Deck 7: Neoplasia

Question 1

Squamous cell carcinoma of oral epithelium usually metastasizes first to the:

A) spleen.
B) lungs.
C) liver.
D) lymph nodes.

Answer 1

lymph nodes.

Question 2

A papilloma:

A) is a benign tumor derived from salivary gland epithelium.
B) is a malignant tumor derived from squamous epithelium.
C) is a benign tumor derived from squamous epithelium.
D) is a malignant tumor derived from odontogenic epithelium.

Answer 2

is a benign tumor derived from squamous epithelium.

Question 3

Which of the following statements is true of erythroplakia?

A) Most cases of erythroplakia occur on buccal mucosa and vestibule.
B) Erythroplakia is more common than leukoplakia.
C) When examined microscopically, 90% of cases of erythroplakia demonstrate epithelial dysplasia or squamous cell carcinoma.
D) Erythroplakia is considered a less serious clinical finding the leukoplakia.

Answer 3

When examined microscopically, 90% of cases of erythroplakia demonstrate epithelial dysplasia or squamous cell carcinoma.

Question 4

"Keratin pearls" are a characteristic feature of:

A) squamous cell carcinoma.
B) basal cell carcinoma.
C) pleomorphic adenoma.
D) monomorphic adenoma.

Question 5

Which of the following choices represents characteristics of malignant tumors?

A) Encapsulated
B) Ability to spread to distant sites
C) Benign
D) Cells resemble normal cells

Question 6

Idiopathic leukoplakia:

A) is a malignant lesion of the oral mucosa.
B) can be rubbed off with gauze squares.
C) is caused by direct irritation, as in tobacco pouch keratosis.
D) does not have a specific known cause.

Question 7

Which of the following statements is true of epithelial dysplasia?

A) It is considered a malignant condition.
B) Unlike squamous cell carcinoma, cellular changes in epithelial dysplasia may revert to normal if the stimulus, such as tobacco smoking, is removed.
C) It presents clinically as an erythematous lesion and not a white lesion (leukoplakia).
D) Lesions often arise on the hard and soft palate.

Question 8

Which of the following choices is not regarded as an initiating factor in the development of oral cancer?

A) Cigar, pipe, and cigarette smoking
B) Snuff dipping and tobacco chewing
C) Consumption of alcohol
D) Chronic irritation

Question 9

Anaplastic means the tumor:

A) is composed of cells that vary in size and shape.
B) has cells that are darker than those of normal cells.
C) has nuclei of cells that exhibit an increased nuclear cytoplasmic ratio.
D) does not resemble the tissue from which it was derived.

Question 10

A benign tumor of bone is called an:

A) osteoma.
B) osteogenic sarcoma.
C) chondroma.
D) carcinoma.

Question 11

Most cases of papilloma occur on the:

A) hard palate.
B) buccal mucosa.
C) soft palate or tongue.
D) retromolar area.

Question 12

Approximately _________% of leukoplakias examined microscopically demonstrate epithelial dysplasia.

A) 1 to 2
B) 5 to 25
C) 50 to 60
D) 90

Question 13

Sarcomas are ____________common than carcinomas.

A) 10 times more
B) 3 times more
C) 3 times less
D) 10 times less

Question 14

An intraoral mucosal lesion that shows a mixture of red and white areas is generally called:

A) erythroplakia.
B) speckled erythroplakia.
C) speckled leukoplakia.
D) leukoplakia.

Question 15

Squamous cell carcinomas on the vermilion border of the lips and skin of the face are:

A) associated with lack of exposure to the sun and vitamin D deficiency.
B) more common in individuals with dark skin.
C) associated with a poorer prognosis than that for squamous cell carcinoma of the oral mucosa.
D) associated with color changes of the vermilion border from dark pink and uniform to mottled grayish pink.

Question 16

Severe epithelial dysplasia involving the full thickness of the epithelium is called:

A) anaplasia.
B) squamous cell carcinoma.
C) carcinoma in situ.
D) metastasis.

Question 17

According to the TNM Staging System for Oral Squamous Carcinoma, T₂, N₁, M₀ would mean:

A) tumor less than 2 cm. in diameter, ipsilateral palpable nodes, and no distant metastasis.
B) tumor 2 to 4 cm. in diameter, ipsilateral palpable nodes, and no distant metastasis.
C) tumor 2 to 4 cm. in diameter, contralateral palpable nodes, and no distant metastasis.
D) tumor 2 to 4 cm. in diameter, contralateral palpable nodes, and distant metastasis.

Question 18

Patients who have undergone radiation therapy for malignant tumors of the head and neck often experience severe xerostomia as a result of radiation damage to ____________ tissue.

A) oral mucosa
B) striated muscle
C) salivary gland
D) tooth

Question 19

______________ means new growth.

A) Metastasis
B) Neoplasia
C) Hypertrophy
D) Hyperplasia

Question 20

A ______________ both invades and destroys surrounding tissue and has the ability to spread throughout the body.

A) benign tumor
B) malignant tumor
C) hypertrophy
D) hyperplasia

Question 21

The adenoid cystic carcinoma is:

A) a benign tumor of salivary gland origin.
B) well encapsulated and does not infiltrate surrounding tissue.
C) most commonly seen intraorally on the palate.
D) painless.

Question 22

The pleomorphic adenoma:

A) is a malignant tumor.
B) appears clinically as a painful dome-shaped mass.
C) occurs most often in children.
D) appears as a slowly enlarging, nonulcerated, painless, dome-shaped mass.

Question 23

A basal cell carcinoma will _______ metastasize.

A) never
B) rarely
C) often
D) always

Question 24

Intraoral minor salivary gland tumors are most commonly located:

A) on the labial and buccal mucosa.
B) at the junction of the hard and soft palate.
C) on the retromolar area.
D) on the floor of the mouth.

Question 25

Basal cell carcinoma is a:

A) benign tumor that occurs in the oral cavity.
B) malignant tumor that occurs in the oral cavity.
C) benign tumor that does not occur in the oral cavity.
D) malignant tumor that does not occur in the oral cavity.

Question 26

Which of the following salivary gland tumors has a "Swiss cheese" appearance under the microscope?

A) Pleomorphic adenoma
B) Monomorphic adenoma
C) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
D) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Question 27

Which of the following choices is the most common malignant salivary gland tumor in children?

A) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
B) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
C) Monomorphic adenoma
D) Pleomorphic adenoma

Question 28

A benign tumor of salivary gland origin is called (a/an):

A) leiomyoma.
B) lipoma.
C) adenoma.
D) papilloma.

Question 29

When a mucoepidermoid carcinoma arises within bone, it will usually be in the __________________ region.

A) maxillary anterior
B) maxillary posterior
C) mandibular anterior
D) mandibular posterior

Question 30

The ameloblastoma:

A) occurs exclusively in the mandible.
B) is a benign, encapsulated tumor.
C) is commonly known as a Pindborg tumor.
D) may cause expansion of bone.

Question 31

Adenoid cystic carcinoma:

A) is more common in men than in women.
B) is most common in women of childbearing age.
C) is most commonly diagnosed in the fifth and sixth decade of life.
D) is most commonly diagnosed in children.

Question 32

Which of the following choices is the most common salivary gland neoplasm?

A) Adenoid cystic carcinoma.
B) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma.
C) Pleomorphic adenoma.
D) Monomorphic adenoma.

Question 33

As a general rule, a patient should be referred to an oral and maxillofacial surgeon or dermatologist to have a biopsy performed on any nonhealing ulcer of the skin or lips that has been present for more than:

A) 24 hours.
B) 10 days.
C) 3 months.
D) 1 year.

Question 34

A central mucoepidermoid carcinoma is derived either from salivary gland tissue trapped within bone or from the:

A) periapical abscess surrounding the apex of a devital tooth.
B) transformed epithelial lining of a dentigerous cyst.
C) lateral periodontal cyst.
D) incisive canal cyst.

Question 35

The Warthin tumor:

A) is a unique type of pleomorphic adenoma.
B) presents as a painless, soft mass, usually in the sublingual gland.
C) often develops bilaterally in adult women.
D) contains sheets of lymphocytes that surround the cystic structures.

Question 36

The __________________ is a unique type of monomorphic adenoma.

A) verrucous carcinoma
B) mucoepidermoid carcinoma
C) cylindroma
D) papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

Question 37

The most common intraoral location for the pleomorphic adenoma is the:

A) parotid gland.
B) submandibular gland.
C) palate.
D) floor of the mouth.

Question 38

Verrucous carcinoma:

A) has a better prognosis than other forms of squamous cell carcinomas.
B) appears clinically as a quick-growing exophytic tumor with a pebbly white surface.
C) is characterized by poorly differentiated epithelium with atypical cells.
D) shows invasion of tumor cells through the basement membrane.

Question 39

Most cases of verrucous carcinoma occur in the:

A) posterior lateral border of the tongue of women over 40 years old.
B) floor of the mouth of women over 70 years old.
C) vestibule and buccal mucosa of men over 55 years old.
D) bone of the mandible of men over 20 years old.

Question 40

Which of the following tumors is an unencapsulated, infiltrating tumor composed of a combination of mucous cells interspersed with squamouslike epithelial cells.

A) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
B) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
C) Monomorphic adenoma
D) Pleomorphic adenoma

Question 41

Which of the following statements is true of the hemangioma?

A) The gingiva is the most common intraoral location.
B) They are more common in boys than in girls.
C) They appear as variably sized, deep red or blue lesions that do not blanch when pressure is applied.
D) They may occur in adults as a response to trauma and represent an abnormal proliferation of blood vessels during the healing process.

Question 42

The peripheral ossifying fibroma is most likely derived from:

A) ameloblasts.
B) odontoblasts.
C) osteoblasts.
D) cells of the periodontal ligament.

Question 43

The ameloblastic fibroma:

A) occurs most often in adults over 50.
B) occurs more commonly in males than females.
C) is most commonly located in the mandibular anterior region.
D) is most commonly located in the maxillary anterior region.

Question 44

A rhabdomyosarcoma is a:

A) benign tumor of smooth muscle.
B) malignant tumor of smooth muscle.
C) benign tumor of striated muscle.
D) malignant tumor of striated muscle.

Question 45

The granular cell tumor:

A) most often occurs on the tongue followed by the buccal mucosa.
B) appears as a painful, ulcerated nodule.
C) occurs most commonly in children.
D) occurs most often in men.

Question 46

The majority of adenomatoid odontogenic tumors occur in __________ years of age.

A) females over 40
B) males over 40
C) females under 20
D) males under 20

Question 47

A lipoma:

A) is a tumor of peripheral nerve tissue.
B) appears clinically as a yellowish mass surfaced by a thin layer of epithelium.
C) is found most commonly intraorally on the tongue.
D) occurs most often in men over 60.

Question 48

A compound odontoma:

A) consists of a mass of enamel, dentin, cementum, and pulp that does not resemble a normal tooth.
B) usually occurs in the posterior mandible.
C) appears on radiograph as a cluster of miniature teeth surrounded by a radiolucent halo.
D) appears as a radiolucent mass surrounded by a thin radiopaque halo.

Question 49

The most common intraoral location for a neurofibroma is the:

A) floor of the mouth.
B) vestibule.
C) tongue.
D) tonsillar pillar.

Question 50

How does an adenomatoid odontogenic tumor differ from a dentigerous cyst on radiographs?

A) It will not be associated with an impacted tooth.
B) It extends beyond the cementoenamel junction and can involve 50% to 60% of the root.
C) It will not form calcifications within the tumor as does a dentigerous cyst.
D) It will not form a well-circumscribed radiolucency.

Question 51

Most ameloblastomas are located in the:

A) anterior maxilla.
B) posterior maxilla.
C) anterior mandible.
D) posterior mandible.

Question 52

An ameloblastoma may appear as a ______________ on radiographs.

A) unilocular radiolucency
B) multilocular opacity
C) unilocular or multilocular radiolucency
D) unilocular or multilocular radiopacity

Question 53

The adenomatoid odontogenic tumor features ductlike structures that:

A) resemble those found in major salivary glands.
B) resemble those found in minor salivary glands.
C) are actually ameloblast-like cells that resemble ducts because of their circular arrangement.
D) are actually odontoblast-like cells that resemble ducts because of their circular arrangement.

Question 54

A _______________ is a benign proliferation of capillaries.

A) hematoma
B) hemangioma
C) hamartoma
D) lymphangioma

Question 55

A/An __________________ is composed of islands and sheets of polyhedral epithelial cells with deposits of amyloid-like material that is thought to represent a form of abnormal enamel protein.

A) adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
B) calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
C) ameloblastoma
D) mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Question 56

Kaposi sarcoma is:

A) caused by a human herpesvirus.
B) only seen in association with HIV infection.
C) most often seen intraorally on the tongue.
D) a malignant striated muscle tumor.

Question 57

Which of the following statements is true of the odontogenic myxoma?

A) It occurs most often in people over 50.
B) It exhibits a unilocular radiolucency with well-defined margins.
C) The tumor may become quite large and cause displacement of teeth.
D) Most cases arise in the posterior maxilla.

Question 58

Which of the following tumors occur most frequently in the anterior part of the jaws?

A) Ameloblastoma
B) Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
C) Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
D) Odontogenic myxoma

Question 59

Which of the following tumors will most closely resemble an ameloblastoma with ameloblast-like epithelial cells surrounding areas that resemble stellate reticulum?

A) Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
B) Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
C) Calcifying odontogenic cyst
D) Odontogenic myxoma

Question 60

Ghost cells are characteristic of which of the following lesions?

A) Calcifying odontogenic cyst
B) Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
C) Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
D) Ameloblastoma

Question 61

Which of the following statements is true of malignant melanoma?

A) It has a benign counterpart known as the benign melanoma.
B) Most malignant melanomas arise on the skin as a result of prolonged exposure to chemicals such as benzene.
C) Primary malignant melanoma of the oral cavity is rare.
D) The most common intraoral location is the tongue.

Question 62

The most frequent intraoral site for metastatic tumors of the jaws is the:

A) nares.
B) maxilla
C) mandible.
D) zygoma.

Question 63

Malignant melanoma usually presents as a/an:

A) slowly enlarging white mass.
B) rapidly enlarging blue-to-black mass.
C) slowly enlarging papule.
D) exophytic, wartlike lesion.

Question 64

Multiple myeloma is a systemic, malignant proliferation of:

A) red blood cells.
B) plasma cells.
C) eosinophils.
D) basophils.

Question 65

A "sunburst pattern" is associated with:

A) Kaposi sarcoma.
B) osteoma.
C) osteosarcoma.
D) multiple myeloma.

Question 66

Osteosarcoma occurs more often in the __________ and more often in __________.

A) maxilla; males
B) maxilla; females
C) mandible; males
D) mandible; females

Question 67

Only about __% of patients with chondrosarcoma involving the jaws survive 5 years after the diagnosis.

A) 10
B) 30
C) 50
D) 70

Question 68

The most common location for an intraoral lymphoma is the:

A) floor of the mouth.
B) posterior lateral border of the tongue.
C) tonsillar area.
D) vestibule.

Question 69

Acute leukemia is characterized by a proliferation of:

A) immature white blood cells.
B) mature white blood cells.
C) immature plasma cells.
D) mature plasma cells.

Question 70

Bence Jones proteins are associated with:

A) osteosarcoma.
B) leukemia.
C) lymphoma.
D) multiple myeloma.