Deck 17: Anti-Infective Drugs

Question 1

Match the following drugs with their category.
Quinolones

A)Azithromycin (Zithromax)
B)Gentamycin
C)Erythromycin
D)Cephalexin (Keflex)

Answer 1

Azithromycin (Zithromax)

Question 2

Culture and sensitivity (C&S) test

A)Test to identify the causative organism and the specific medication to which it is sensitive
B)Antibiotic that is effective against a large variety of organisms
C)Medications lose effectiveness against organisms
D)A new infection as a result of killing the normal flora
E)An infection as a result of a weakened immune system

Answer 2

Test to identify the causative organism and the specific medication to which it is sensitive

Question 3

Anaphylaxis

A)Excessive immune response to a specific substance
B)Unplanned, harmful responses to a medication
C)Severe hypersensitivity reaction that may result in death
D)Reaction that results in tissue damage
E)New infection resulting from killing normal flora

Answer 3

Severe hypersensitivity reaction that may result in death

Question 4

Match the following drugs with their category.
Antituberculosis

A)Zovirax (acyclovir)
B)INH (isoniazid)
C)Diflucan (fluconazole)
D)Macrodantin (nitrofurantoin)
E)Vibramycin (doxycycline)

Question 5

Match the following drugs with their category.
Cephalosporins

A)Azithromycin (Zithromax)
B)Gentamycin
C)Erythromycin
D)Cephalexin (Keflex)

Question 6

Broad-spectrum

A)Test to identify the causative organism and the specific medication to which it is sensitive
B)Antibiotic that is effective against a large variety of organisms
C)Medications lose effectiveness against organisms
D)A new infection as a result of killing the normal flora
E)An infection as a result of a weakened immune system

Question 7

Resistance

A)Test to identify the causative organism and the specific medication to which it is sensitive
B)Antibiotic that is effective against a large variety of organisms
C)Medications lose effectiveness against organisms
D)A new infection as a result of killing the normal flora
E)An infection as a result of a weakened immune system

Question 8

Opportunistic infections

A)Test to identify the causative organism and the specific medication to which it is sensitive
B)Antibiotic that is effective against a large variety of organisms
C)Medications lose effectiveness against organisms
D)A new infection as a result of killing the normal flora
E)An infection as a result of a weakened immune system

Question 9

Match the following drugs with their category.
Aminoglycosides

A)Azithromycin (Zithromax)
B)Gentamycin
C)Erythromycin
D)Cephalexin (Keflex)

Question 10

Match the following drugs with their category.
Antifungal

A)Zovirax (acyclovir)
B)INH (isoniazid)
C)Diflucan (fluconazole)
D)Macrodantin (nitrofurantoin)
E)Vibramycin (doxycycline)

Question 11

Direct toxicity

A)Excessive immune response to a specific substance
B)Unplanned, harmful responses to a medication
C)Severe hypersensitivity reaction that may result in death
D)Reaction that results in tissue damage
E)New infection resulting from killing normal flora

Question 12

Adverse reaction

A)Excessive immune response to a specific substance
B)Unplanned, harmful responses to a medication
C)Severe hypersensitivity reaction that may result in death
D)Reaction that results in tissue damage
E)New infection resulting from killing normal flora

Question 13

Match the following drugs with their category.
Antiviral

A)Zovirax (acyclovir)
B)INH (isoniazid)
C)Diflucan (fluconazole)
D)Macrodantin (nitrofurantoin)
E)Vibramycin (doxycycline)

Question 14

Side effects of the aminoglycosides MOST LIKELY include which of the following signs and/or symptoms?

A) Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity
B) Blood dyscrasias
C) Anorexia, abdominal cramps
D) Superinfections

Question 15

Match the following drugs with their category.
Macrolides

A)Azithromycin (Zithromax)
B)Gentamycin
C)Erythromycin
D)Cephalexin (Keflex)

Question 16

Indirect toxicity or superinfection

A)Excessive immune response to a specific substance
B)Unplanned, harmful responses to a medication
C)Severe hypersensitivity reaction that may result in death
D)Reaction that results in tissue damage
E)New infection resulting from killing normal flora

Question 17

Hypersensitivity

A)Excessive immune response to a specific substance
B)Unplanned, harmful responses to a medication
C)Severe hypersensitivity reaction that may result in death
D)Reaction that results in tissue damage
E)New infection resulting from killing normal flora

Question 18

Superinfection

A)Test to identify the causative organism and the specific medication to which it is sensitive
B)Antibiotic that is effective against a large variety of organisms
C)Medications lose effectiveness against organisms
D)A new infection as a result of killing the normal flora
E)An infection as a result of a weakened immune system

Question 19

Match the following drugs with their category.
Tetracycline

A)Zovirax (acyclovir)
B)INH (isoniazid)
C)Diflucan (fluconazole)
D)Macrodantin (nitrofurantoin)
E)Vibramycin (doxycycline)

Question 20

Match the following drugs with their category.
Urinary anti-infective

A)Zovirax (acyclovir)
B)INH (isoniazid)
C)Diflucan (fluconazole)
D)Macrodantin (nitrofurantoin)
E)Vibramycin (doxycycline)

Question 21

Side effects related to the use of tetracyclines include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea in addition to which of the following signs and/or symptoms?

A) Abdominal pain, colitis, crystalluria, and phototoxicity
B) Discolored teeth and retarded bone growth in fetus or young children
C) Blood dyscrasias and hepatic toxicity with jaundice
D) Lower extremity weakness

Question 22

Interactions of aminoglycosides may occur with __________.

A) general anesthetics or neuromuscular blocking agents and other ototoxic drugs
B) alcohol and loop diuretics
C) carbamazepine (Tegretol), cyclosporine, and theophylline
D) antacids, food, and estrogen-containing oral contraceptives

Question 23

Quinolones are contraindicated for patients with __________.

A) cardiac disease
B) severe allergies or asthma
C) exposure to direct sunlight
D) allergies to penicillin

Question 24

Side effects related to the use of urinary anti-infectives include nausea and vomiting, in addition to which of the following signs and/or symptoms?

A) Abdominal pain, colitis, crystalluria, and phototoxicity
B) Discolored teeth and retarded bone growth in fetus or young children
C) Blood dyscrasias and hepatic toxicity with jaundice
D) Lower extremity numbness and weakness

Question 25

Macrolide antibiotics may interact and/or potentiate which of the following, possibly resulting in toxicity?

A) General anesthetics or neuromuscular blocking agents
B) Alcohol and loop diuretics
C) Theophylline, triazolam (Halcion), warfarin, digoxin, verapamil, and fluconazole (Diflucan)
D) Other ototoxic drugs

Question 26

Sulfonamides should be used cautiously or not at all in patients with ___.

A) a history of AIDS
B) urinary tract infections
C) multiple allergies
D) toxoplasmosis

Question 27

Side effects related to the use of sulfonamides include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea in addition to which of the following signs and/or symptoms?

A) Abdominal pain, colitis, crystalluria, and phototoxicity
B) Discolored teeth and retarded bone growth in fetus or young children
C) Blood dyscrasias and hepatic toxicity with jaundice
D) Lower extremity numbness and weakness

Question 28

Side effects of the penicillins MORE LIKELY include which of the following signs and/or symptoms?

A) Ototoxicity
B) Blood dyscrasias
C) Anorexia
D) Hypersensitivity reactions and superinfections

Question 29

Which of the following considerations most likely refer to the use of penicillins?

A) Patients with reduced renal function
B) Pregnant or nursing women
C) Liver dysfunction and alcoholism
D) Decreased efficacy of oral contraceptives

Question 30

Cephalosporins may have interactions when administered with which of the following?

A) General anesthetics or neuromuscular blocking agents, antiemetics, and ototoxic drugs
B) Alcohol and loop diuretics
C) Carbamazepine (Tegretol), cyclosporine, theophylline, triazolam (Halcion), warfarin, digoxin, verapamil, and fluconazole (Diflucan)
D) Antacids, food, and oral estrogen-containing contraceptives

Question 31

Side effects related to the use of quinolones include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea in addition to which of the following signs and/or symptoms?

A) Abdominal pain, colitis, crystalluria, and phototoxicity
B) Discolored teeth and retarded bone growth in fetus or young children
C) Blood dyscrasias and hepatic toxicity with jaundice
D) Lower extremity weakness

Question 32

Which of the following contraindication or warning is appropriate for tetracyclines?

A) "Avoid use in patients with seizure disorders."
B) "Avoid exposure to direct sunlight."
C) "Not for use in patients with urinary obstruction."
D) "Not for use in diabetics or asthmatics."

Question 33

Penicillins may cause potentiation of which of the following?

A) General anesthetics or neuromuscular blocking agents
B) Alcohol and theophylline
C) Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and verapamil
D) Benemid (probenecid) and Methotrexate

Question 34

Side effects of the macrolides MORE LIKELY include which of the following signs and/or symptoms?

A) Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and blurred vision
B) Blood dyscrasias
C) Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, cramps, and superinfections
D) Hypersensitivity reactions

Question 35

Side effects of the cephalosporins MOST LIKELY include _______.

A) nephrotoxicity, blurred vision, rash, or urticaria.
B) hypersensitivity and blood dyscrasias.
C) anorexia and superinfections.
D) nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

Question 36

Which of the following contraindications most likely refer to the use of aminoglycosides?

A) Tinnitus, high-frequency hearing loss, and reduced renal function
B) Depression or bipolar disorder
C) Liver dysfunction and alcoholism
D) Cautious use in patients with history of multiple allergies

Question 37

Contraindications or cautions are to be exercised when administering urinary anti-infectives in which patients?

A) Patients with seizure disorders
B) Patients with esophageal obstruction or dysfunction
C) Patients with blood dyscrasias and severe allergies
D) Patient with anemia or diabetes

Question 38

Which of the following contraindications most likely refer to the use of macrolides?

A) Tinnitus and reduced renal function
B) Known allergies to penicillins; pregnant or nursing women
C) Alcoholism and hypertension
D) High-frequency hearing loss

Question 39

A life-threatening interaction of quinolones may occur when administered with and

A) theophylline
B) Ca, Mg, Fe, Zn
C) sucralfate
D) antacids

Question 40

Which of the following contraindications most likely refer to the use of cephalosporins?

A) Tinnitus and high-frequency hearing loss
B) Known allergies to penicillin; pregnant or nursing women
C) Liver dysfunction and hypertension
D) Vertigo

Question 41

Which of the following is considered a concerning side effect of the anti-fungal fluconazole?

A) Hepatic abnormalities
B) Nephrotoxicity
C) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea with high doses
D) Change in color of body secretions

Question 42

Side effects of metronidazole (Flagyl) may include ________.

A) rash, pruritis, fever, and anaphylaxis
B) abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, metallic taste, and dark urine
C) ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and pseudomembranous colitis
D) lethargy, tremors, and photosensitivity

Question 43

Which side effects of clindamycin require discontinuation of the medication?

A) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
B) Metallic taste, headache, dizziness, and dark urine
C) Photosensitivity
D) Tremors, confusion, and headache

Question 44

Side effects of acyclovir may include ___________.

A) nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and colitis
B) abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, metallic taste, headache, dizziness, and dark urine
C) ototoxicity and pseudomembranous colitis
D) impaired renal function, lethargy, tremors, confusion, headache, rash, and photosensitivity

Question 45

Which of the following side effects are related to the use of anti-tuberculin treatment with isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin)?

A) Weakness of extremities, hepatic toxicity, and red-orange colored excretions
B) Optic neuritis, dermatitis, pruritis, and joint pain
C) Gout and GI disturbances
D) Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

Question 46

Acyclovir is contraindicated in which of the following patient populations?

A) Hepatic disease
B) Alcoholics and pregnant women
C) Older adults
D) Nursing mothers

Question 47

Side effects of the aminoglycoside streptomycin can include _________.

A) numbness, weakness of extremities, and red-orange colored excretions
B) optic neuritis, confusion, and joint pain
C) hepatic toxicity, hypersensitivity, and GI disturbances
D) ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

Question 48

Side effects of vancomycin may include ____________.

A) colitis, rash, pruritis, and occasional anaphylaxis
B) abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, metallic taste, and dark urine
C) ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and pseudomembranous colitis
D) impaired renal function, lethargy, tremors, and photosensitivity

Question 49

Side effects of anti-tuberculin agent pyrazinamide (PZA) can include ________.

A) red-orange colored excretions
B) optic neuritis, malaise, fever, and confusion
C) hepatic toxicity, hypersensitivity, and GI disturbances
D) ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

Question 50

The most significant side effects associated with the use of ribavirin is _________.

A) bluish mottling of skin on legs, edema, and visual disturbances
B) nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
C) respiratory complications, hypotension, and cardiac arrest
D) None of the above.

Question 51

An interaction with a urinary anti-infective medication may result in _________.

A) potentiation of theophylline
B) decreased effectiveness of oral contraceptives
C) increased risk of bleeding when used with oral anticoagulants.
D) antagonism of preparations containing probenecid and Mg

Question 52

To be most effective, oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and zanamivir (Relenza) should be administered _________.

A) within 48 hours of onset of symptoms
B) for prophylaxis in children under 1 year old
C) if symptoms of pneumonia are present
D) only after antibiotics fail to reduce the infection

Question 53

Patients taking antibiotics should be instructed to take medication _________.

A) with a full glass of water on an empty stomach
B) with fruit juice
C) with antacids if stomach irritation occurs
D) only until symptoms disappear

Question 54

Contraindications for the use of vancomycin include _________

A) GI, hepatic, or renal disease
B) history of blood dyscrasia
C) pregnancy and lactation
D) renal disease and dehydration

Question 55

Interactions or side effects of tetracyclines more likely involve ____________.

A) potentiation of oral anticoagulants and antidiabetic agents
B) decrease in absorption when given with antacids and laxatives
C) damage to vestibular organs
D) damage to tendons and cartilage

Question 56

An interaction with sulfonamides may result in _________.

A) inactivation of effectiveness when give with preparations containing Fe, Mg, Na, and Ca
B) interferes with the effectiveness of oral contraceptives
C) potentiation of oral anticoagulants and oral antidiabetic agents
D) reduced absorption when given with probenecid

Question 57

Considerations for patients who are receiving ribavirin include ____________.

A) avoiding its use in patients with seizure and cardiovascular disorders
B) not for use in patients with renal disease
C) preventing patient's exposure to pregnant or lactating patients
D) None of the above.

Question 58

The use of the anti-tuberculin agent ethambutol might result in which of the following side effects?

A) Hepatic toxicity and red-orange colored excretions
B) Optic neuritis, dermatitis, pruritis, and joint pain
C) Hepatic toxicity, gout, and GI disturbances
D) Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

Question 59

The use of metronidazole (Flagyl) may be contraindicated in which patient population?

A) Those with a history of GI or renal disease
B) Alcoholics
C) Patients with hearing and renal impairment
D) Older adults

Question 60

Which of the following medications would NOT be classified as an antiviral?

A) Acyclovir
B) Rifampin
C) Valtrex
D) Tamiflu

Question 61

Streptomycin should always be administered intravenously.

Question 62

VRE stands for Vancomycin-resistant enterococci.

Question 63

The CDC recommends an annual influenza vaccine for all children 6 months to 18 years.

Question 64

MOST patients, at least to some degree, who are receiving amphotericin B experience some degree of nephrotoxicity.

Question 65

AIDS patients taking Abacavir should do what if they begin to experience a hypersensitivity reaction?

A) Continue taking the medication and notify the doctor.
B) Take Benadryl to combat symptoms of allergic reaction.
C) Discontinue at once.
D) Continue taking, as these symptoms will resolve themselves without intervention.

Question 66

Fluconazole is one of the most widely prescribed antifungal agents.

Question 67

Doxycycline can be used to treat skin and skin structure infections caused by community-acquired MRSA.

Question 68

Resistance to drugs may develop when they have been used too frequently.

Question 69

Autism is caused by administration of certain vaccinations.

Question 70

Severe side effects are usually rare when administering amphotericin B.

Question 71

Tigecycline is a first-line antibiotic for the treatment of MRSA.

Question 72

Which of the following class of antibiotics is generally considered to be LEAST toxic?

A) Penicillins
B) Aminoglycosides
C) Macrolides
D) Cephalosporins

Question 73

Antiviral agents do not have a problem with resistance; resistance only occurs with antibiotics.

Question 74

One strategy for decreasing the incidence of developing a resistance is to utilize a combination of medications.

Question 75

Which instruction for patients taking antibiotics is true?

A) Continue taking medications even if side effects occur.
B) Take antibiotics at prescribed times.
C) Discontinue antibiotics when symptoms of infection disappear.
D) Always take with fruit juice to help boost immunity.