Deck 3: Prenatal-Development

Question 1

Rh incompatibility happens when androgens produced by the child are transmitted to the mother.

Answer 1

False

Question 2

Prenatal development can be thought of in terms of the germinal, embryonic, and fetal periods. Or, it can be thought of as three trimesters. In terms of the way time is divided into periods, these two viewpoints are

A) identical; they both see prenatal development as occurring in three 3-month periods.
B) identical; they both see prenatal development as divided into the first two weeks, week 3 through 8, and the third month through birth.
C) similar in that both assume a pregnancy will last 266 days.
D) different in how development is viewed.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Mothers do not usually feel the first fetal movements until the end of the sixth month of pregnancy.

Answer 3

False

Question 4

Only 10% of all infants born from 18 to 22 weeks of gestation will survive.

Question 5

The embryonic disk is part of the that eventually becomes the embryo.

A) blastocyst
B) trophoblast
C) placenta
D) sperm cell

Question 6

Prenatal activity predicts activity level after birth.

Question 7

Within 36 hours after conception, the zygote consists of cells.

A) 2
B) 36
C) hundreds of
D) several thousand

Question 8

In the second trimester, the fetus grows from about three inches long to about 14 inches long.

Question 9

Once in the uterus, the zygote

A) stops dividing into more cells.
B) becomes implanted immediately.
C) wanders around for 3 or 4 days before becoming implanted.
D) is now called a fetus.

Question 10

Very high doses of vitamins A and D are good for the developing fetus.

Question 11

The fetus is more vulnerable than the embryo to teratogens.

Question 12

Fetal movements are random and do not relate to external events.

Question 13

DES is associated with cancer in the reproductive organs of children of women who used it.

Question 14

During the embryonic stage, the zygote travels to the uterus and becomes implanted.

Question 15

Mother and fetus share one circulatory system; that is, they share one bloodstream.

Question 16

Nearly one-third of all pregnancies result in miscarriage, most occurring in the first three months.

Question 17

"Environmental hazards" include lead, mercury, and PCBs.

Question 18

Pregnancies can be dated from the onset of the last menstrual period before conception or by

A) assuming conception occurredtwo weeks after the beginning of a woman's last menstrual cycle.
B) counting ahead nine months from the date the woman learned she was pregnant.
C) counting forward from the date the woman believes she conceived.
D) pregnancies are not dated as there is too much variability from woman to woman.

Question 19

Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) results in more severe symptoms than fetal alcohol effect (FAE).

Question 20

The amniotic fluid provides nourishment until the baby is born.

Question 21

The nails, hair, teeth, and outer layer of skin develop from the

A) endoderm.
B) ectoderm.
C) mesoderm.
D) neural tube.

Question 22

Before the end of the first month of embryonic development, the neural tube is producing about 400 million neurons per

A) second.
B) minute.
C) day.
D) week.

Question 23

If a fetus's upper arms develop before the lower forearms, this is called cephalocaudal development and is characterized by

A) growth spreads outward from the spine.
B) development from the head down.
C) inner organs grow faster than the extremities.
D) upward from the trunk toward the brain.

Question 24

Prema has read many books about pregnancy. Each gives a different estimate for how many pregnancies end in miscarriage. Given what you know from your text, which estimate is MOST accurate?

A) About 50%
B) About 33%
C) Less than 10%
D) About 75%

Question 25

When a developing embryo is exposed to higher levels of testosterone, this will lead to

A) the development of the fallopian tubes.
B) the development of the uterus.
C) the growth of the Mullerian bulbs.
D) the differentiation of the Wolffian system.

Question 26

It is the job of the amniotic sac to

A) allow the fetus to exchange nutrients and wastes with the mother.
B) help the developing fetus maintain a stable temperature.
C) filter germs and drugs away from the developing fetus.
D) provide oxygenated blood to the developing child.

Question 27

Without the influence of , all individuals, whether genetically female or male, would develop female external genitalia.

A) androgens
B) oxytocin
C) progesterone
D) prolactin

Question 28

The fetus is connected to the placenta by the , whereas the mother is connected to the placenta by the .

A) umbilical cord; system of blood vessels in the uterine wall
B) system of blood vessels in the uterine wall; umbilical cord
C) umbilical cord; amniotic sac
D) amniotic sac; system of blood vessels in the uterine wall

Question 29

If the body were considered to have a central axis, it would be the:

A) brain
B) heart
C) spinal cord.
D) lungs.

Question 30

When the heart begins to beat in the developing embryo,

A) it is usually during the fourthweek after conception.
B) the organism weighs a fraction of an ounce.
C) the organism is only two to three inches in length.
D) the endoderm is fusing with the ectoderm.

Question 31

If a fetus's spine develops before its fingernails, this represents proximodistal development, characterized by

A) growth spreads outward from the spine.
B) development from the head down.
C) at birth, the head is oversized in comparison to the body.
D) upward from the trunk toward the brain.

Question 32

Nina says that a newly fertilized egg cell cannot survive without nourishment from the mother. Carole says that the fertilized egg cell is nourished by the yolk of the ovum and gains mass before implantation. Sarah says that the fertilized egg cell only gains mass after implantation. Which person is correct?

A) Nina only
B) Carole only
C) Sarah only
D) Nina and Sarah are correct, but Carole is not.

Question 33

Prior to implantation, how are the developing cells that will become the fetus nourished?

A) Nourishment is not necessary at this stage of development.
B) From the umbilical cord and through the placenta
C) From the yolk of the original egg cell
D) From the endoderm of the blastocyst

Question 34

Given the cephalocaudal pattern of development, which of the following should happen first?

A) Development of the sensory systems
B) Growth of the hands and feet
C) Development of the brain and spinal cord
D) Development of the kidneys and liver

Question 35

Which of the following does NOT develop from the four membranes of the trophoblast?

A) Zygote
B) Amniotic sac
C) Umbilical cord
D) Placenta

Question 36

Female and male embryos have a pair of sexually undifferentiated gonads and two sets of primitive duct structures. These are known as the and ducts.

A) XX; XY
B) MIS; DHT
C) Mullerian; Wolffian
D) testosterone; estrogen

Question 37

At about 21 days, two ridges appear in the embryo and fold to make up the neural tube, which develops into the

A) nails, hair, and teeth.
B) digestive system, liver, and pancreas.
C) brain and spinal cord.
D) circulatory system, muscles, and skeleton.

Question 38

What makes the placenta unique in origin?

A) It is the first fetal structure to develop.
B) It allows oxygen and nutrients between mother and embryo to mix.
C) It develops from material from both the mother and embryo.
D) It provides the fluid that surrounds the embryo and protects it.

Question 39

According to the textbook, is required for the development of male genital organs.

A) androgens
B) progestin
C) Wolffianinhibiting substance
D) estradiol

Question 40

When the genetic code (XX or XY) begins to assert itself,

A) genetic activity on the Y sex chromosome causes ovaries to begin to differentiate.
B) genetic activity on the X sex chromosome causes ovaries to begin to differentiate.
C) ovaries begin to differentiate if the Y sex chromosome is absent.
D) testes begin to differentiate if the Y sex chromosome is absent.

Question 41

What structure secretes hormones that stimulate the uterine contractions that prompt childbirth?

A) The umbilical cord
B) The placenta
C) The amniotic sac
D) The uterus itself

Question 42

If a child is born with alcohol-related abnormalities, which of the following would not be a safe assumption?

A) The mother ingested alcohol sometime during the pregnancy.
B) Alcohol can be passed from the mother to the developing child.
C) That the placenta was unable to keep the alcohol from being passed to the child.
D) The child will suffer from intellectual disability later in life.

Question 43

Prenatally, Michael was a non-active and lethargic fetus. Given the research on fetal activity levels, what might you expect to find postnatally?

A) High activity levels because he rested in utero
B) Less advanced motor development after birth than more active fetuses.
C) Low activity levels and slower physical development across the first year
D) Prenatal activity is unrelated to postnatal activity

Question 44

During the pregnancy, when have all of the fetal organs formed?

A) By the end of the first trimester
B) Not until the end of the second trimester
C) Halfway through the third trimester
D) It depends upon the particular developing fetus.

Question 45

DeCasper and colleagues (1984, 1986, 1991) found that newborns preferred the voices of their own mothers to that of their fathers or unfamiliar women. Their explanation was that

A) newborns simply had less exposure to the voices of their fathers and unfamiliar women.
B) this might be a basis for attachment to the mother.
C) while female infants preferred their mother's voices, male infants preferred their father's voices.
D) this preference disappeared by the time the infants were two months old.

Question 46

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the placenta?

A) It secrets hormones that prepare the breasts for nursing.
B) It inhibitscontractions that prompt childbirth.
C) It is also called the amnion.
D) It cannot be seen on an ultrasound.

Question 47

What can be said regarding detectable fetal movements across pregnancy?

A) Slow squirming movements begin at about 5 or 6 months.
B) Sharp jabbing or kicking movements begin at 5 or 6 months and progressively declin.e
C) Movements begin at 5 to 6 months and increase steadily until the fetus is born.
D) The fetus is only active when the mother is active.

Question 48

Why might the fetus move less often during the ninth month of gestation than before?

A) Growth has slowed, so movements will too.
B) The fetus is conserving energy for the difficult birth process.
C) The fetus is spending more time sleeping.
D) The fetus is larger and there is simply less room for movement.

Question 49

All of the following occur by the end of the second trimester EXCEPT for

A) advancing from one ounce to two pounds in weight.
B) growing four to five times in length.
C) opening and closing of the eyes.
D) fetal activity level decreases.

Question 50

Women who are infected with HIV can pass it to their offspring

A) through skin-to-skin contact.
B) during delivery through contact with maternal blood and fluids.
C) in all cases.
D) when there is intravenous drug use taking place during the pregnancy..

Question 51

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) Maternal malnutrition has no effect on fetal health.
B) Fetuses "take what they need" from their mothers in terms of nutrition.
C) Supportive caregiving environments cannot offset the negative effects of fetal malnutrition.
D) Maternal malnutrition is related to fetal prematurity and cognitive deficiencies.

Question 52

What can be done to offset the negative cognitive effects of fetal malnutrition?

A) Enriched day-care programs for the children
B) A vitamin regimen for the children
C) Regular exercise for the children
D) Nothing can be done to undo the negative cognitive effects.

Question 53

Kenisha had an ultrasound and sees that her developing fetus is sucking its thumb. What can we infer from this?

A) That Kenisha is at least at the end of the first trimester
B) That the developing fetus must be at least 24 weeks of gestation
C) That the fetus will also have periods of wakefulness and sleep
D) That Kenisha has successfully avoided being exposed to teratogens during the pregnancy

Question 54

In the DeCasper and Fifer study (1980), infants showed a preference for the reading of

A) The King, the Mice, and the Cheese.
B) The Cat in the Hat.
C) Where the Wild Things Are.
D) Goodnight Moon.

Question 55

Which of the following is TRUE regarding fetal activity in utero?

A) It varies by individual child.
B) It varies by sex of fetus.
C) Highly active fetuses show less advanced motor development after birth.
D) It predicts infant intelligence at 6 months of age.

Question 56

The placenta contains a membrane that acts as a filter. It allows for which of the following to pass from mother to fetus?

A) Nutrients only
B) Oxygen only
C) Germs only
D) Nutrients, oxygen, and germs

Question 57

What methods can we use to determine if a fetus can differentiate between different sounds?

A) Differences in their movements in response to different sounds
B) Changes in fetal brain activity.
C) Demonstration of the in-utero Moro reflex
D) An absence of the Babinski sign

Question 58

Which of the following secretes hormones that preserve the pregnancy?

A) The placenta
B) The umbilical cord
C) The amniotic sac
D) The trophoblast

Question 59

Danielle is at the end of her second trimester. Her fetus kicks and moves whenever she plays jazz music. What can we infer from this?

A) The fetus can perceive sounds.
B) The movement is random because the fetus cannot yet hear.
C) The fetus has developed enough that it can now survive independently if born.
D) What we could infer would depend upon the rhythm of the music.

Question 60

During the pregnancy, when will the developing fetus alternate between periods of wakefulness and sleep?

A) In the first trimester
B) By the end of the second trimester
C) Not until the end of the third trimester
D) It depends upon the particular developing fetus.

Question 61

A baby born to a mother with untreated syphilis

A) has a 10 to 20% chance of being infected in utero.
B) is guaranteed to show symptoms at birth.
C) has a 12% chance of dying from the disease.
D) will likely be born both blind and deaf.

Question 62

An antibiotic would be MOST successful in fighting which of the following illnesses?

A) Rubella
B) HIV
C) Syphilis
D) Fetal alcohol syndrome

Question 63

If Emmeline wants to increase the amount of vitamin E in her diet while she is pregnant, she should eat more

A) citrus.
B) meat, egg yolk, and raisins.
C) wheat germ and whole grain bread.
D) dairy.

Question 64

Maternal obesity is associated with

A) increased risk of miscarriage.
B) higher risk of stillbirth.
C) cognitive deficits in the newborn.
D) slower physical development.

Question 65

Aside from eating a well-balanced diet, many pregnant women take folic acid supplements to reduce their chances of giving birth to children with

A) neural tube defects.
B) low birth weights.
C) food allergies.
D) PKU.

Question 66

In a study by Shaw and colleagues, the higher the level of maternal obesity, the higher the rate of neural tube defects. Folic acid supplements

A) were effective in reducing neural tube defects for all women.
B) were not effective in women weighing more than 154 pounds.
C) were effective only in the most obese women.
D) increased the rate of neural tube defects.

Question 67

A pregnant woman is diagnosed as having syphilis. Which of the following is TRUE regarding her fetus?n infant born with skin sores, a runny nose, slimy patches in the mouth, and anemia may have been exposed to in utero.

A) She will not be given antibiotics, as the syphilis bacterium is immune to antibiotics
B) She must be in her last trimester, as syphilis cannot be detected earlier in a pregnancy
C) An infected, untreated woman has about a 40% chance of having a child who is stillborn or who dies shortly after birth
D) The child will be unaffected, as syphilis cannot cross the placenta

Question 68

In which of the following ways can HIV be passed from parent to child?

A) Through amniotic fluid
B) Through rupturing of maternal and fetal blood vessels during childbirth, which allows an exchange of blood and HIV
C) Via HIV infected sperm
D) Not possible under any circumstances

Question 69

According to the textbook, the acronym STI refers to

A) serious terminal indicator.
B) sometimes infectious.
C) sexually transmitted infection.
D) syphilitic infected individual.

Question 70

Alcohol would be an example of a

A) fetal stimulant.
B) hallucinogen.
C) teratogen.
D) chemical that cannot cross through the placenta.

Question 71

If you know that someone is attempting to increase their intake of zinc and cobalt, what might they be more of?

A) liver
B) seafood
C) leafy vegetables
D) wheat germ

Question 72

Women who are too slender

A) have the healthiest infants.
B) are more likely to have infants who are obese.
C) risk having preterm deliveries and low-birth-weight babies.
D) should consume diets high in fat and sugar in order to gain weight during pregnancy.

Question 73

To help ensure the health of her fetus, Rita eats green leafy vegetables every day. This helps increase her intake of

A) vitamin B.
B) zinc.
C) iron.
D) folic acid.

Question 74

What can be done to improve the motor development of fetuses of malnourished mothers?

A) Exercise by the mother during the pregnancy
B) The motor development cannot be improved once the mother is malnourished
C) It depends upon the sex of the child.
D) Provide protein and calorie supplements to the mother during the pregnancy

Question 75

The word teratogen is derived from a word meaning

A) healthy.
B) giving birth to monsters.
C) from head to tail.
D) critical period.

Question 76

Which of the following is TRUE about teratogens?

A) We can usually predict with certainty what their effects will be.
B) The effects of teratogens may depend upon when after conception they are encountered.
C) Exposure to teratogens is more likely to affect the fetusthan the embryo.
D) Teratogens can all be avoided with careful planning.

Question 77

An infant born with skin sores, a runny nose, slimy patches in the mouth, and anemia may have been exposed to in utero.

A) the flu
B) syphilis
C) rubella
D) thalidomide

Question 78

What is the relationship between a woman's BMI and her recommended weight gain during pregnancy?

A) Slimmer mothers should gain less weight.
B) Heavier mothers are encouraged to diet while pregnant.
C) The heavier the mother, the less weight she should gain during pregnancy.
D) BMI and weight gain are unrelated; each mother decides what is a healthy weight gain for her.

Question 79

If a child is born with stunted arms and legs, what may have happened?

A) The fetus was exposed to a significant teratogen between the 4th and 8th weeks after conception.
B) The mother must have ingested alcohol at least once during the pregnancy.
C) The fetus was exposed to a teratogen during the third trimester.
D) The amniotic fluid was infected with some kind of virus.

Question 80

Environmental agents that can harm the embryo or fetus are called

A) toxins.
B) critical agents.
C) teratogens.
D) cencephalons.