Deck 17: Immunological Disorders

Question 1

Regarding a mismatch of either the Rh antigen or the AB antigen, both

A) result in destruction of red blood cells by the foreign antigen.
B) use complement to destroy red blood cells.
C) use antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity to destroy the red blood cells.
D) result in destruction of only leukocytes.
E) use either complement or ADCC to destroy red blood cells.

Answer 1

E

Question 2

Urticaria is characterized by

A) diarrhea.
B) wheal and flare.
C) asthma.
D) inflammation.
E) weeping edema.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Generalized anaphylaxis is generally characterized by

A) wheal and flare.
B) inflammation.
C) shock.
D) rash.
E) sepsis.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

IgE molecules involved in hypersensitivity reactions have become attached to

A) neutrophils.
B) mast cells.
C) B cells.
D) macrophages.
E) mast cells AND B cells.

Question 5

Recombinant human monoclonal antibody (rhuMAb)

A) appears promising as a treatment for asthma AND uses an engineered form of an IgG molecule.
B) promotes crosslinking between IgE molecules on the mast cells AND appears promising as a treatment for asthma.
C) appears promising as a treatment for asthma AND decreases the levels of IgG.
D) uses an engineered form of an IgG molecule AND promotes crosslinking between IgE molecules on the mast cells.
E) appears promising as a treatment for asthma AND uses an engineered form of an IgM molecule.

Question 6

If the immune system responds inadequately to antigenic stimulation, this is termed

A) hypersensitivity.
B) immunodeficiency.
C) autoimmunity.
D) cell-mediated immunity.
E) allergy.

Question 7

Hemolytic disease of the newborn

A) may not manifest itself fully until after birth.
B) is due to the action of IgM.
C) is due to the action of IgE.
D) is a type I hypersensitivity reaction.
E) may not manifest itself fully until after birth AND is due to the action of IgE.

Question 8

The immunoglobulin associated with Type I hypersensitivity is

A) IgG.
B) IgE.
C) IgA.
D) IgM.
E) IgD.

Question 9

Most cases of generalized anaphylaxis are a result of

A) fire ant stings and bites.
B) aspirin and heparin.
C) bananas and strawberries.
D) peanuts, bee stings, or penicillin injections.
E) All of these.

Question 10

During a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, the mast cells

A) become phagocytic AND release IgG.
B) degranulate AND release IgE antibodies.
C) take up histamine AND immediately degranulate.
D) become phagocytic AND immediately release histamine.
E) degranulate AND immediately release histamine.

Question 11

A transfusion reaction primarily involves

A) leukocytes.
B) erythrocytes.
C) phagocytes.
D) platelets.
E) IgE.

Question 12

The initial work on anaphylaxis was done by

A) Watson and Crick.
B) Pasteur.
C) Richet and Portier.
D) Fleming.
E) van Leeuwenhoek.

Question 13

To produce an allergic reaction in Type I hypersensitivity, the antigen

A) must bind to mast cells.
B) must bind to free IgE molecules.
C) must just bind to IgE on mast cells.
D) must bind to two neighboring IgE molecules on mast cells, crosslinking them.
E) must bind to two neighboring IgM molecules on mast cells, crosslinking them.

Question 14

The type of hypersensitivity expressed with the lysing of red blood cells is

A) type I.
B) type II.
C) type III.
D) type IV.
E) type V.

Question 15

The hypersensitivity treatment that stimulates an increase of IgG and regulatory T cells, as well as causes a decrease in IgE, is known as

A) desensitization.
B) immunity.
C) sensitization.
D) exposure.
E) anaphylaxis.

Question 16

Desensitization

A) stimulates an increase in IgG AND reduces the number of mast cells.
B) reduces the number of mast cells AND increases the number of basophil cells.
C) stimulates an increase in IgG AND is a treatment for hypersensitivity reactions.
D) increases the number of basophil cells AND is a treatment for hypersensitivity reactions.
E) increases the number of mast cells AND decreases the number of basophil cells.

Question 17

Anti-A and anti-B antibodies

A) are considered natural antibodies.
B) are present at birth.
C) are typically IgM.
D) easily cross the placenta.
E) are considered natural antibodies AND are typically IgM.

Question 18

Antibodies that have arisen in the blood plasma without any obvious or deliberate stimulus are called

A) natural.
B) acquired.
C) injurious.
D) active.
E) inactive.

Question 19

The cell type responsible for type II hypersensitivity is the

A) mast cell.
B) B cell.
C) macrophage.
D) platelet.
E) neutrophil.

Question 20

The natural antibodies in serum that react with A or B polysaccharide antigens are mostly of the class

A) IgG.
B) IgE.
C) IgM.
D) IgD.
E) IgA.

Question 21

Arthus reactions and serum sickness are examples of ________ hypersensitivity.

A) type I
B) type II
C) type III
D) type IV
E) type V

Question 22

The tissue antigens most involved in graft rejection involve

A) Rhesus antigen.
B) ABO antigens.
C) MHC molecules.
D) MLB proteins.
E) immune complexes.

Question 23

The fetus is not rejected because

A) it is too small.
B) it is in an immunologically privileged site.
C) the father is immunosuppressed.
D) it has no antigens.
E) it has no normal microbiota.

Question 24

Localized injury or death of tissue resulting from repeated injections of an antigen into a person with high levels of circulating specific antibody is known as

A) farmer's lung.
B) German measles.
C) serum sickness.
D) an Arthus reaction.
E) disseminated intravascular coagulation.

Question 25

Delayed-type cell-mediated hypersensitivity primarily involves

A) erythrocytes.
B) B cells.
C) T cells.
D) mast cells.
E) T cells and platelets.

Question 26

Cyclosporin A

A) is a relatively general immunosuppressive agent AND activates macrophages.
B) suppresses T-cell proliferation AND activates macrophages.
C) activates macrophages AND stimulates antibody production.
D) stimulates antibody production AND stimulates T-cell proliferation.
E) is a relatively general immunosuppressant AND suppresses T-cell proliferation.

Question 27

Which of the following have been an effective immunosuppressant for use in transplantation?

A) Amphotericin B and cephalosporin
B) Amphotericin B and cyclosporin A
C) Amphotericin B and tacrolimus
D) Cephalosporin and tacrolimus
E) Cyclosporin A and tacrolimus

Question 28

Delayed-type cell-mediated hypersensitivity is also known as ________ hypersensitivity.

A) type I
B) type II
C) type III
D) type IV
E) type V

Question 29

Patch tests are used to detect

A) hives.
B) serum sickness.
C) immune complexes.
D) contact hypersensitivity.
E) Arthus reaction.

Question 30

Allografts

A) are normally rejected within hours.
B) are grafts between non-identical members of the same species.
C) involve tissues from non-human animals.
D) are grafts between identical members of the same species.
E) are grafts between identical twins.

Question 31

Immunosuppressive drugs

A) are only needed during the first week after transplantation.
B) are only needed for the first year after transplantation.
C) are needed indefinitely after transplantation.
D) are needed for transplants between identical twins.
E) are needed indefinitely after transplantation AND are needed for transplants between identical twins.

Question 32

The redness and induration found after a tuberculin skin test involve the action of

A) sensitized T cells.
B) IgE.
C) complement proteins.
D) basophil cells.
E) activated dendritic cells.

Question 33

Type IV hypersensitivity reactions typically peak within

A) 2-3 days.
B) 12 hours.
C) weeks.
D) minutes.
E) seconds.

Question 34

Which of the following disease states is not among those caused by immune complexes?

A) Systemic lupus erythematosus
B) Serum sickness
C) Hay fever
D) Glomerulonephritis
E) Disseminated intravascular coagulation

Question 35

Which of the following is associated with contact dermatitis?

A) poison ivy.
B) latex.
C) tuberculin skin test.
D) hay fever.
E) poison ivy, latex, AND tuberculin skin test.

Question 36

If the thymus fails to develop,

A) functional T cells are absent.
B) functional B cells are absent.
C) Di George's syndrome exists.
D) complement deficiencies exist.
E) functional T cells are absent AND Di George's syndrome exists.

Question 37

Killing of graft cells occurs through a complex series of mechanisms including

A) sensitized T cytotoxic cells AND NK cells.
B) sensitized T cytotoxic cells AND erythrocytes.
C) NK cells AND erythrocytes.
D) erythrocytes AND basophils.
E) sensitized T cytotoxic cells AND basophilic cells.

Question 38

Which of the following about immune complexes is FALSE?

A) They consist of antigen-antibody bound together.
B) They are usually cleared rapidly from the body.
C) They bind to Fc receptors on cells.
D) They are involved in type II hypersensitivity reactions.
E) They are involved in type III hypersensitivity reactions

Question 39

Which of the following primary immunodeficiencies is/are the most common?

A) Severe combined immunodeficiency
B) Selective IgA deficiency
C) Agammaglobulinemia
D) Di George's syndrome
E) Agammaglobulinemia AND Di George's syndrome

Question 40

Graft-versus-host disease is primarily a

A) type I reaction.
B) type II reaction.
C) type III reaction.
D) type IV reaction.
E) type V reaction.

Question 41

A lack of T cells makes one more vulnerable to intracellular parasites.

Question 42

Why do Rh-negative but not Rh-positive mothers sometimes have babies with hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A) This disease results when an Rh-negative mother's immune system is primed to produce anti-Rh IgG antibodies that can cross the placenta. If the mother is Rh-positive, she won't produce any anti-Rh antibodies at all.
B) Rh-positive mothers produce IgM antibody, not IgG. Even although they make anti-Rh antibody, IgM antibody can't cross the placenta, so it can't cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
C) Rh-positive mothers will receive a preventative shot from their physician prior to conception. This will provide the protection the fetus needs AFTER conception to avoid the disease.
D) Rh-negativity is also associated with hyperproduction of antibodies. As such, Rh-negative mothers are more likely than Rh-positive mothers to produce the antibodies needed to produce this disease.
E) This disease results when an Rh-positive mother's immune system is primed to produce anti-Rh IgG antibodies that can cross the placenta. If the mother is Rh-negative, she won't produce any anti-Rh antibodies at all.

Question 43

Which of the following is NOT true about HIV?

A) It leads to development of AIDS.
B) It is a retrovirus virus.
C) It destroys T helper cells.
D) It makes the patient vulnerable to infections.
E) It is a dsDNA virus.

Question 44

Anti-A and anti-B antibodies are natural antibodies and are present at birth.

Question 45

Stem cells

A) have an almost unlimited capacity to divide.
B) can differentiate into different tissues.
C) may be used to test the effects of drugs on human cells.
D) come from fetal material.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.

Question 46

Anaphylaxis is the name given to allergic reactions caused by IgE-mediated release of mast cell granules.

Question 47

Type O blood is missing both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.

Question 48

Gene therapy technology

A) may be used to generate cells for transplantation.
B) may overcome graft rejection.
C) may treat cancer.
D) may down-regulate the immune response.
E) may overcome graft rejections AND may treat cancer.

Question 49

MHC plays a pivotal role in transplant rejection.

Question 50

Allergic rhinitis and hives may both respond to antihistamines.

Question 51

A secondary immunodeficiency disease is not the result of

A) genetic defects.
B) malignancies.
C) advanced age.
D) malnutrition.
E) certain virus infections.

Question 52

If the body recognizes parts of itself as being foreign, this is termed

A) immunodeficiency disease.
B) agammaglobulinemia.
C) autoimmune disease.
D) AIDS.
E) hypersensitivity.

Question 53

Generalized anaphylaxis may be quickly controlled with the use of antihistamines.

Question 54

Anti-Rh antibodies may not cross the placenta.

Question 55

Defects in bone marrow stem cells result in a condition known as

A) SCID.
B) AIDS.
C) Di George's syndrome.
D) Chediak-Higashi disease.
E) Chronic granulomatous disease.

Question 56

First exposure to an allergen results in a violent hypersensitivity reaction.

Question 57

Mismatch of either the Rh antigen or the AB antigen results in lysis of red blood cells by complement.

Question 58

If a patient lacks B cells, the resulting disease is

A) SCID.
B) AIDS.
C) agammaglobulinemia.
D) Di George's syndrome.
E) chronic granulomatous disease.

Question 59

Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is an example of an autoimmune disease that involves

A) sensitized T cells.
B) cytotoxic T cells.
C) antibodies.
D) IgD.
E) phagocytosis.

Question 60

Myasthenia gravis is an example of an autoimmune disease that involves

A) sensitized T cells.
B) cytotoxic T cells.
C) antibodies.
D) IgD.
E) muscle genes.

Question 61

Allergic reactions occur only in people who are sensitized by prior exposure to a specific allergen. Please identify the correct sequence of events that occur in a type I response.
1) The activated B cells proliferate into IgE-producing plasma cells and memory cells.
2) The Fc portion of the IgE binds to Fc receptors on either mast cells or basophils, so that the Fab sites of the antibodies can interact with a specific allergen.
3) Sensitization begins when the first contact with the allergen induces an antibody response-helper T cells activate naive B cells.
4) Cross-linking triggers the mast cell or basophil to undergo degranulation, a process that releases its inflammatory mediators.
5) On second exposure to the antigen, when adjacent IgE molecules on a mast cell or basophil bind to that antigen, the IgE molecules are cross-linked.
6) These inflammatory mediators can have a variety of effects associated with a type I allergy response.

A) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 6
B) 2, 3, 1, 4, 6, 5
C) 6, 4, 3, 2, 5, 1
D) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4, 6
E) 3, 1, 6, 5, 2, 4

Question 62

Please select the correct sequence of events that occur during an immune-complex hypersensitivity reaction.
1) When antigen is in slight excess, immune complexes form.
2) Immune-complexes activate complement, resulting in increased vascular permeability.
3) Neutrophils are attracted, and release enzymes that cause tissue damage.
4) Circulating immune complexes are trapped in the blood vessels, initiating inflammation.

A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 2, 4, 3
C) 4, 3, 1, 2
D) 1, 3, 2, 4
E) 4, 3, 2, 1

Question 63

Your friend reminds you that hypersensitivity is an exaggerated immune response that injures tissue and can be categorized into one of four groups according to the mechanisms and timing of the response. He tells you that seasonal allergies are an example of type I hypersensitivity and describes the characteristics of this response. What statement made by your friend is INCORRECT?

A) The effector cells involved in a type I response are B cells.
B) A very common form of IgE-mediated allergy is systemic anaphylaxis.
C) The mediators involved in the response include histidines, leukotrienes and prostaglandins.
D) Examples of type I hypersensitivities include hives, asthma, and anaphylactic shock.
E) Other cells involved in the response are basophils and mast cells.

Question 64

You've forgotten what happens after sensitization, so your friend gives you a summary. Which is the CORRECT statement?

A) Complement protein C3a binds to two IgE molecules bound to the surface of the basophil, causing it to degranulate and release histamine and other mediators.
B) On second exposure, complement protein C3a binds to two IgG molecules attached to the surface of the mast cell, causing it to degranulate and release interleukins.
C) On second exposure, complement protein C5b cross-links two allergen molecules bound to the surface of the basophil, causing it to degranulate and release histamine and other mediators.
D) On second exposure, the allergen cross-links two IgE antibodies bound to the surface of the basophil, causing it to degranulate and release histamine and other mediators.
E) Second exposure to the allergen causes activation of B cells that are initially programmed to produce IgM molecules, but then undergo class switching to produce IgE.

Question 65

Which of the following is the correct explanation of desensitization?

A) In desensitization, a person is injected with dilute preparations of an allergen, causing their immune system to produce IgE against that allergen. The IgE antibodies protect the patient by binding to the antigen, coating it and facilitating its removal before it can attach to bound IgG on mast cells or basophils.
B) In desensitization, a person is injected with dilute preparations of an allergen, causing their immune system to produce multiple varied antibodies against that allergen. These antibodies protect the patient by binding to the antigen, coating it and destroying it before it can attach to bound IgE on mast cells or basophils.
C) In desensitization, a newborn baby is exposed to multiple common allergens, stimulating the infant's immune system to produce antibodies against those allergens. The antibodies protect the child later in life by binding to any antigens they come into contact with, tagging them for destruction before they cause an allergic response.
D) In desensitization, a pregnant woman is injected with dilute preparations of an allergen, causing their immune system to produce IgG against that allergen. The IgG antibodies cross the placenta, protecting the fetus by preventing it from being exposed to those allergens after birth.
E) In desensitization, a person is injected with dilute preparations of an allergen, causing their immune system to produce IgG against that allergen. The IgG antibodies protect the patient by binding to the antigen, coating it and facilitating its removal before it can attach to bound IgE on mast cells or basophils.

Question 66

What type of hypersensitivity reaction causes rejection of transplanted organs?

A) Immediate IgE-mediated
B) Cytotoxic
C) Immune-complex mediated
D) Delayed-type cell-mediated
E) Cytotoxic OR delayed-type cell-mediated

Question 67

Why does a sensitized person not experience a skin reaction immediately after exposure to poison oak?

A) The reaction is caused by activation of memory B cells formed as a result of the first exposure. Active B cells are not formed immediately.
B) The reaction is caused by activation of plasma cells formed as a result of the first exposure. Active B cells are not formed immediately.
C) The reaction is caused by activation of memory T cells formed as a result of the first exposure. Active T cells are not formed immediately.
D) The reaction is caused by activation of macrophages formed as a result of the first exposure. Activated macrophages are not formed immediately.
E) The reaction is caused by activation of dendritic cells formed as a result of the first exposure. Activated dendritic cells are not formed immediately.

Question 68

Which autoimmune disease is CORRECTLY described?

A) Systemic lupus erythematosus-antibodies bind to acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, thereby blocking nerve impulses that normally cause muscle contraction.
B) Diabetes mellitus-characterized by a variety of autoantibodies and immune complexes that lodge in tissues around the body, causing damage.
C) Grave's disease-antibodies bind to the THS receptor of the thyroid and activate it inappropriately, leading to increased thyroid hormone production and enlargement of the gland.
D) Myesthenia gravis-infiltration of connective tissues, most often within joints, by T cells that release cytokines and cause inflammation.
E) Rheumatoid arthritis-formation of immune complexes in small blood vessels caused by autoantibodies to DNA and other nuclear components.

Question 69

What is NOT a reason that the kidneys are particularly prone to damage caused by immune complexes?

A) Kidney blood vessel wall cells have receptors for antibodies on them, which makes them take up antibodies or immune complexes from the bloodstream. This blocks the kidneys up and causes them to malfunction and become damaged.
B) Blood is pushed through the kidneys at a very high pressure. Any blockage of the vessels, such as what might be caused by immune complex deposits, can lead to ruptures/inflammation and damage of these organs.
C) While blood vessel walls do NOT have receptors for antibodies, large immune complexes forced through small diameter vessels can become embedded within them. This can trigger complement system inflammation and cell destruction.
D) Trapped immune complexes that initiate inflammation can attract neutrophils. The neutrophils degranulate in the area of the immune complexes, leading to cell/tissue destruction.
E) These are all reasons that the kidneys are very susceptible to damage caused by immune complexes.

Question 70

In which of the following is/are B cells involved?

A) Asthma, hemolytic disease of the newborn, AND allergic contact dermatitis
B) Hives, transplanted organ rejection, AND transfusion reactions
C) Systemic anaphylaxis, hives, AND graft-versus-host reactions
D) Anaphylactic shock, hemolytic disease of the newborn, AND glomerulonephritis
E) Hives, transfusion reactions, disseminated intravascular coagulation, AND allergic contact dermatitis

Question 71

In the tuberculin skin test, what would be the most likely reason why a positive test would NOT necessarily indicate an infection in progress in a patient who was born and grew up in the United States?

A) False-positives occur all the time. This might simply be an example of that.
B) The TB skin test is a measure of reactivation of memory T cells. The memory T cells would be formed during an active infection and would remain after the infection cleared. This would result in the test still showing positive, even though the patient is cleared of actual infection.
C) Each person in the United States receives the BCG tuberculosis vaccine. This is an attenuated mycobacterium vaccine. The response to this vaccine makes us positive for the TB skin test, even though we may not have actually had a TB infection at any point in our lives.
D) A positive TB skin test ALWAYS indicates a current, active infection.

Question 72

Please select the INCORRECT definition regarding hypersensitivity.

A) Hypersensitivity-an exaggerated immune response that damages tissues.
B) Degranulation-release of mediators from a cell's granules, such as histamine released from mast cells.
C) Systemic anaphylaxis-an immediate hypersensitivity reaction caused by IgE attached to circulating basophils.
D) Anaphylactic shock-raised blood pressure and increased circulation caused by a severe allergic reaction.
E) Delayed-type cell-mediated hypersensitivity-an exaggerated immune response of antigen-specific T cells.

Question 73

You are very allergic to ragweed pollen, which gives you terrible hay fever. You remember from your own microbiology class that for you to have a reaction to this allergen every year, you must have become sensitized to it. Which step is not involved in or does not lead to sensitization?

A) On first contact with the allergen, an antibody response is induced in the person.
B) Helper T cells activate naive B cells, which proliferate and differentiate.
C) Plasma cells produce IgE specific for the antigen that initiated the response.
D) The Fc portion of the IgE binds to receptors on mast cells or basophils, positioned so that their Fab sites are free.
E) These are all steps involved in sensitization.

Question 74

Which of the following is/are caused by immune-complex mediated hypersensitivities?

A) Arthus reaction AND hemolytic disease of the newborn
B) Arthus reaction, glomerulonephritis, AND disseminated intravascular coagulation
C) Hemolytic disease of the newborn AND transplanted organ rejection
D) Serum sickness, glomerulonephritis, AND allergic contact dermatitis
E) Only disseminated intravascular coagulation

Question 75

If the thymus is removed from a 2-year-old child, which of the following is likely to occur?

A) Decreased success of an organ transplant and increased incidence of cancer.
B) Decreased incidence of cancer and decreased incidence of viral infection.
C) Decreased success of an organ transplant and increased incidence of viral infection.
D) Increased success of an organ transplant and increased incidence of bacterial infection.
E) Increased success of an organ transplant and decreased incidence of bacterial infection.

Question 76

Which allergic condition is characterized by the formation of a wheal and flare?

A) Hives
B) Transfusion reaction
C) Arthus reaction
D) Serum sickness
E) All of these

Question 77

Select the statement that best explains how RhoGAM works.

A) RhoGAM contains anti-Rh antibodies; these bind to any Rh+ erythrocytes that may have entered the mother's circulation from an Rh+ baby, preventing these RBCs from stimulating a primary immune response in the mother.
B) RhoGAM contains anti-Rh antibodies; these bind to any Rh- erythrocytes that may have entered the mother's circulation from an Rh- baby, preventing these RBCs from stimulating a primary immune response in the mother.
C) RhoGAM contains anti-Rh antibodies; these bind to any Rh+ leukocytes that may have entered the mother's circulation from an Rh+ baby, preventing these WBCs from stimulating a primary immune response in the mother.
D) RhoGAM contains anti-Rh antibodies; these bind to any Rh+ erythrocytes that may have entered the mother's circulation from an Rh+ baby, preventing these RBCs from stimulating a secondary immune response in the mother.
E) RhoGAM contains anti-ABO antibodies; these bind to any ABO+ erythrocytes that may have entered the mother's circulation from a ABO+ baby, preventing these RBCs from stimulating a primary immune response in the mother.

Question 78

If a patient received a kidney transplant that was matched well across each of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules, but they stopped taking their anti-rejection drugs, what would happen and why?

A) Nothing; the transplant is matched, so the patient doesn't need the drugs to prevent rejection. The new organ should be seen by the recipient's immune system as "self."
B) The organ will be rejected very quickly, as allografts (tissue from the same species, but a different individual) are seen by the recipient's immune system as "foreign," and are quickly attacked.
C) The organ will be rejected, but it will be a gradual process since it was matched well. There are a number of other proteins that cannot be matched between donors, so the graft will still be viewed as "foreign" by the recipient's immune system, and will still be attacked and rejected.
D) Nothing; since the transplant was accepted for so long with the anti-rejection drugs, the person's immune system has had the time to become accustomed to it and now views the graft as "self." It will not be attacked.
E) Nothing. The anti-rejection drugs are not really necessary once the patient's surgery wounds have healed. At the time their immune system returns to normal, so the new organ will not be rejected.

Question 79

Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell tumor in which a clone of malignant plasma cells produces large amounts of immunoglobulin. With all this excess immunoglobulin, how can a person with multiple myeloma be immunodeficient?

A) All the immunoglobulin produced is most likely specific to one antigen. This limits the ability to respond to the diversity of antigens we encounter.
B) The multiplication of the malignant plasma cells may crowd out normal production of other immune cells required for protective responses.
C) The massive overproduction of immunoglobulin impairs the kidneys, preventing production of the correct hormones from the kidneys to balance immune system cell production from the bone marrow.
D) Through a negative feedback loop, the large amount of immunoglobulin tricks the immune system into thinking it's making a strong response that is needed. As such, it shuts down production of other responses that might truly BE needed to fight off a pathogen.
E) All the immunoglobulin produced is most likely specific to one antigen. This limits the ability to respond to the diversity of antigens we encounter AND the multiplication of the malignant plasma cells may crowd out normal production of other immune cells required for protective responses.

Question 80

What might be an advantage to using an individual's own stem cells instead of pancreatic cell allografts to treat type I diabetes?

A) Stem cells can disable the immune responses that led to the diabetes state in the first place.
B) This process should be far cheaper than the surgical intervention needed for the allograft.
C) You can't do this-stem cell research it is still theoretical, not approved by the FDA, and is currently illegal in the United States. As such, there is no advantage.
D) If you were able to use a person's own cells, it would be considered an autograft rather than an allograft. As such, there should be no HLA/MHC matching required, and no long-term anti-rejection drugs would be needed.
E) This process should be far cheaper than the surgical intervention needed for the allograft AND stem cells can disable the immune responses that led to the diabetes state in the first place.