Deck 3: Federalism

Question 1

Examples of enumerated powers belonging exclusively to the national government include

A) declaring war and coining money.
B) taxation and establishment of courts.
C) regulating commerce and crime within states.
D) regulating public schools and divorces.
E) taxing exports and holding elections.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Which government system is the most popular, both historically and today?

A) A unitary system
B) A confederal system
C) A federal system
D) A bicameral system
E) A grassroots system

Answer 2

A

Question 3

A special category of national powers that is not implied by the necessary and proper clause consists of what have been labelled powers of the national government.

A) the inherent
B) the enumerated or expressed
C) reserved
D) concurrent
E) in the necessary and proper clause.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Which is an example of an interstate compact?

A) The rules set forth in Article IV of the Constitution
B) The Bill of Rights
C) The Alien and Sedition Acts
D) The Marbury v. Madison decision
E) The Port Authority of New York and New Jersey

Question 5

The Tenth Amendment states that the powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are

A) the sole authority of Congress.
B) reserved to the central government.
C) reserved to the states, or to the people.
D) the sole authority of the executive branch.
E) subject to judicial review.

Question 6

All of the following is true about a confederal system EXCEPT

A) it is opposite of a unitary system.
B) it was the form of government used in the United States under the Articles of Confederation.
C) the central government has only those powers granted to it by the states.
D) it is the form of government used in the United States today.
E) few, if any, true confederations exist.

Question 7

All of the following statements concerning a federal system of government are true EXCEPT

A) they always have a bicameral legislature.
B) they are divided between a central government and regional, or subdivisional, governments.
C) some powers are bestowed upon the central government, and others are granted to the regional governments.
D) power is not concentrated in a unicameral legislature within a strong central government.
E) power is exercised by the national government only insofar as these powers are granted by the states.

Question 8

Which clause of the Constitution allows Congress to carry out whatever law it needs to in order to carry out the Constitution's provisions?

A) Necessary and proper clause
B) Supremacy clause
C) Concurrent clause
D) Reserved powers clause
E) Due process clause

Question 9

According to the Constitution, if a state or local law conflicts with a national law,

A) the law must be put to a popular vote.
B) the law is null and void.
C) the local law prevails.
D) the national law supercedes the state or local law.
E) the state law will prevail.

Question 10

States may NOT

A) license marriages.
B) pass laws regulating contracts.
C) regulate divorce.
D) negotiate treaties with foreign nations.
E) impose taxes on income.

Question 11

Inherent powers derive from the fact that the United States is

A) a democratic republic.
B) a confederation formed by state governments.
C) a sovereign power among nations.
D) a federal system.
E) explicitly entitled by the Constitution to annex new territory.

Question 12

Which of the following is an argument against federalism?

A) That too much inequity exists between states in a federal system
B) That it prevents creation of a strong party system
C) The rigidity of the national government in confronting change
D) That it is difficult for governors to become president
E) That it is too simplistic for a nation with a large geographic area and population

Question 13

Each state must do all of the following concerning other states EXCEPT

A) give full faith and credit to one another's public civil acts.
B) enforce each other's laws.
C) give full faith and credit to each other's public records.
D) gve full faith and credit to one another's public legal proceedings.
E) return people fleeing from justice to the state where the crime occurred.

Question 14

Which of the following is NOT a sound argument for a federalist system of government?

A) The large area or population of some nations makes it impractical to locate all political authority in one place.
B) Federalism brings government closer to the people.
C) Federalism offers a "training ground" for national leaders.
D) States are testing grounds for new government initiatives.
E) Federalism allows powerful state and local interests to block progress and impede national plans.

Question 15

Powers held jointly by the national and state governments are called

A) cooperative powers.
B) statutory powers.
C) reserved powers.
D) concurrent powers.
E) inherent powers.

Question 16

Their power enables states to pass laws governing such activities as marriage, contracts, education, and land use.

A) commerce clause
B) enumerated
C) emergency
D) necessary and proper
E) police

Question 17

The supremacy clause of the Constitution means that

A) the original Constitution is superior to any amendment.
B) the original states have a superior status when dealing with states created after 1789.
C) states cannot use their powers to thwart national policies.
D) Congress cannot pass legislation that would violate state laws or constitutions.
E) treaties with foreign governments cannot overturn state laws.

Question 18

Constitutionally, which two sets of powers do state governments have?

A) Enumerated and expressed powers
B) Reserved and concurrent powers
C) Direct and inherent powers
D) Expressed and implied powers
E) Inherent and police powers

Question 19

In unitary government systems, ultimate authority resides at the level.

A) state or provincial
B) local or municipal
C) regional
D) national or central
E) individual

Question 20

The federal system in the United States occurred because of

A) disputes involving freedom of religion.
B) consensus that unitary government threatens liberty.
C) unitary failure.
D) a series of compromises.
E) copying the continental European political model.

Question 21

During the Jacksonian era 1829-1837), a shift toward began.

A) a service sector-based economy
B) women's suffrage
C) more activist international intervention
D) a strong national government
E) states' rights

Question 22

From 1801 to 1835, the Supreme Court was headed by Chief Justice .

A) Henry Clay.
B) Samuel Alito.
C) John Jay.
D) John Marshall.
E) Roger Taney.

Question 23

During the Civil War crisis, the Supreme Court

A) was drastically reduced in its influence within the United States.
B) continued as the legitimate constitutional umpire.
C) gained additional power, along with the rest of the national government.
D) ruled that the initial plan of Congress to reconstruct the South was unconstitutional.
E) had supported the abolition of slavery in the years leading up to the war.

Question 24

Post Civil War, the doctrine of dual federalism meant

A) a significant increase in the powers of the national government.
B) a "return to normalcy" for many.
C) continued expansion of the North's wartime powers.
D) allowing the national government to regulate all state actions affecting African Americans.
E) allowing the state and national governments to interfere in each other's areas of influence.

Question 25

In the 1930s and subsequent decades, the became the primary constitutional basis for national government regulation.

A) commerce clause
B) Bill of Rights
C) necessary and proper clause
D) Treaty of Versailles
E) Work Projects Administration WPA)

Question 26

On December 20, 1860, formally repealed its ratification of the Constitution and withdrew from the Union.

A) Alabama
B) South Carolina
C) Louisiana
D) Georgia
E) Virginia

Question 27

A model of federalism in which the states and the national government work together to solve problems is called

A) New Deal federalism.
B) compromise federalism.
C) continental federalism.
D) dual federalism.
E) cooperative federalism.

Question 28

Ultimately, the Civil War resulted in

A) the end of the idea that social problems should be dealt with by the national government.
B) the expansion of the agricultural sector of the U.S. economy.
C) a shift from a federal to a confederal system of government.
D) an increase in states' rights.
E) an increase in the political power of national government.

Question 29

The section of the Constitution in which Congress is given the authority to regulate trade among the states and with foreign countries is called the

A) oversight clause.
B) commerce clause.
C) supremacy clause.
D) necessary and proper clause.
E) interstate compact clause.

Question 30

A model of federalism that looks on national and state governments as co-equal sovereign powers, neither of which should interfere in the other's sphere is called

A) confederalism.
B) cooperative federalism.
C) dual federalism.
D) separate-but-equal federalism.
E) post-war federalism.

Question 31

The controversy over slavery that led to the Civil War took the form of a dispute over

A) national government supremacy versus the rights of the separate states.
B) interstate commerce.
C) the application of the Bill of Rights to the states.
D) taxation.
E) the admission of Texas into the Union.

Question 32

In his ruling on Gibbons v. Ogden, Marshall defined commerce as

A) any business dealings between legally incorporated organizations.
B) any business dealing requiring an operating license.
C) all business dealings having to do with the physical exchange of currency.
D) all business dealings, including navigation and the transport of people.
E) only the shipment of goods.

Question 33

Expanded authority of the national government has traditionally been preferred by

A) liberals.
B) conservatives.
C) libertarians.
D) social conservatives.
E) southern conservatives.

Question 34

All of the following are true about the case of McCulloch v. Maryland EXCEPT

A) the case dealt with the issue of implied powers of the federal government.
B) one issue was whether the federal government could create a national bank.
C) the decision allowed the federal government to grow and expand.
D) the decision upheld the right of the federal government to use the necessary and proper clause.
E) the Supreme Court ruled the national government could only use its express powers.

Question 35

In 1918, the Supreme Court ruled that an earlier national law banning child labor was unconstitutional, because

A) the rights of children are no different from those of adults.
B) it attempted to regulate a local problem.
C) it gave too much discretion to states.
D) it was unenforceable.
E) it interfered with national security.

Question 36

The transfer of powers from a national or central government to a state or local government is called

A) reduction of burden.
B) identity politics.
C) devolution.
D) evolution.
E) dissemination.

Question 37

Under what circumstances may states enter into agreements with one another?

A) The agreements may not increase the power of the contracting states relative to other states or to the federal government.
B) All states in that region must approve of the agreement.
C) Three­fourths of both states' legislators must approve the agreement.
D) A majority of the people in each state must approve of the agreement.
E) The combined population of the two agreeing states must be smaller than the population of the largest U.S. state.

Question 38

have traditionally favored the allocation of power to the states.

A) Liberals
B) Conservatives
C) Libertarians
D) Civil rights activists
E) Political independents

Question 39

In the early years, most of the disputes over the boundaries of national versus state power involved

A) different interpretations of the inherent powers of the national government.
B) the role of the national government in mediating disputes between the states.
C) the ability of the states to enter into international treaties.
D) the enforcement of the Bill of Rights.
E) the necessary and proper clause and the powers of the national government to regulate interstate commerce.

Question 40

The doctrine of dual federalism receded into the background as the nation attempted to deal with

A) growing international pressure.
B) the aftermath of World War I.
C) the aftermath of the Civil War.
D) the Great Depression.
E) rampant political corruption.

Question 41

Categorical grants are

A) federal grants to states or local governments for specific programs or projects.
B) emergency grants to states for unforeseen circumstances.
C) a very recent form of national government support to school districts.
D) unconstitutional because of separation of powers.
E) federal grants to states or local governments for general operating expenses.

Question 42

The No Child Left Behind Act of 2001

A) gave the states more control of their schools.
B) established a school voucher system.
C) increased the local school boards' freedom in evaluating student achievement.
D) increased federal control over education.
E) was enacted by Congress under Democratic President Bill Clinton.

Question 43

Compare and contrast the categorical and block grants. How do federal mandates have an impact on the states?
How can different types of federal grants be used to influence states' policies?

Question 44

When the Supreme Court heard cases involving federalism in the last decade, the rulings they gave can best be perceived as

A) in line with decisions of previous decades.
B) unconstitutional.
C) supporting a strong federal government.
D) supporting states' rights.
E) sending mixed messages.

Question 45

The 1995 case, , marked the first time in sixty years that the Supreme Court had placed a limit on the national government's authority under the commerce clause.

A) McCulloch v. Maryland
B) Roe v. Wade
C) Gibbons v. Ogden
D) United States v. Lopez
E) Brown v. Board of Education

Question 46

Explain the important issues in McCulloch v. Maryland and Gibbons v. Ogden. What has been the impact of these decisions on the relationship between the federal and state governments?

Question 47

From 1801-1835, the Supreme Court was headed by Chief Justice John Marshall, a Federalist who advocated a strong central government. Using cases heard by the Supreme Court during that period, show how John Marshall's political beliefs affected the relationship between states and the federal government.

Question 48

What three models exist for organizing relations between a central government and local or subnational governments? Compare and contrast each model in terms of their advantages and disadvantages.

Question 49

In the 1980s and 1990s, the federal government used to force the states to raise their minimum alcoholic beverage drinking age to 21.

A) new legislation
B) conditions attached to federal highway grants
C) a Supreme Court ruling
D) international standards
E) a series of lawsuits

Question 50

Describe the effects of the Civil War on states' rights and the size of the national government.

Question 51

What are implied powers? Describe several examples.

Question 52

Individual health insurance mandates and the ability of states to ban same-sex marriage are two issues that

A) have been decided by the Supreme Court recently.
B) are currently being decided by the Supreme Court.
C) the Supreme Court has refused to consider.
D) can only be decided by the states.
E) have been criticized for being unfunded mandates.

Question 53

Since the ratification of the Constitution, there has been controversy between the federal government and state governments about the appropriate division of power. Explain how the federal government has gained power at the expense of state governments. Indicate what state governments could do to regain power from the federal government.

Question 54

A federal grant that provides funds to a state or local government for a general functional area is called a

A) project grant.
B) block grant.
C) community action grant.
D) basic grant.
E) categorical grant.

Question 55

Why is there a concern in some states with the full faith and credit provision of the Constitution if some states allow gay marriages?

Question 56

One major set of provides aid to state welfare programs.

A) categorical grants
B) program grants
C) federal mandates
D) block grants
E) municipal grants

Question 57

Explain why liberals have traditionally endorsed national authority.

Question 58

All of the following statements regarding federal mandates are true EXCEPT

A) requirements in federal legislation have been passed that force states to comply with certain rules.
B) the Federal Government has mandated that states take action with respect to voter registration.
C) federal mandates always are accompanied by federal funding.
D) an Act of Congress requires the Congressional Budget Office to identify mandates that cost more than $50 million to implement.
E) states may not ignore federal mandates.

Question 59

All are true of federal grants EXCEPT

A) that they increased significantly during the twentieth century.
B) that they have been used for education, pollution control, recreation, and highway construction.
C) that they quadrupled in dollar amount in the 1960s.
D) that they are given by the states for national projects.
E) that they have been accompanied by a multitude of restrictions and regulations.

Question 60

Analyze the provisions of full faith and credit, privileges and immunities, and extradition in the U. S. Constitution. What do they have in common? How are they different?