Deck 22: Emergency Medical Care for Fire Department First Responders
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Deck 22: Emergency Medical Care for Fire Department First Responders
1
Vaccines are available for which types of hepatitis?
A) Hepatitis A and C
B) Hepatitis A and B
C) Hepatitis C and D
D) Hepatitis B and C
A) Hepatitis A and C
B) Hepatitis A and B
C) Hepatitis C and D
D) Hepatitis B and C
B
2
Which of the following individuals would MOST likely have a legitimate need to access a patient's protected medical information without patient consent?
A) Relatives
B) Employers
C) Nearby neighbors
D) Law enforcement personnel
A) Relatives
B) Employers
C) Nearby neighbors
D) Law enforcement personnel
D
3
Which communicable disease is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the respiratory system?
A) MRSA
B) Hepatitis
C) HIV/AIDS
D) Tuberculosis (TB)
A) MRSA
B) Hepatitis
C) HIV/AIDS
D) Tuberculosis (TB)
D
4
Protected medical information would include:
A) name and birth date of a patient.
B) response time of ambulance calls.
C) number of patients seen at an incident.
D) number of personnel who responded to patients.
A) name and birth date of a patient.
B) response time of ambulance calls.
C) number of patients seen at an incident.
D) number of personnel who responded to patients.
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5
Which of the following statements about fire departments and EMS services is MOST accurate?
A) Most areas have few fire stations and apparatus and few ambulances.
B) Most areas have the same number of fire stations and ambulances.
C) Most areas have multiple fire stations and apparatus but only a few ambulances.
D) Most areas have multiple ambulances but only a few fire stations and apparatus.
A) Most areas have few fire stations and apparatus and few ambulances.
B) Most areas have the same number of fire stations and ambulances.
C) Most areas have multiple fire stations and apparatus but only a few ambulances.
D) Most areas have multiple ambulances but only a few fire stations and apparatus.
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6
Which method of providing ambulance services involves patients being transported to a contracted hospital for treatment?
A) Fire-based EMS
B) Third-service EMS
C) Police-based EMS
D) Hospital-based EMS
A) Fire-based EMS
B) Third-service EMS
C) Police-based EMS
D) Hospital-based EMS
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7
Noncompliance with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) (1996) can result in:
A) civil and criminal penalties.
B) mandatory re-training of all department staff.
C) needing to destroy all forms related to the incident.
D) requiring a waiver of liability from all involved patients.
A) civil and criminal penalties.
B) mandatory re-training of all department staff.
C) needing to destroy all forms related to the incident.
D) requiring a waiver of liability from all involved patients.
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8
Which type of viral hepatitis is an uncommon rare strain of hepatitis?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D
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9
Which type of viral hepatitis is typically transmitted through blood and other body fluids and can be short-term or long-term?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D
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10
Which communicable disease is more prevalent in high-density living areas because it is transmitted by airborne droplets?
A) MRSA
B) Hepatitis
C) HIV/AIDS
D) Tuberculosis (TB)
A) MRSA
B) Hepatitis
C) HIV/AIDS
D) Tuberculosis (TB)
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11
Fire departments may be requested to respond to a scene and begin care until EMS personnel arrive because fire department personnel:
A) can provide law-enforcement capabilities.
B) may have down-time and need to log calls.
C) often are better-qualified than EMS in many jurisdictions.
D) often are able to respond faster than EMS in many jurisdictions.
A) can provide law-enforcement capabilities.
B) may have down-time and need to log calls.
C) often are better-qualified than EMS in many jurisdictions.
D) often are able to respond faster than EMS in many jurisdictions.
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12
Which communicable disease, spread through contact with infected body fluids, weakens the immune system until the body is unable to fight off diseases?
A) MRSA
B) Hepatitis
C) HIV/AIDS
D) Tuberculosis (TB)
A) MRSA
B) Hepatitis
C) HIV/AIDS
D) Tuberculosis (TB)
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13
What was the purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) (1996)?
A) Institute greater regulations on healthcare training
B) Institute a centralized location for medical information
C) Institute security of protected medical information that is the responsibility of the patient
D) Institute greater regulations on use, distribution, and storage of protected medical information
A) Institute greater regulations on healthcare training
B) Institute a centralized location for medical information
C) Institute security of protected medical information that is the responsibility of the patient
D) Institute greater regulations on use, distribution, and storage of protected medical information
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14
Which type of viral hepatitis is typically caused by consuming food or water that has been contaminated, particularly by fecal matter?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D
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15
Which communicable disease is an inflammation of the liver and has symptoms including a viral-like illness and yellowish discoloration of eyes and skin?
A) MRSA
B) Hepatitis
C) HIV/AIDS
D) Tuberculosis (TB)
A) MRSA
B) Hepatitis
C) HIV/AIDS
D) Tuberculosis (TB)
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16
Which of the following would be considered protected medical information?
A) Employee positions
B) Departmental budget
C) Number of ambulance runs
D) Medical history of a patient
A) Employee positions
B) Departmental budget
C) Number of ambulance runs
D) Medical history of a patient
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17
With which type of viral hepatitis may the infected patient go years without exhibiting symptoms?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D
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18
Which communicable disease is a drug-resistant staph infection?
A) MRSA
B) Hepatitis
C) HIV/AIDS
D) Tuberculosis (TB)
A) MRSA
B) Hepatitis
C) HIV/AIDS
D) Tuberculosis (TB)
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19
Which method of providing ambulance services may be staffed by firefighters who are cross-trained as emergency medical technicians or Paramedics?
A) Fire-based EMS
B) Third-service EMS
C) Police-based EMS
D) Hospital-based EMS
A) Fire-based EMS
B) Third-service EMS
C) Police-based EMS
D) Hospital-based EMS
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20
Which method of providing ambulance services involves the services provided under a contract by for-profit or not-for-profit organizations?
A) Fire-based EMS
B) Third-service EMS
C) Police-based EMS
D) Hospital-based EMS
A) Fire-based EMS
B) Third-service EMS
C) Police-based EMS
D) Hospital-based EMS
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21
An annual purified protein derivative (PPD) test may be administered to determine:
A) MRSA exposure.
B) hepatitis exposure.
C) HIV/AIDS exposure.
D) tuberculosis (TB) exposure.
A) MRSA exposure.
B) hepatitis exposure.
C) HIV/AIDS exposure.
D) tuberculosis (TB) exposure.
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22
Hands should be washed for:
A) at least 20 seconds.
B) no less than 30 seconds.
C) more than two minutes.
D) more than three minutes.
A) at least 20 seconds.
B) no less than 30 seconds.
C) more than two minutes.
D) more than three minutes.
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23
Which of the following statements about safety glasses is MOST accurate?
A) They can be interchanged with helmet shields.
B) They cannot be used with prescription glasses.
C) They usually do not provide impact resistance.
D) They are designed to keep fluids away from the eyes.
A) They can be interchanged with helmet shields.
B) They cannot be used with prescription glasses.
C) They usually do not provide impact resistance.
D) They are designed to keep fluids away from the eyes.
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24
Which of the following statements about decontaminating equipment and personal protective equipment is MOST accurate?
A) Sharps can be placed with other biohazard materials.
B) Contaminated PPE can be decontaminated in the fire station bathroom.
C) Contaminated station uniforms can be taken home and laundered.
D) Equipment should be disinfected in accordance with manufacturer's instructions.
A) Sharps can be placed with other biohazard materials.
B) Contaminated PPE can be decontaminated in the fire station bathroom.
C) Contaminated station uniforms can be taken home and laundered.
D) Equipment should be disinfected in accordance with manufacturer's instructions.
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25
In patients that are unresponsive and not breathing, or breathing with irregular gasping breaths, assessment sequence should be rearranged to:
A) airway, breathing, and circulation.
B) airway, circulation, and breathing.
C) breathing, airway, and circulation.
D) circulation, airway, and breathing.
A) airway, breathing, and circulation.
B) airway, circulation, and breathing.
C) breathing, airway, and circulation.
D) circulation, airway, and breathing.
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26
Which of the following is the manner in which the majority of patients will be assessed?
A) Airway, breathing, and circulation
B) Airway, circulation, and breathing
C) Breathing, airway, and circulation
D) Circulation, airway, and breathing
A) Airway, breathing, and circulation
B) Airway, circulation, and breathing
C) Breathing, airway, and circulation
D) Circulation, airway, and breathing
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27
When tuberculosis is suspected, what type of respirator should be used?
A) N-95 respirator
B) Escape respirator
C) Powered air-purifying respirator
D) Self-contained breathing apparatus
A) N-95 respirator
B) Escape respirator
C) Powered air-purifying respirator
D) Self-contained breathing apparatus
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28
Which of the following is the most basic patient assessment?
A) Determine medical history
B) Determine what caused the injuries
C) Determine what the specific illness or problem is in the patient
D) Determine if critical functions of the body are working properly
A) Determine medical history
B) Determine what caused the injuries
C) Determine what the specific illness or problem is in the patient
D) Determine if critical functions of the body are working properly
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29
Which of the following can be determined by observing the patient's chest rise and fall or by listening?
A) Airway
B) Breathing
C) Circulation
D) Points of injury
A) Airway
B) Breathing
C) Circulation
D) Points of injury
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30
Which personal protective equipment item protects against respiratory hazards and airborne pathogens?
A) Gloves
B) Masks
C) Gowns
D) Spare uniforms
A) Gloves
B) Masks
C) Gowns
D) Spare uniforms
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31
Chest compressions are done using two hands when performing CPR on:
A) adults.
B) infants.
C) children.
D) patients over 75 pounds.
A) adults.
B) infants.
C) children.
D) patients over 75 pounds.
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32
When performing chest compressions for adults, perform at least:
A) 50 compressions per minute.
B) 75 compressions per minute.
C) 100 compressions per minute.
D) 150 compressions per minute.
A) 50 compressions per minute.
B) 75 compressions per minute.
C) 100 compressions per minute.
D) 150 compressions per minute.
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33
What should be done with gloves soiled with blood or other body fluids?
A) Washed with soap and air dried
B) Disposed of in the regular trash
C) Disposed of in a sealed container
D) Rinsed and then placed in bleach
A) Washed with soap and air dried
B) Disposed of in the regular trash
C) Disposed of in a sealed container
D) Rinsed and then placed in bleach
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34
Which statement about taking pulses is MOST accurate?
A) The blood flow needed to feel a pulse is the same for a carotid and radial artery.
B) It typically takes stronger blood flow for pulse to be felt at a carotid artery than at a radial artery.
C) Only the radial artery can be felt with a hand, the carotid artery requires equipment to detect.
D) It typically takes stronger blood flow for pulse to be felt at a radial artery than at a carotid artery.
A) The blood flow needed to feel a pulse is the same for a carotid and radial artery.
B) It typically takes stronger blood flow for pulse to be felt at a carotid artery than at a radial artery.
C) Only the radial artery can be felt with a hand, the carotid artery requires equipment to detect.
D) It typically takes stronger blood flow for pulse to be felt at a radial artery than at a carotid artery.
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35
Containers used for the disposal of items contaminated with blood or body fluids are typically:
A) red in color.
B) blue in color.
C) green in color.
D) black and white in color.
A) red in color.
B) blue in color.
C) green in color.
D) black and white in color.
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36
Which of the following would be the BEST source for information on body substance isolation procedures?
A) Underwriters Laboratories (UL)
B) American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM)
C) United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
D) United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
A) Underwriters Laboratories (UL)
B) American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM)
C) United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
D) United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
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37
Which of the following is the MOST commonly encountered type of pathogen?
A) Airborne pathogens
B) Bloodborne pathogens
C) Solid-state pathogens
D) Mucous discharge pathogens
A) Airborne pathogens
B) Bloodborne pathogens
C) Solid-state pathogens
D) Mucous discharge pathogens
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38
Which of the following should be the first determination upon arrival for a suspected cardiac patient?
A) Determine medical history
B) If patient is conscious or unconscious
C) Whether patient desires medical help
D) If patient is on a hard or soft surface
A) Determine medical history
B) If patient is conscious or unconscious
C) Whether patient desires medical help
D) If patient is on a hard or soft surface
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39
Which of the following vaccines may be required or recommended for fire department first responders?
A) MRSA
B) HIV/AIDS
C) Tuberculosis (TB)
D) Tetanus/diphtheria
A) MRSA
B) HIV/AIDS
C) Tuberculosis (TB)
D) Tetanus/diphtheria
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40
Which of the following statements about personal protective equipment (PPE) and body substance isolation is MOST accurate?
A) It is better to wear too little than too much.
B) It is better to wear too much than not enough.
C) When PPE is uncomfortable it is best to not wear it.
D) What PPE to wear is up to each individual responder.
A) It is better to wear too little than too much.
B) It is better to wear too much than not enough.
C) When PPE is uncomfortable it is best to not wear it.
D) What PPE to wear is up to each individual responder.
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41
Which type of external bleeding is bright red in color due to the large amount of oxygen it contains?
A) Arterial
B) Venous
C) Capillary
D) Intramuscular
A) Arterial
B) Venous
C) Capillary
D) Intramuscular
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42
Patients who have internal bleeding may show signs such as:
A) the inability to use the bathroom.
B) becoming very hot and sweaty.
C) an increasingly urgent thirst for cool liquids.
D) vomiting of substance that looks like coffee grounds.
A) the inability to use the bathroom.
B) becoming very hot and sweaty.
C) an increasingly urgent thirst for cool liquids.
D) vomiting of substance that looks like coffee grounds.
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43
During which stage of shock is the body affected by the negative condition and is adjusting functions in order to maintain normal levels?
A) Secondary
B) Pre-emergent
C) Compensated
D) Decompensated
A) Secondary
B) Pre-emergent
C) Compensated
D) Decompensated
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44
When performing chest compressions for infants, perform at least:
A) 50 compressions per minute.
B) 75 compressions per minute.
C) 100 compressions per minute.
D) 150 compressions per minute.
A) 50 compressions per minute.
B) 75 compressions per minute.
C) 100 compressions per minute.
D) 150 compressions per minute.
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45
Which of the following is a reason for discontinuing CPR?
A) Amount of time that has transpired
B) Another patient requires your assistance
C) You hand over care to a rescuer with higher training
D) Bystanders watching the event ask that CPR be discontinued
A) Amount of time that has transpired
B) Another patient requires your assistance
C) You hand over care to a rescuer with higher training
D) Bystanders watching the event ask that CPR be discontinued
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46
Which type of shock is caused by a severe infection in the body?
A) Septic shock
B) Cardiogenic shock
C) Neurogenic shock
D) Anaphylactic shock
A) Septic shock
B) Cardiogenic shock
C) Neurogenic shock
D) Anaphylactic shock
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47
Which type of shock is caused by severe allergic reactions?
A) Septic shock
B) Cardiogenic shock
C) Neurogenic shock
D) Anaphylactic shock
A) Septic shock
B) Cardiogenic shock
C) Neurogenic shock
D) Anaphylactic shock
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48
Which type of shock is caused by blood loss?
A) Hypovolemic shock
B) Cardiogenic shock
C) Neurogenic shock
D) Anaphylactic shock
A) Hypovolemic shock
B) Cardiogenic shock
C) Neurogenic shock
D) Anaphylactic shock
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49
Which type of shock is caused by overexpansion of blood vessels due to damage to the brain, spinal cord, or other nerves?
A) Septic shock
B) Hypovolemic shock
C) Neurogenic shock
D) Anaphylactic shock
A) Septic shock
B) Hypovolemic shock
C) Neurogenic shock
D) Anaphylactic shock
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50
Which type of external bleeding is a darker red color and usually has a steady flow?
A) Arterial
B) Venous
C) Capillary
D) Intramuscular
A) Arterial
B) Venous
C) Capillary
D) Intramuscular
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51
Which of the following methods to control external bleeding uses the effect of gravity to help slow the amount of blood?
A) Elevation
B) Tourniquets
C) Medications
D) Direct pressure
A) Elevation
B) Tourniquets
C) Medications
D) Direct pressure
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52
Which type of external bleeding is often difficult to control due to substantial force of the blood and is a true medical emergency?
A) Arterial
B) Venous
C) Capillary
D) Intramuscular
A) Arterial
B) Venous
C) Capillary
D) Intramuscular
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53
Chest compressions are done using only one hand when performing CPR on:
A) adults.
B) children.
C) patients under 75 pounds.
D) patients under 100 pounds.
A) adults.
B) children.
C) patients under 75 pounds.
D) patients under 100 pounds.
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54
Which of the following is a sign of internal bleeding?
A) Variable heart rate
B) Extremely high fever
C) Yellowing of the skin
D) Painful, swollen, or rigid abdomen
A) Variable heart rate
B) Extremely high fever
C) Yellowing of the skin
D) Painful, swollen, or rigid abdomen
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55
Which of the following is the main way of determining whether CPR is working?
A) Coloring of the patient's skin
B) Reassessing periodically for pulse
C) Amount of time that has transpired
D) Patient regains consciousness or begins to move
A) Coloring of the patient's skin
B) Reassessing periodically for pulse
C) Amount of time that has transpired
D) Patient regains consciousness or begins to move
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56
Which of the following is the first and most commonly used method to control external bleeding?
A) Elevation
B) Tourniquets
C) Medications
D) Direct pressure
A) Elevation
B) Tourniquets
C) Medications
D) Direct pressure
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57
Chest compressions are done with the index and middle fingers of one hand when performing CPR on:
A) infants.
B) children.
C) patients under 40 pounds.
D) patients under 50 pounds.
A) infants.
B) children.
C) patients under 40 pounds.
D) patients under 50 pounds.
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58
Which type of shock occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood?
A) Hypovolemic shock
B) Cardiogenic shock
C) Neurogenic shock
D) Anaphylactic shock
A) Hypovolemic shock
B) Cardiogenic shock
C) Neurogenic shock
D) Anaphylactic shock
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59
When performing chest compressions for children, perform at least:
A) 50 compressions per minute.
B) 75 compressions per minute.
C) 100 compressions per minute.
D) 150 compressions per minute.
A) 50 compressions per minute.
B) 75 compressions per minute.
C) 100 compressions per minute.
D) 150 compressions per minute.
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60
Which type of external bleeding "oozes" from injuries and is typically of limited quantity?
A) Arterial
B) Venous
C) Capillary
D) Intramuscular
A) Arterial
B) Venous
C) Capillary
D) Intramuscular
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61
In most cases, the best treatment for shock is:
A) avoiding movement.
B) transporting to a hospital.
C) providing fluids intravenously.
D) increasing body temperature.
A) avoiding movement.
B) transporting to a hospital.
C) providing fluids intravenously.
D) increasing body temperature.
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62
Symptoms such as nausea and/or vomitingand changes to vital signs are most likely seen in:
A) secondary shock.
B) pre-emergent shock.
C) compensated shock.
D) decompensated shock.
A) secondary shock.
B) pre-emergent shock.
C) compensated shock.
D) decompensated shock.
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