
B) sometimes determining the outcome of an election by pulling votes from one of the major-party candidates.
C) focusing their efforts on getting judges appointed to the bench rather than winning elections for the executive or legislative branches.
D) winning elections to state legislative bodies.
E) gaining control of several municipal governments.

Question 46

Many political scientists believe that third parties

A) have consistently failed because they never reflect the political mood of the nation.
B) have acted as safety valves for dissident groups, preventing major confrontations and political unrest.
C) can only come into existence if they are organized around a single charismatic leader.
D) can only come into existence if they split off from one of the major political parties.
E) are incapable of being formed from scratch by individuals who are committed to a particular issue or ideology.

Question 47

The party organization is

A) the members of the general public who identify with a political party.
B) the formal structure and leadership of a political party.
C) all of the elected and appointed officials who identify with a party.
D) the urban machines that distribute social benefits.
E) responsible only for mundane matters such as printing signs and scheduling events.

Question 48

The is one by which all of a state's electoral votes are cast for the presidential candidate who receives a plurality of the votes in that state.

A) patronage rule
B) straight-ticket rule
C) apportionment rule
D) winner-take-all rule
E) unit rule

Question 49

What is a plurality system?

A) Whoever gets the most votes wins.
B) Candidates must get more than 50 percent of votes cast to win.
C) Votes are allocated to candidates on a proportional basis.
D) Only parties receiving more than 5 percent of the vote are allocated seats.
E) A party must have competed in a previous election to be placed on the ballot.

Question 50

Why do we only have two major parties? Explain the factors that have perpetuated the two-party system in the United States.

Question 51

Explain the importance of political parties to the U.S. political system in terms of the functions they perform.

Question 52

Describe the evolution of political parties in the United States.

Question 53

Explain the indirect techniques used by interest groups. Which techniques are more influential?

Question 54

The national convention of a national political party

A) is held every nine years.
B) officially nominates the presidential and vice-presidential candidates.
C) works behind closed doors.
D) purges its membership regularly.
E) promotes the development of third parties.

Question 55

Contrast the various economic interest groups that exist in the nation. Does one group or groups) stand a better chance of success than others to succeed in influencing public policy? Why or why not?

Question 56

For a political party, the national committee

A) is not authorized to play any role in financing the party's activities.
B) is the strongest and most powerful part of the party.
C) is dissolved after presidential elections.
D) chooses the party's nominee for president.
E) directs and coordinates party activities between national party conventions.

Question 57

Explain the activities of political parties at the national, state, and local levels.

Question 58

Should there be more regulation of lobbyists and interest groups? Explain your answer.

Question 59

Identify which groups are most likely to be left out of the system of interest group politics. What significance does this have for society?

Question 60

What direct techniques are used by interest groups? Why do you think they choose a particular technique over others that they may employ?