Deck 12: Antimicrobial Treatment

Question 1

Aminoglycosides ______.

A) destroy peptidoglycan
B) are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis
C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis
D) damage cell membranes
E) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules

Answer 1

attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis

Question 2

The use of a drug to prevent imminent infection is called ______.

A) competitive inhibition
B) synergism
C) prebiotics
D) prophylaxis
E) lantibiotics

Answer 2

prophylaxis

Question 3

Antibiotics are derived from all of the following, except ______.

A) Penicillium
B) Bacillus
C) Staphylococcus
D) Streptomyces
E) Cephalosporium

Answer 3

Staphylococcus

Question 4

An ideal antimicrobial therapeutic drug exhibits all of the following characteristics, except _______.

A) they are nontoxic to host
B) they are easily broken down by host
C) they are easily administered
D) they have limited capacity to elicit resistance
E) they are nonallergenic

Question 5

Sulfonamides _______.

A) interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan
B) are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis
C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis
D) damage cell membranes
E) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules

Question 6

Selective toxicity refers to damage to _______.

A) pathogenic organisms
B) prokaryotic cell membranes
C) the target organisms but not vertebrate cells
D) nucleic acids

Question 7

Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy bacteria are called ______.

A) synthetic drugs
B) antibiotics
C) narrow-spectrum drugs
D) semisynthetic drugs
E) broad-spectrum drugs

Question 8

Each of the following target bacterial ribosomes, except ______.

A) streptomycin
B) gentamycin
C) polymyxins
D) tetracycline
E) erythromycin

Question 9

Drugs that insert on the ______ ribosomal subunit prevent peptide bond formation or inhibit translocation of the subunit during translation.

A) 30S
B) 40S
C) 50S
D) 60S
E) 70S

Question 10

Each of the following affect cell walls, except ______.

A) penicillin
B) cycloserine
C) vancomycin
D) erythromycin
E) cephalosporin

Question 11

Penicillins and cephalosporins _______.

A) destroy peptidoglycan
B) are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis
C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis
D) damage cell membranes
E) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules

Question 12

Which of the following antimicrobials does not inhibit DNA synthesis?

A) Chloroquine
B) Quinolone
C) Penicillin
D) Azidothymidine
E) Acyclovir

Question 13

Important characteristics of antimicrobial drugs include _______.

A) low toxicity for human tissues
B) high toxicity against microbial cells
C) a lack of serious side effects in humans
D) stability and solubility in body tissues and ?uids
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 14

Antibiotics that disrupt bacterial ribosomes can also affect _______.

A) eukaryotic large ribosomal subunit
B) eukaryotic small ribosomal subunit
C) ribosomal RNA
D) eukaryotic mitochondrial ribosomes

Question 15

Sulfa drugs work on _______.

A) nucleic acid biosynthesis
B) ribosome biosynthesis
C) peptidoglycan biosynthesis
D) folic acid biosynthesis

Question 16

Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have ______.

A) a semisynthetic nature
B) a beta-lactam ring
C) resistance to the action of penicillinase
D) an expanded spectrum of activity

Question 17

Antimicrobials effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed ______.

A) antibiotics
B) narrow-spectrum drugs
C) semisynthetic drugs
D) synthetic drugs
E) broad-spectrum drugs

Question 18

The use of any chemical in the treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of a disease is called ______.

A) prophylaxis
B) chemotherapy
C) selective toxicity
D) nephrotoxicity
E) synergism

Question 19

Sulfonamides are analogs of PABA and, as a result, they inhibit _____ synthesis.

A) protein
B) DNA
C) RNA
D) folic acid
E) phospholipid

Question 20

Drugs that act by mimicking the normal substrate of an enzyme, thereby blocking its active site, are called ______.

A) inhibitors
B) blockers
C) competitive inhibitors
D) noncompetitive inhibitors

Question 21

Which of the following antibacterial drug groups does not target protein synthesis?

A) Oxazolidinones
B) Macrolides
C) Aminoglycosides
D) Sulfonamides
E) Tetracyclines

Question 22

Which of the following is not an aminoglycoside?

A) Streptomycin
B) Gentamicin
C) Tetracycline
D) Amikacin
E) Tobramycin

Question 23

All _____ consist of a thiazolidine ring, a beta-lactam ring, and an R group.

A) penicillins
B) tetracyclines
C) macrolides
D) cephalosporins
E) aminoglycosides

Question 24

Clavulanic acid inhibits _______.

A) beta-lactamase activity
B) peptidoglycan synthesis
C) formation of peptidoglycan cross linkages
D) cell membrane synthesis

Question 25

Which drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis?

A) Penicillin G
B) Vancomycin
C) Tetracycline
D) Synercid
E) Isoniazid

Question 26

A major source of naturally produced penicillin is the mold ______.

A) Penicillium notatum
B) Penicillium chrysogenum
C) Penicillium familiaris
D) Naturally produced penicillin is no longer used.

Question 27

What molecule will allow some bacteria to be resistant to many penicillins?

A) Synercid
B) Penicillinase
C) Aztreonam
D) Clavulanic acid
E) Imipenem

Question 28

All of the following pertain to cephalosporins, except ______.

A) they have a beta-lactam ring
B) they have greater resistance to beta-lactamases
C) newer generations have activity against gram-negative bacteria
D) many are administered by injection, not orally
E) they are are synthetic drugs

Question 29

Which group are the key drugs used to treat Hansen's disease (leprosy)?

A) Sulfonamides
B) Sulfones
C) Fluoroquinolones
D) Polymyxins
E) Streptomyces

Question 30

Which antibiotic is used to treat MRSA and VRE infections?

A) Synercid
B) Clindamycin
C) Linezolid
D) Azithromycin
E) Clarithromycin

Question 31

What antibiotic is mixed with neomycin and polymyxin to make an antibiotic ointment (Neosporin) for super?cial skin infections?

A) Vancomycin
B) Bacitracin
C) Chloramphenicol
D) Streptomycin
E) Clindamycin

Question 32

Antimicrobials that are macrolides _______.

A) disrupt cell membrane function
B) include tetracyclines
C) include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin
D) are very narrow-spectrum drugs
E) are hepatotoxic

Question 33

Infections caused by gram-negative bacilli are often treated with ______.

A) penicillin G
B) vancomycin
C) aminoglycosides
D) synercid
E) isoniazid

Question 34

All of the following pertain to ?uoroquinolones, except _______.

A) they are broad spectrum
B) they include cipro?oxacin and levo?oxacin
C) they are nephrotoxic
D) they are used to treat respiratory, urinary, and sexually transmitted infections
E) they are readily absorbed from intestines

Question 35

A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is ______.

A) synercid
B) penicillinase
C) aztreonam
D) clavulanic acid
E) imipenem

Question 36

What drug is used in cases of penicillin and methicillin resistance and also used to treat endocarditis?

A) Penicillin G
B) Vancomycin
C) Tetracycline
D) Erythromycin
E) Isoniazid

Question 37

Which of these drugs has the most narrow-spectrum activity?

A) Tetracycline
B) Isoniazid
C) Erythromycin
D) Aminoglycosides
E) Cephalosporins

Question 38

Which antimicrobial does not interfere with protein synthesis?

A) Aminoglycosides
B) Tetracyclines
C) Erythromycin
D) Trimethroprim
E) Chloramphenicol

Question 39

Which antimicrobial does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?

A) Gentamicin
B) Vancomycin
C) Cephalosporins
D) Penicillins
E) Carbapenems

Question 40

The drug that is used to treat typhoid fever and brain abscesses, but can cause aplastic anemia, is _______.

A) chloramphenicol
B) clindamycin
C) cipro?oxacin
D) bacitracin
E) gentamicin

Question 41

Which of the following is not true of polymyxins?

A) The source is Bacillus polymyxa.
B) They are narrow spectrum.
C) They are toxic to kidneys.
D) They target cell walls.
E) They can be used to treat severe urinary tract infections caused by gram-negative bacilli.

Question 42

Which of the following is not used to treat malaria?

A) Quinine
B) Chloroquine
C) Metronidazole
D) Primaquine
E) Me?aquine

Question 43

Antiviral drugs that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat infections caused by ______.

A) in?uenza A virus
B) HIV
C) herpes zoster virus
D) respiratory syncytial virus
E) hepatitis C virus

Question 44

The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes function by _______.

A) bacterial chromosomal mutations
B) synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure
C) removing the drug from the cell when it enters

Question 45

There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminthic drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi, protozoa, and helminths _______.

A) do not cause many human infections
B) are not affected by antimicrobials
C) are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is di?cult to achieve
D) are parasites found inside human cells
E) have fewer target sites in their cells compared to bacteria

Question 46

Which of the following is not a mode of action of antiviral drugs?

A) Block penetration
B) Block transcription and translation
C) Inhibit DNA synthesis
D) Block maturation
E) Bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane

Question 47

Ketoconazole, ?uconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat _______ infections.

A) bacterial
B) fungal
C) protozoan
D) helminthic
E) viral

Question 48

The drug used for several protozoan infections is ______.

A) nystatin
B) griseofulvin
C) amphotericin B
D) sulfa drugs
E) metronidazole

Question 49

Acyclovir is used to treat infections caused by ______.

A) in?uenza A virus
B) HIV
C) herpes simplex virus
D) respiratory syncytial virus
E) hepatitis C virus

Question 50

Mebendazole, thiabendazole, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat _______ infections.

A) bacterial
B) fungal
C) protozoan
D) helminthic
E) viral

Question 51

The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobials include _______.

A) bacterial chromosomal mutations
B) synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure
C) prevention of drug entry into the cell
D) alteration of drug receptors on cell targets
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 52

Each of the following is a mechanism for drug resistance transfer between microorganisms, except _______.

A) transposons
B) R-plasmids
C) conjugation
D) mutation

Question 53

The antifungal drug that can be used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is _______.

A) nystatin
B) griseofulvin
C) amphotericin B
D) sulfa drugs
E) metronidazole

Question 54

An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that _______.

A) blocks penetration
B) blocks transcription and translation
C) inhibits DNA synthesis
D) blocks maturation
E) bonds to ergosterol in the cell membrane

Question 55

Which of the following is not a therapeutic bene?t of interferon?

A) Reduces healing time
B) Increases white blood cell count
C) Prevents or reduces some cold symptoms
D) Slows progress of some cancers
E) Treats hepatitis C

Question 56

Primaquine and chloroquine are drugs used in the treatment of ______ infections.

A) gram-positive bacterial
B) gram-negative bacterial
C) fungal
D) protozoan
E) viral

Question 57

Which of the following blocks HIV binding to host cell receptors?

A) AZT
B) Acyclovir
C) Nevirapine
D) Fuzeon
E) Amantidine

Question 58

Which of the following is not a drug group used to treat fungal infections?

A) Quinolones
B) Macrolide polyene antibiotics
C) Griseofulvin
D) Synthetic azoles
E) Flucytosine

Question 59

Each of the following results in drug resistance, except _______.

A) a drug being pumped out of the cell
B) a drug being used as a nutrient by the cell
C) a drug binding site being altered
D) a drug being inactivated
E) a drug being blocked from entering the cell

Question 60

Microbial resistance resulting from mutation occurs because ______.

A) bacterial genomes undergo mutation rapidly
B) bacterial genomes undergo mutation often
C) short generation times accumulate mutations in populations
D) mutations are passed between organisms
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 61

The use of vaginal inserts of Lactobacillus to restore a healthy acidic environment is an example of ________.

A) prebiotics
B) probiotics
C) lantibiotics
D) phytobiotics
E) riboswitches

Question 62

A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the ______.

A) Kirby-Bauer technique
B) antibiogram
C) E-test
D) minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
E) therapeutic index (TI)

Question 63

Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobial drugs include all of the following, except _______.

A) development of resistance to the drug
B) hepatotoxicity
C) nephrotoxicity
D) diarrhea
E) deafness

Question 64

A superinfection results from _______.

A) build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient
B) the wrong drug administered to the patient
C) an immune system reaction to the drug
D) a decrease in most normal biota resulting in the overgrowth of an unaffected species

Question 65

Ciprofloxacin is used to treat viral respiratory infections.

Question 66

Resistance genes can be transferred to other bacterial cells during transformation, transduction, and conjugation.

Question 67

The first modern antimicrobial drugs were sulfa drugs.

Question 68

An antibiotic of the penicillin family is penicillin G.

Question 69

Who is considered to be the father of modern antibiotics?

A) Watson
B) Fleming
C) Crick
D) Chargaff
E) Domagk

Question 70

Each of the following contributes to emerging drug resistance except _______.

A) overuse of antibiotics
B) improper use of antibiotics
C) multiple drug therapy
D) ingestion of antibiotics with animal feed
E) addition of antibiotics to common household products

Question 71

Species of Bacillus produce bacitracin and the polymyxin drugs.

Question 72

Which two antibiotics affect nucleic acids of bacteria?

A) Tetracycline and amphotericin B
B) Trimethoprim and sulfonamides
C) Rifampin and quinolones
D) Tetracycline and bacitracin
E) Penicillin and vancomycin

Question 73

A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobials in broth, and then incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up?

A) A Kirby-Bauer technique
B) A antibiogram
C) An E-test
D) A minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) test
E) A therapeutic index (TI)

Question 74

Antimicrobial drugs that inhibit folic acid synthesis work with no side effects because mammals must get folic acid from their diet.

Question 75

Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's normal biota often cause _______.

A) nephrotoxicity
B) superinfections
C) allergic reactions
D) drug toxicity

Question 76

Drug susceptibility testing determines _______.

A) the patient's response to various antimicrobials
B) the pathogen's response to various antimicrobials
C) if normal biota will be affected by antimicrobials
D) if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient

Question 77

A drug exhibiting which therapeutic index value would be the safest, most effective to use on a patient?

A) 20
B) 10
C) 1
D) 0.1
E) Any choice would be equally effective.

Question 78

Nutrients that encourage the growth of bene?cial microbes in the intestines are known as _______.

A) prebiotics
B) probiotics
C) lantibiotics
D) phytobiotics
E) riboswitches

Question 79

The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal biota leading to antibiotic-associated colitis, is ______.

A) chloramphenicol
B) clindamycin
C) cipro?oxacin
D) bacitracin
E) gentamicin

Question 80

The _____ are drugs that deposit in developing teeth and cause a permanent brown discoloration.

A) streptomycins
B) cephalosporins
C) macrolides
D) tetracyclines
E) penicillins