Deck 16: Adaptive Immunity

Question 1

The Fc portion of an antibody is formed by

A) the variable regions of the heavy chains.
B) one heavy chain.
C) portions of both of the heavy chains only.
D) the light chains only.
E) the variable regions of the light chains.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

The type of immunoglobulin illustrated here is

A) IgE.
B) IgM.
C) IgG.
D) IgD.
E) IgA.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which of the following statements concerning plasma cells is TRUE?

A) They live for many years and function as memory cells.
B) They are descended from activated T cells.
C) They secrete a variety of antibody molecules specific for multiple epitopes.
D) The antibodies they produce can remain in circulation for years.
E) They can produce large quantities of antibodies on a daily basis.

Answer 3

E

Question 4

Which of the following function in agglutination?

A) IgG antibodies
B) IgD antibodies
C) IgE antibodies
D) IgA antibodies
E) IgA and IgG antibodies

Question 5

Which of the following is correct concerning interleukin 4 (IL- 4)?

A) It stimulates phagocytes.
B) It is needed for B lymphocyte activation and differentiation.
C) It ensures production of enough leukocytes.
D) Virally infected cells produce it.
E) It is a chemotactic factor for leukocytes.

Question 6

The immunological synapse refers to the

A) interaction between lymphocytes and foreign antigens to produce memory cells.
B) interaction of the many cytokines produced by different immunological cells.
C) interaction between a T cell and an antigen- presenting cell to produce a specialized contact area for communication between these cells.
D) activation of a B cell to become a plasma cell.
E) binding of a monocyte or macrophage to antigen so that it can act as an antigen- presenting cell.

Question 7

What types of antigens are bound to Class I MHC (major histocompatibility complex) proteins?

A) exogenous antigens
B) endogenous antigens
C) autoantigens
D) both autoantigens and endogenous antigens
E) autoantigens, endogenous, and exogenous antigens

Question 8

Which of the following statements about T lymphocytes is FALSE?

A) There are three types of T lymphocytes.
B) T lymphocytes are called such because they mature in the thymus.
C) T lymphocytes have TCRs that recognize antigen only if it is bound to MHC.
D) T lymphocytes produce antibody molecules.
E) T lymphocytes directly attack cells and produce the cell- mediated immune response.

Question 9

What is the role of interleukins?

A) ensuring production of enough leukocytes
B) complement activation
C) production of virally infected cells
D) signaling between leukocytes
E) chemotaxis of leukocytes

Question 10

Which of the following statements concerning the chemical structure of an antibody is FALSE?

A) Antibodies have two short peptide chains known as light chains.
B) Antibodies are formed of four polypeptide chains.
C) The stem and arm are connected by a hinge.
D) The heavy and light chains are connected by hydrogen bonds.
E) Antibodies have two long peptide chains known as heavy chains.

Question 11

Clonal deletion of developing T lymphocytes takes place in which location(s) in the body?

A) the thymus
B) the liver
C) the bone marrow
D) both the bone marrow and the spleen
E) the spleen

Question 12

Which of the following statements concerning specific immunity is FALSE?

A) It is the body's ability to respond to specific invading pathogens.
B) It is the third line of defense.
C) It is acquired.
D) It has memory.
E) It changes little with repeated exposure to the same pathogen.

Question 13

Which of the following is an exogenous antigen?

A) a bacterium inside a cell
B) a noninfected human cell
C) a bacterium outside a cell
D) a virus inside a cell
E) the malaria parasite inside a red blood cell

Question 14

Which of the following statements regarding the cell- mediated immune response is TRUE?

A) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes do not require antigen presentation to become activated.
B) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill by producing hydrogen peroxide.
C) A single cytotoxic T lymphocyte can kill many target cells.
D) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes interact with antibodies that have bound antigen to identify their target.
E) Helper T lymphocytes have no role in the activation of cytotoxic T lymphocytes.

Question 15

Secretory IgA antibodies are unique because they

A) are Y- shaped molecules.
B) have unique light chains.
C) are present in the plasma.
D) are connected with J chains and short polypeptides to form dimers.
E) are present in lymph nodes.

Question 16

Which of the following best describes IgM antibodies?

A) They cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate.
B) They are the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response.
C) They interact with phagocytes and NK cells.
D) They can cross the placenta to provide passive immunity.
E) They are the antibody class found in body secretions.

Question 17

What will be the direct result of the interaction shown in this figure? (This interaction is occurring in a lymph node.)

A) clonal deletion of a T lymphocyte
B) activation of a helper T lymphocyte
C) activation of a B lymphocyte
D) activation of a cytotoxic T lymphocyte
E) clonal deletion of a B lymphocyte

Question 18

Which of the following is NOT included in the MALT?

A) the appendix
B) the spleen
C) lymphoid tissue in the respiratory tract
D) Peyer's patches
E) lymphoid tissue in the small intestine

Question 19

Which of the following cytokines helps regulate inflammation?

A) chemokines
B) alpha interferon
C) IL- 12
D) tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
E) IL- 4 (interleukin- 4)

Question 20

Which of the following molecules would contain T- independent antigens?

A) steroids
B) polysaccharides
C) glycoproteins
D) phospholipids
E) lipoproteins

Question 21

Antigens are

A) proteins the body produces against invading substances.
B) proteins on the surface of our cells to which pathogens attach.
C) enzymes secreted to destroy a pathogen's cell wall.
D) specific molecules, or parts of molecules, that the body recognizes as foreign.
E) cells that protect the body against invaders.

Question 22

The white blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are

A) macrophages and neutrophils.
B) neutrophils and dendritic cells.
C) NK lymphocytes and neutrophils.
D) macrophages and eosinophils.
E) B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes.

Question 23

Which of the following is the function of gamma interferon (INF- y)?

A) activates and differentiates B lymphocytes
B) ensures production of enough leukocytes
C) activates complement
D) causes basophils and eosinophils to degranulate
E) stimulates phagocytes

Question 24

Which of the following is true of chemokines?

A) They are involved in B lymphocyte activation and differentiation.
B) They ensure production of enough leukocytes.
C) They are chemotactic factors for leukocytes.
D) They are substances used to signal between leukocytes.
E) They cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate.

Question 25

Which of the following cytokines act as a signal between leukocytes?

A) interleukins
B) chemokines
C) interferons
D) growth factors
E) tumor necrosis factors

Question 26

Which of the following statements concerning B cell receptors (BCRs) is FALSE?

A) They are bound to the surface of B lymphocytes and have two antigen- binding sites.
B) They are complementary in shape to a specific antigenic determinant that they may or may not encounter.
C) Scientists estimate that each person forms at least 1011 different types of B lymphocytes with distinct BCRs.
D) They are formed in response to an encounter with an antigen.
E) Each B lymphocyte is randomly generated with antibody variable regions that determine its BCR.

Question 27

What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person contracts a disease?

A) artificially acquired passive immunity
B) artificially acquired active immunity
C) naturally acquired passive immunity
D) innate immunity
E) naturally acquired active immunity

Question 28

What is the result when a dendritic cell phagocytizes a microbe and processes it?

A) display of epitope- MHC I complexes on the surface of the cell
B) activation of the dendritic cell to become a plasma cell
C) display of microbial epitope- MHC II complexes on the cell surface
D) display of microbial fragments with CD8 glycoproteins
E) suppression of the immune response to the microbe

Question 29

Class II MHC are found on

A) cytoplasmic membranes of nucleated cells.
B) the skin.
C) professional antigen- presenting cells.
D) red blood cells.
E) muscle.

Question 30

The most prevalent type of antibody in the blood is

A) IgA.
B) IgM.
C) IgE.
D) IgD.
E) IgG.

Question 31

The perforin- granzyme pathway involves

A) presenting the foreign antigen to B cells.
B) the production of antibodies toward the invading pathogen.
C) binding CD95L to infected cells, which eventually leads to cell apoptosis.
D) the synthesis of special cell- killing proteins that act on infected or abnormal cells.
E) the production of fever, which kills the pathogen.

Question 32

Large accumulations of unactivated self- tolerant lymphocytes conducting surveillance for specific antigenic determinants are found in

A) the MALT, lymph nodes, and thymus.
B) the MALT and lymph nodes.
C) the thymus.
D) the MALT.
E) lymph nodes.

Question 33

Which of the following recognizes and binds to MHC II antigens and helps stabilize the binding of epitopes to T cell receptors?

A) MHC I
B) CD26
C) CCR3
D) CD4
E) CCR5

Question 34

Vaccination triggers an immune response which produces immunity.

A) artificial passive
B) natural active
C) natural passive
D) artificial active
E) both active and passive

Question 35

Major histocompatibility antigens are

A) glycoproteins found in the cytoplasmic membranes of most vertebrate animal cells.
B) antigens attached to foreign invaders.
C) antigens that provoke allergic reactions.
D) not really antigens, but rather antibodies produced to mask foreign antigens.
E) antigens that must be processed by cells called histiocytes in order to be recognized by the immune system.

Question 36

Which of the following statements regarding antibody function is FALSE?

A) They can penetrate host cells to bind intracellular antigens.
B) They can prevent virus attachment to host cells.
C) They can bind more than one pathogen at a time, forming complexes.
D) They can facilitate phagocyte attack on bacteria with a capsule (glycocalyx).
E) They can facilitate cytotoxic attack by natural killer lymphocytes.

Question 37

A sick child may have influenza or RSV. These virus infections have different treatment options, so the physician requests antibody titer tests. The results are as follows: anti- influenza antibodies are primarily IgM, and anti- RSV antibodies are all IgA and IgG. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation?

A) The results do not provide sufficient data to draw a conclusion.
B) The child currently has influenza and has previously been exposed to RSV.
C) The child has a current RSV infection and was previously exposed to influenza.
D) The child has concurrent influenza and RSV infections.
E) The child has neither influenza nor RSV.

Question 38

IgE antibodies are best described as

A) a cause of basophil and eosinophil degranulation.
B) the trigger for antibody- dependent cellular toxicity (ADCC).
C) the antibodies found in body secretions.
D) the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response.
E) those involved in complement activation.

Question 39

Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name?

A) Activated lymphocytes produce daughter cells that are identical in specificity and function.
B) Lymphocytes of the adaptive immune system are highly specific for a single antigenic determinant.
C) To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which they are specific.
D) Activated lymphocytes may persist for years in the body.
E) Lymphocytes reactive to normal body components are removed.

Question 40

The protozoan that causes malaria is an intracellular parasite of red blood cells (RBCs). An adaptive immune response to this parasite is problematic because

A) RBCs never enter lymphoid tissue.
B) complement cannot effectively destroy RBCs.
C) the parasite damages leukocytes along with RBCs.
D) red blood cells do not produce MHC and therefore do not display the fact that they have been infected by presenting antigen.
E) RBCs normally produce cytokines necessary for adaptive immune response, which this infection prevents.

Question 41

A(n) (antibody/cell- mediated) immune response occurs when an APC binds to a Th2 lymphocyte and IL- 4 is present.

Question 42

B lymphocytes can bind directly to large antigens with repeating polysaccharide subunits, such as a bacterial capsule that has antigenic determinants known as T- independent (receptors/antigens).

Question 43

How is the development of autoimmunity normally prevented?

A) T lymphocytes that respond to autoantigens in the thymus undergo clonal deletion.
B) Clonal deletion of T cells and regulatory T cell suppression prevent autoreactive T cell activation.
C) Regulatory T cells suppress autoimmune responses.
D) T lymphocytes require a specific set of cytokine signals to become activated.
E) Clonal deletion of T cells, lack of necessary cytokine signals, and regulatory T cell suppression prevent activation of autoreactive T cells.

Question 44

TCRs only recognize antigens presented by APC; therefore, (BCR/MHC/Th1) molecules ultimately determine which epitopes elicit an immune response.

Question 45

Enhanced immune responses to subsequent exposures to an antigen to which the body has already been exposed are known as responses.

A) allergic
B) memory
C) third- degree immune
D) autoimmune
E) primary immune

Question 46

The antibody immune response is attributed to the action of

A) monocytes.
B) macrophages.
C) B lymphocytes.
D) neutrophils.
E) T lymphocytes.

Question 47

Professional antigen- presenting cells (APCs) include B cells, macrophages, and (dendritic/plasma/T) cells.

Question 48

An antigen produced by a pathogen while living inside a cell is known as an (auto- /endogenous/exogenous) antigen.

Question 49

You step on something in the yard resulting in a puncture wound that does not bleed freely. Antigens from any microbes that entered the wound will most likely end up in the

A) appendix.
B) spleen.
C) lymph nodes of the groin.
D) lymph nodes of the neck (cervical).
E) lymph nodes of the armpit (axilla).

Question 50

The ability of the body to respond faster and more effectively to a second exposure to pathogens is called immunologic (memory/synapse/tolerance).

Question 51

The (constant/end/variable) regions from the light and heavy chains of an antibody combine to form antigen- binding sites.

Question 52

When a T cell and an antigen- presenting cell interact, a specialized contact called an immunological (connection/bond/synapse) forms between them.

Question 53

The process of (apoptosis/autolysis/differentiation) is a critical event in the development of self- tolerance.

Question 54

The surface of each B lymphocyte is covered with about 250,000 to 500,000 identical copies of (BCR/MHC/TCR).

Question 55

Antigen processing is required for helper T cells to respond to (antigen/cytokines/MHC).

Question 56

Antibody molecules are produced by (B/plasma/T) cells.

Question 57

An APC presents antigen to an unactivated T lymphocyte on an MHC I molecule and secretes IL- 12 at the same time. As a result the T lymphocyte differentiates into a (Th1/Th2/Tr) lymphocyte.

Question 58

Which of the following statements about lymphocytes is FALSE?

A) The glycoproteins on the surface of a lymphocyte are designated with the prefix CD, for "cluster of differentiation."
B) Once they are mature, they migrate to secondary lymphoid organs.
C) B and T lymphocytes can be differentiated under the microscope.
D) Lymphocytes have different types of CD molecules in their cytoplasmic membranes.
E) Lymphocytes have integral surface proteins by which they can be recognized.

Question 59

The antibody function known as (agglutination/neutralization/opsonization) is illustrated here.

Question 60

The body recognizes antigens by the three dimensional shapes of regions known as (antigenic/antibody/immunologic) determinants.

Question 61

Immature B lymphocytes undergo clonal deletion in the bone marrow.

Question 62

Some plasma cells persist long after an infection and contribute to secondary immune responses.

Question 63

Compare and contrast clonal deletion and clonal selection of B lymphocytes.

Question 64

Large molecules such as polymers make good antigens.

Question 65

Describe the mechanisms of action of antibodies.

Question 66

Discuss the importance of there being two types of adaptive immune responses (antibody and cell- mediated).

Question 67

During an infection with Listeria, an intracellular bacterium, APCs will present antigen on MHC II molecules.

Question 68

The MALT lacks the tough outer capsule of a lymph node but functions in the same way.

Question 69

A variety of molecular components of the adaptive immune system bind epitopes (antigenic determinants). Compare and contrast the binding of epitopes by antibody molecules, T cell receptors (TCRs), and MHC molecules, and describe the consequences of the different interactions.

Question 70

What are the steps involved in B cell activation?

Question 71

When a T cell's CD95L binds to the CD95 on a target cell, antibodies are formed.

Question 72

Cytokines are soluble regulatory proteins that act as intercellular signals and include substances such as interleukins, interferon, and growth factors.

Question 73

IgG antibodies have a variety of mechanisms for acting on antigens.

Question 74

A single B lymphocyte can recognize multiple antigenic determinants.

Question 75

Molecules with a molecular mass less than 5000 daltons can become antigens when they bind to carrier molecules.