Deck 28: Insurance
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Deck 28: Insurance
1
What type of insurance would provide payment in circumstances where the insured is held legally responsible for causing the loss or damage to a third party?
A) business interruption insurance
B) property insurance
C) life and disability insurance
D) liability insurance
A) business interruption insurance
B) property insurance
C) life and disability insurance
D) liability insurance
D
2
Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a duty to disclose?
A) It is applicable to the point in time the insurance application is made.
B) It is considered by law to be an insured's ongoing obligation.
C) It requires the prompt,oral communication of material changes to the insurer.
D) Compliance automatically adjusts the policy coverage.
A) It is applicable to the point in time the insurance application is made.
B) It is considered by law to be an insured's ongoing obligation.
C) It requires the prompt,oral communication of material changes to the insurer.
D) Compliance automatically adjusts the policy coverage.
B
3
Upon which of the following qualifications being met on an ongoing basis is insurance protection dependent?
A) the worthiness of the insured
B) the financial health of the insurer
C) the insured's need for insurable protection
D) the payment of insurance premiums
A) the worthiness of the insured
B) the financial health of the insurer
C) the insured's need for insurable protection
D) the payment of insurance premiums
D
4
Why is an insured entitled to collect only the amount of the actual loss incurred from its insurance coverage?
A) Contracts of indemnity prevent profiting from an insured-against event.
B) A bank is entitled to an indemnity contribution on a prorated basis.
C) Insurance coverage typically covers a minimum portion of the value of property.
D) A bank may be entitled to an interest in the proceeds for a secured loss.
A) Contracts of indemnity prevent profiting from an insured-against event.
B) A bank is entitled to an indemnity contribution on a prorated basis.
C) Insurance coverage typically covers a minimum portion of the value of property.
D) A bank may be entitled to an interest in the proceeds for a secured loss.
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5
When an insurer compensates an insured,it has the right to sue a wrongdoer to recover that compensation.What is the legal term for this right?
A) third-party rider
B) third-party endorsement
C) forfeiture
D) subrogation
A) third-party rider
B) third-party endorsement
C) forfeiture
D) subrogation
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6
Which of the following has the main goal of protecting the public from unscrupulous,financially unstable,and otherwise problematic insurance companies?
A) the federal Department of Industry
B) the provincial insurance ombudsman
C) insurance industry legislation
D) consumer protection legislation
A) the federal Department of Industry
B) the provincial insurance ombudsman
C) insurance industry legislation
D) consumer protection legislation
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7
What is the name given to the rule that prevents an insured from collecting on insurance when the loss has resulted from the insured's willful misconduct?
A) third-party endorsement
B) forfeiture rule
C) subrogation
D) third-party rider
A) third-party endorsement
B) forfeiture rule
C) subrogation
D) third-party rider
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8
What is the primary value of insurance to business enterprise?
A) It removes all tort and contract liability risk.
B) It provides a means to shift risk away from the business to an insurer.
C) It shields directors and officers from personal liability.
D) It imposes a duty of utmost good faith on the business enterprise.
A) It removes all tort and contract liability risk.
B) It provides a means to shift risk away from the business to an insurer.
C) It shields directors and officers from personal liability.
D) It imposes a duty of utmost good faith on the business enterprise.
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9
Which of the following is provided for by statute with respect to life insurance?
A) The beneficiaries must contribute to the payment of the premium on a prorated basis.
B) Anyone can insure the life of a person who gives written consent to the contract.
C) It requires a coinsurance clause that prevents coverage for less than its value.
D) Life insurance contracts may require the payment of deductibles on loss.
A) The beneficiaries must contribute to the payment of the premium on a prorated basis.
B) Anyone can insure the life of a person who gives written consent to the contract.
C) It requires a coinsurance clause that prevents coverage for less than its value.
D) Life insurance contracts may require the payment of deductibles on loss.
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10
Which of the following is a known result of the recent disasters,such as the Quebec train derailment and explosion,the flooding in Alberta,and climate change?
A) Insurers are incurring significant subrogation expenses.
B) These events are resulting in higher premiums and changes in the extent of coverage.
C) Comprehensive general liabilities are no longer available.
D) Directors' and officers' liability insurance is now unavailable.
A) Insurers are incurring significant subrogation expenses.
B) These events are resulting in higher premiums and changes in the extent of coverage.
C) Comprehensive general liabilities are no longer available.
D) Directors' and officers' liability insurance is now unavailable.
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11
An insured has noted on its insurance application that its restaurant has a wood fireplace,but it has omitted to comment that occasionally escaped sparks can cause a fire risk.Why would the insured be considered as having complied with its duty to disclose?
A) The insured has to be in a position to fully assess the risk.
B) The insurer has been candid and forthcoming.
C) The insurer is expected to be worldly wise.
D) The insured has to show personal judgement.
A) The insured has to be in a position to fully assess the risk.
B) The insurer has been candid and forthcoming.
C) The insurer is expected to be worldly wise.
D) The insured has to show personal judgement.
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12
In what case did the Supreme Court of Canada hold that an insurer could not deny coverage on the basis of the insured's alleged breach of the duty to disclose because the risk issue was rectified by the insured before the loss occurred?
A) Royal Bank of Canada v. State Farm Fire and Casualty Co. [2005] 1 S.C.R. 799
B) Triple Five Corp. v. Simcoe & Erie Group (1994), AFF’D [1997] 5 W.W.R. 1 (C.A.)
C) Lucena v. Caufurd (1806), 2 B. & P. (N.R.) 269 at 301
D) Marche v. Halifax Insurance Co. [2005] 1 S.C.R. 47
A) Royal Bank of Canada v. State Farm Fire and Casualty Co. [2005] 1 S.C.R. 799
B) Triple Five Corp. v. Simcoe & Erie Group (1994), AFF’D [1997] 5 W.W.R. 1 (C.A.)
C) Lucena v. Caufurd (1806), 2 B. & P. (N.R.) 269 at 301
D) Marche v. Halifax Insurance Co. [2005] 1 S.C.R. 47
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13
Which of the following is a key consequence of the classification of an insurance contract as an instrument of utmost good faith?
A) retaining an insurable interest
B) a right to indemnification
C) a duty to bear a deductible cost
D) an insured's duty to disclose
A) retaining an insurable interest
B) a right to indemnification
C) a duty to bear a deductible cost
D) an insured's duty to disclose
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14
What is the purpose of a deductible in the context of an insurance policy?
A) Risk of loss is shared between the insurer and insured.
B) Certain types of losses are excluded from coverage.
C) The insurer is entitled to deduct defence costs from its payout to the insured.
D) The amount of the insurance proceeds is reduced if the insured is partly at fault.
A) Risk of loss is shared between the insurer and insured.
B) Certain types of losses are excluded from coverage.
C) The insurer is entitled to deduct defence costs from its payout to the insured.
D) The amount of the insurance proceeds is reduced if the insured is partly at fault.
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15
Jasmine is discussing an alteration to her current business insurance coverage.Which of the following will her insurer most likely recommend to Jasmine for this purpose?
A) additional policy
B) rider
C) new policy
D) endorsement
A) additional policy
B) rider
C) new policy
D) endorsement
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16
What type of insurance would provide coverage for the costs of a machine breakdown?
A) business interruption insurance
B) property insurance
C) casualty insurance
D) equipment life and disability insurance
A) business interruption insurance
B) property insurance
C) casualty insurance
D) equipment life and disability insurance
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17
Allowing people to insure property that they have no real interest in may lead to the intentional destruction of the property.To which rule does this rationale apply?
A) life insurance rule
B) indemnity rule
C) coinsurance rule
D) insurable interest rule
A) life insurance rule
B) indemnity rule
C) coinsurance rule
D) insurable interest rule
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18
Jeremy leased a car from AstroCar Leases pursuant to a three-year lease with a buyout option at the end of the three-year period.While he is the primary driver,he permits his girlfriend to drive the car on occasion.Who has an insurable interest in the car?
A) Jeremy
B) Astro
C) Jeremy and Astro
D) Jeremy and Jeremy's girlfriend
A) Jeremy
B) Astro
C) Jeremy and Astro
D) Jeremy and Jeremy's girlfriend
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19
Under which level of government jurisdiction do insurance policies fall?
A) provincial jurisdiction
B) federal jurisdiction
C) executive jurisdiction
D) municipal jurisdiction
A) provincial jurisdiction
B) federal jurisdiction
C) executive jurisdiction
D) municipal jurisdiction
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20
Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding the insured's duty to disclose?
A) It applies only at the time of the application for insurance.
B) It applies to matters material to the risk.
C) It does not apply to life insurance.
D) A failure to disclose is a concern only if it is related to the cause of the loss.
A) It applies only at the time of the application for insurance.
B) It applies to matters material to the risk.
C) It does not apply to life insurance.
D) A failure to disclose is a concern only if it is related to the cause of the loss.
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21
What is the purpose of directors and officers liability insurance?
A) to extend coverage to include the corporation's liability against security claims
B) to provide coverage that includes a well-drafted severability clause
C) to reimburse the corporation for amounts paid to indemnify officers and directors
D) to provide protection over and above indemnification by the corporation
A) to extend coverage to include the corporation's liability against security claims
B) to provide coverage that includes a well-drafted severability clause
C) to reimburse the corporation for amounts paid to indemnify officers and directors
D) to provide protection over and above indemnification by the corporation
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22
Which of the following is a problem that may be addressed by directors and officers obtaining separate coverage or a further layer of insurance coverage independently from the corporation?
A) the rescission of D&O liability coverage
B) the cancellation of D&O liability coverage
C) exhausting D&O coverage
D) exclusions in D&O coverage
A) the rescission of D&O liability coverage
B) the cancellation of D&O liability coverage
C) exhausting D&O coverage
D) exclusions in D&O coverage
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23
Why must an insured avoid acknowledging liability for a loss?
A) because the insurer has a duty to defend
B) because it could jeopardize the insurer's right of subrogation
C) because it may result in increased premiums
D) because it would constitute a breach of the insured's fiduciary duty
A) because the insurer has a duty to defend
B) because it could jeopardize the insurer's right of subrogation
C) because it may result in increased premiums
D) because it would constitute a breach of the insured's fiduciary duty
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24
What insurance concern is raised by the ability of genetic testing to reveal information about the genetic susceptibility to illness and disease of individuals applying for life and disability insurance?
A) Insurance will become too costly to insurers unless they have access to genetic testing.
B) Genetic testing is invasive and will breach individual privacy if it becomes mandatory.
C) Failure to disclose may result in the insurance contract being voided,yet disclosure may result in denial of coverage or higher premiums.
D) False positive results will lead to inaccurate assessments of risk.
A) Insurance will become too costly to insurers unless they have access to genetic testing.
B) Genetic testing is invasive and will breach individual privacy if it becomes mandatory.
C) Failure to disclose may result in the insurance contract being voided,yet disclosure may result in denial of coverage or higher premiums.
D) False positive results will lead to inaccurate assessments of risk.
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25
What is the major distinction among the various provincial automobile insurance legislations?
A) the elimination of bodily injury or death tort actions in all provinces but Manitoba
B) the reliance on tort-based liability or no-fault systems for compensating injury or death
C) the elimination of bodily injury or death tort actions in each jurisdiction except Quebec
D) the reliance on tort-based compensation for pain and suffering is optional in Ontario
A) the elimination of bodily injury or death tort actions in all provinces but Manitoba
B) the reliance on tort-based liability or no-fault systems for compensating injury or death
C) the elimination of bodily injury or death tort actions in each jurisdiction except Quebec
D) the reliance on tort-based compensation for pain and suffering is optional in Ontario
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26
Which of the following would occupiers' liability insurance protection strongly support?
A) payment where the insured is held legally responsible for causing loss to a third party
B) payment in the event of loss to the insured caused by a fire that is unintentional
C) payment in the event of loss to the insured caused by a fire that is started intentionally
D) payment when the insured causes damage to the property of a third party
A) payment where the insured is held legally responsible for causing loss to a third party
B) payment in the event of loss to the insured caused by a fire that is unintentional
C) payment in the event of loss to the insured caused by a fire that is started intentionally
D) payment when the insured causes damage to the property of a third party
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27
What is the most likely result of malicious acts or acts of vandalism caused by an insured?
A) the denial of coverage by operation of a rider
B) the insured's right of subrogation
C) the insured's right to endorsement
D) the denial of coverage by operation of an exclusion clause
A) the denial of coverage by operation of a rider
B) the insured's right of subrogation
C) the insured's right to endorsement
D) the denial of coverage by operation of an exclusion clause
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28
Which of the following liability risks would be adequately managed by errors and omissions insurance?
A) liabilities arising from the performance of obligations of corporate directors and officers
B) liabilities arising from negligence in the provision of professional services
C) the insured's portion of the loss that is insured against out of his or her own assets
D) the cost of the environmental cleanup of the insured's property arising from business activities
A) liabilities arising from the performance of obligations of corporate directors and officers
B) liabilities arising from negligence in the provision of professional services
C) the insured's portion of the loss that is insured against out of his or her own assets
D) the cost of the environmental cleanup of the insured's property arising from business activities
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29
What type of insurance product would a business that produces and sells pesticides most likely require?
A) injury and property damage insurance coverage
B) business interruption,environmental injury,and property insurance coverage
C) financial loss and personal injury insurance coverage
D) comprehensive,environmental,and personal injury insurance coverage
A) injury and property damage insurance coverage
B) business interruption,environmental injury,and property insurance coverage
C) financial loss and personal injury insurance coverage
D) comprehensive,environmental,and personal injury insurance coverage
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30
What three general categories do insurance policies fall into?
A) auto,life,and property
B) liability,property,and disability
C) all risks,commercial,property
D) fire,life,auto
A) auto,life,and property
B) liability,property,and disability
C) all risks,commercial,property
D) fire,life,auto
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31
What legal consequences might arise if an insurer fails to handle a claim fairly and in a timely manner?
A) a public inquiry into the insurer's conduct
B) a lawsuit by the adjuster against the insurer
C) breach of the insurer's duty of good faith and a punitive damages award
D) double indemnity costs against the adjuster
A) a public inquiry into the insurer's conduct
B) a lawsuit by the adjuster against the insurer
C) breach of the insurer's duty of good faith and a punitive damages award
D) double indemnity costs against the adjuster
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32
Who would most likely provide advice and assistance in assessing risks from a review of a business's operations?
A) insurance advisor
B) insurance broker
C) insurance agent
D) insurance adjuster
A) insurance advisor
B) insurance broker
C) insurance agent
D) insurance adjuster
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33
What options must a business owner decide upon when considering property insurance?
A) getting coverage for replacement value or actual cash value
B) getting coverage for the various forms of perils that are insurable by law
C) negotiating a non-cancellation or severability clause
D) negotiating to remove the exclusion clauses that fall within the intent of the policy
A) getting coverage for replacement value or actual cash value
B) getting coverage for the various forms of perils that are insurable by law
C) negotiating a non-cancellation or severability clause
D) negotiating to remove the exclusion clauses that fall within the intent of the policy
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34
What is the name often given to the type of insurance coverage that requires an insurer to compensate for the loss of profits?
A) an all-risk policy
B) comprehensive risk insurance
C) a casualty policy
D) environmental impairment insurance
A) an all-risk policy
B) comprehensive risk insurance
C) a casualty policy
D) environmental impairment insurance
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35
Why would the owners of a successful business operation carry life insurance on the lives of its shareholders?
A) to ensure that the business doesn't suffer financial loss from business interruption
B) to offset any deficiency in the value demanded for the deceased's shares
C) to offset the challenging costs of buying out a deceased shareholder's shares
D) to comply with the law's mandatory life insurance pertaining to shareholders
A) to ensure that the business doesn't suffer financial loss from business interruption
B) to offset any deficiency in the value demanded for the deceased's shares
C) to offset the challenging costs of buying out a deceased shareholder's shares
D) to comply with the law's mandatory life insurance pertaining to shareholders
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36
Which of the following is protected by collision coverage?
A) loss or damage to the insured's vehicle itself
B) loss or injury to third parties
C) coverage against injury or death of a third party
D) loss or injury to the insured and to third parties
A) loss or damage to the insured's vehicle itself
B) loss or injury to third parties
C) coverage against injury or death of a third party
D) loss or injury to the insured and to third parties
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37
How does comprehensive general liability (CGL)insurance differ from automobile liability insurance?
A) CGL insurance protects property,whereas automobile liability insurance protects against liability.
B) CGL insurance is available only to corporations,whereas auto insurance is available to anyone.
C) CGL insurance is optional,whereas auto insurance is mandatory.
D) A CGL insurance policy does not have a deductible,whereas auto insurance incorporates a deductible.
A) CGL insurance protects property,whereas automobile liability insurance protects against liability.
B) CGL insurance is available only to corporations,whereas auto insurance is available to anyone.
C) CGL insurance is optional,whereas auto insurance is mandatory.
D) A CGL insurance policy does not have a deductible,whereas auto insurance incorporates a deductible.
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38
What insurance product would protect against loss for injury and property damage related to the operation of a business's vehicles?
A) a product that covers personal injury and negligent property damage
B) a product that covers loss of profit while the vehicle is being repaired
C) a product that offers replacement value
D) a product that covers personal injury
A) a product that covers personal injury and negligent property damage
B) a product that covers loss of profit while the vehicle is being repaired
C) a product that offers replacement value
D) a product that covers personal injury
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39
Why is environmental impairment liability insurance expensive and difficult to obtain?
A) because of the lack of cap on punitive damages for environmental liability
B) because most environmental harm is intentionally caused
C) because of the extensive nature of environmental liability
D) because of the lack of environmental operational management policy
A) because of the lack of cap on punitive damages for environmental liability
B) because most environmental harm is intentionally caused
C) because of the extensive nature of environmental liability
D) because of the lack of environmental operational management policy
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40
What is the legal effect of an insurer's decision to subrogate against a third party wrongdoer?
A) the insurer is required to defend the insured
B) the insurer denies coverage to the insured
C) the insurer steps into the shoes of the insured
D) the insurer must indemnify the insured
A) the insurer is required to defend the insured
B) the insurer denies coverage to the insured
C) the insurer steps into the shoes of the insured
D) the insurer must indemnify the insured
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41
The subrogation rule provides that a criminal should not be permitted to profit from a crime.
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42
An endorsement is a clause altering or adding coverage to a standard insurance policy.
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43
An insurance contract is classified as a contract of indemnity because the insured is not supposed to profit from an insured loss; rather,the insured is meant to come out even.
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44
A key consequence of the designation of insurance contracts as contracts of the utmost good faith is the imposition on the insured of a duty to disclose.
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45
The test for whether the insured has an insurable interest is whether he benefits from its existence and would be prejudiced from its destruction.
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46
Each province in Canada has an automobile insurance scheme that is based on either a tort-based liability system or a no-fault liability system for compensating claims for bodily injury or death.
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47
The forfeiture rule provides the right of the insurer to recover the amount paid on a claim from a third party that caused the loss.
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48
All types of insurance policies are typically written so that the insured is responsible for the first part of the loss,which is paid in the form of a deductible.
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49
Quebec was the first Canadian jurisdiction to adopt a pure no-fault system for bodily injuries.
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50
A company that sells insurance coverage in the form of contracts of insurance known as policies is legally described as an indemnity agency.
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51
An insurance agent is one who provides advice and assistance to the insured in acquiring insurance.
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52
Because financing a buyout on the death of one of the shareholders of a company is challenging,that legal risk is typically reduced by shareholder life insurance policies that will provide all or a portion of the financing needed to complete the buyout.
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53
Comprehensive general liability insurance coverage generally extends only to unintentional torts,rather than intentional torts.
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54
An insurance company can deny coverage for non-disclosure even if the loss has nothing to do with the matter that was left undisclosed.
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55
An insurer,the party that purchases the policy of insurance,is required to pay a price for the insurance coverage known as a premium.
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56
An insurance adjuster is one who acts for an insurance company in selling insurance.
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57
The purpose of comprehensive general liability insurance (also known as CGL insurance)is to compensate business enterprises in a comprehensive way for any liabilities they incur outside the course of their normal business operations.
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58
A rider is a clause altering or adding to coverage in a standard insurance policy.
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59
The insurer's right of subrogation arises whenever a claim falls within the policy's coverage provisions.
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60
A duty to disclose exists not just at the time of applying for the insurance-it is an ongoing duty.
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61
Identify and briefly describe the basic kinds of insurance.
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62
List the possible kinds of liabilities and losses that a business typically seeks to insure against.
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63
Explain the distinction between an insurance broker and an insurance adjuster.
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64
Briefly explain why the law places the duty of disclosure on the insured.
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65
Identify the test for whether the insured has an insurable interest in the thing being insured,and briefly explain the rationale behind this rule.
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66
Describe the three types of directors and officers insurance (D&O insurance)coverage that are currently available.
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67
Explain the extent of coverage provided by errors and omissions insurance and how that coverage may be compromised.
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68
Explain the nature and purpose of business interruption loss insurance.
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69
Discuss subrogation.
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70
What does the insurer's "duty of good faith" refer to,and what does this duty require of the insurer?
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