Deck 45: The Immune System: Internal Defense
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Deck 45: The Immune System: Internal Defense
1
All of the following are nonspecific defense mechanisms or barriers used by an animal except:
A) acid secretions of the stomach.
B) inflammation.
C) antibodies.
D) mucus in the respiratory tract.
E) skin.
A) acid secretions of the stomach.
B) inflammation.
C) antibodies.
D) mucus in the respiratory tract.
E) skin.
C
2
A large group of molecules involved in signaling and regulation of defense responses are:
A) complement.
B) prostaglandins.
C) opsonins.
D) cytokines.
E) histamines.
A) complement.
B) prostaglandins.
C) opsonins.
D) cytokines.
E) histamines.
D
3
If you were unable to produce tears:
A) you would be more vulnerable to infections by gram negative bacteria.
B) you would not produce lysozyme.
C) your level of defensins would be decreased.
D) you would lose a first line of defense against bacteria.
E) you would not produce lysozyme, and you would be more vulnerable to infections by gram-positive bacteria.
A) you would be more vulnerable to infections by gram negative bacteria.
B) you would not produce lysozyme.
C) your level of defensins would be decreased.
D) you would lose a first line of defense against bacteria.
E) you would not produce lysozyme, and you would be more vulnerable to infections by gram-positive bacteria.
D
4
The phagocyte that kills about 20 bacteria before dying is the __________.
A) eosinophils
B) macrophage
C) neutrophils
D) dendritic cell
E) basophils
A) eosinophils
B) macrophage
C) neutrophils
D) dendritic cell
E) basophils
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5
Which of the following best describes the relationship between an antibody and an antigen?
A) An antibody is one response to an antigen.
B) An antibody is produced by T cells and an antigen is a foreign protein.
C) An antigen is presented by antigen presenting cells to plasma cells, which produce antibodies.
D) An antigen is a disease-causing organism, and antibodies are produced by B cells.
E) An antibody induces antigen formation.
A) An antibody is one response to an antigen.
B) An antibody is produced by T cells and an antigen is a foreign protein.
C) An antigen is presented by antigen presenting cells to plasma cells, which produce antibodies.
D) An antigen is a disease-causing organism, and antibodies are produced by B cells.
E) An antibody induces antigen formation.
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6
Which of the following statements concerning pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPS) is false?
A) They are features of pathogens recognized by cells of animals.
B) They trigger activation of phagocytes.
C) They react with specific receptors on host cells.
D) They are found on all microbes except viruses.
E) An example is the peptidoglycan of grampositive bacteria.
A) They are features of pathogens recognized by cells of animals.
B) They trigger activation of phagocytes.
C) They react with specific receptors on host cells.
D) They are found on all microbes except viruses.
E) An example is the peptidoglycan of grampositive bacteria.
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7
Natural killer cells destroy target cells by:
A) releasing antibiotics, which break down the cell membranes.
B) releasing cytokines, perforins, and granzymes.
C) releasing histamine, which signals other blood cells to aggregate.
D) phagocytosis, after the cells are targeted by antibodies.
E) releasing lysosomal enzymes, which digest the target cells.
A) releasing antibiotics, which break down the cell membranes.
B) releasing cytokines, perforins, and granzymes.
C) releasing histamine, which signals other blood cells to aggregate.
D) phagocytosis, after the cells are targeted by antibodies.
E) releasing lysosomal enzymes, which digest the target cells.
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8
Which of the following is not considered a component of innate immunity?
A) the skin
B) an antibody
C) a cuticle
D) the inflammatory response
E) phagocytosis
A) the skin
B) an antibody
C) a cuticle
D) the inflammatory response
E) phagocytosis
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9
The enzyme found in tears that can digest bacterial cell walls is called:
A) protease.
B) lysozyme.
C) interferon.
D) cytokine.
E) defensin.
A) protease.
B) lysozyme.
C) interferon.
D) cytokine.
E) defensin.
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10
Which of the following is not correctly paired?
A) eosinophil: lymphocyte
B) T helper cell: activates B cells
C) natural killer cell: lyses infected cells
D) plasma cell: a subset of B cells
E) B cell: involved in antibody mediated responses
A) eosinophil: lymphocyte
B) T helper cell: activates B cells
C) natural killer cell: lyses infected cells
D) plasma cell: a subset of B cells
E) B cell: involved in antibody mediated responses
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11
A group of proteins with actions including antiviral activity are the:
A) tumor necrosis factors.
B) chemokines.
C) complement systems.
D) interleukins.
E) interferons.
A) tumor necrosis factors.
B) chemokines.
C) complement systems.
D) interleukins.
E) interferons.
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12
A key component that is always important in the proper functioning of the immune system is:
A) direct cell to cell contact.
B) hormonal action.
C) communication between cells.
D) antibody action.
E) perforins.
A) direct cell to cell contact.
B) hormonal action.
C) communication between cells.
D) antibody action.
E) perforins.
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13
Which of the following statements about the immune system is correct?
A) Memory cells are involved in a primary immune response.
B) Dendritic cells were first identified in the nervous system.
C) Interferons are specific proteins that block cell replication at the level of mitosis.
D) Natural killer cells are involved in both specific and nonspecific immune responses.
E) Defensins are one type of protective protein synthesized by T helper cells.
A) Memory cells are involved in a primary immune response.
B) Dendritic cells were first identified in the nervous system.
C) Interferons are specific proteins that block cell replication at the level of mitosis.
D) Natural killer cells are involved in both specific and nonspecific immune responses.
E) Defensins are one type of protective protein synthesized by T helper cells.
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14
The simplest animals to show leukocytes with limited immune function are:
A) echinoderms and tunicates.
B) cephalopods.
C) arthropods.
D) vertebrates.
E) mammals.
A) echinoderms and tunicates.
B) cephalopods.
C) arthropods.
D) vertebrates.
E) mammals.
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15
__________ are antigen-presenting cells in the immune system.
A) Natural killer cells
B) Plasma cells
C) Macrophages
D) T helper cells
E) Cytotoxic T cells
A) Natural killer cells
B) Plasma cells
C) Macrophages
D) T helper cells
E) Cytotoxic T cells
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16
An antigen is:
A) a phagocytic cell.
B) used to combat infections.
C) a molecule used by bacteria to destroy antibodies.
D) any molecule that is recognized as foreign by the immune system.
E) produced by a white blood cell.
A) a phagocytic cell.
B) used to combat infections.
C) a molecule used by bacteria to destroy antibodies.
D) any molecule that is recognized as foreign by the immune system.
E) produced by a white blood cell.
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17
The leukocytes that are involved in nonspecifically killing altered self-cells, such as tumor cells and virus infected cells, are the __________.
A) monocytes
B) natural killer cells
C) neutrophils
D) B cells
E) eosinophils
A) monocytes
B) natural killer cells
C) neutrophils
D) B cells
E) eosinophils
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18
Why are corneal transplants so successful?
A) Corneas of all individuals tend to display the same MHC antigens.
B) The corneas of pigs are so similar to those of humans, xenotransplantation is almost always successful.
C) Doctors have perfected the technique for transplanting corneas.
D) The tissue is not exposed to lymphocytes.
E) There are numerous donors of corneas, so the success rate of transplantation is high.
A) Corneas of all individuals tend to display the same MHC antigens.
B) The corneas of pigs are so similar to those of humans, xenotransplantation is almost always successful.
C) Doctors have perfected the technique for transplanting corneas.
D) The tissue is not exposed to lymphocytes.
E) There are numerous donors of corneas, so the success rate of transplantation is high.
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19
Which of the following immune system components has been identified in almost all multicellular organisms?
A) bone marrow
B) phagocytes
C) antimicrobial peptides
D) T-cells
E) memory cells
A) bone marrow
B) phagocytes
C) antimicrobial peptides
D) T-cells
E) memory cells
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20
A nursing baby:
A) lacks cell mediated immunity.
B) lacks antibody mediated immunity.
C) lacks an adaptive immune response.
D) receives active immunity via the breast milk.
E) receives passive immunity via the breast milk.
A) lacks cell mediated immunity.
B) lacks antibody mediated immunity.
C) lacks an adaptive immune response.
D) receives active immunity via the breast milk.
E) receives passive immunity via the breast milk.
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21
Which statement about the inflammatory response is false?
A) Bradykinin causes increased capillary permeability.
B) Type I interferons and neutrophils secrete histamine.
C) Increased blood flow to infected areas brings more phagocytic cells.
D) Swelling results from an increase in the volume of interstitial fluid in the infected area.
E) Edema and certain enzymes in the plasma cause the pain associated with inflammation.
A) Bradykinin causes increased capillary permeability.
B) Type I interferons and neutrophils secrete histamine.
C) Increased blood flow to infected areas brings more phagocytic cells.
D) Swelling results from an increase in the volume of interstitial fluid in the infected area.
E) Edema and certain enzymes in the plasma cause the pain associated with inflammation.
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22
________ are responsible for cell mediated immunity.
A) Natural killer cells
B) Monocytes
C) Cells that mature in the thymus
D) B cells
E) Cells that mature in the bone marrow
A) Natural killer cells
B) Monocytes
C) Cells that mature in the thymus
D) B cells
E) Cells that mature in the bone marrow
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23
B cells:
A) are produced in the adult spleen.
B) lyse bacterial cell walls by secreting digestive enzymes.
C) can become plasma cells, which produce interleukins.
D) undergo clonal selection once activated.
E) stimulate apoptosis.
A) are produced in the adult spleen.
B) lyse bacterial cell walls by secreting digestive enzymes.
C) can become plasma cells, which produce interleukins.
D) undergo clonal selection once activated.
E) stimulate apoptosis.
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24
The main antigen presenting cells of the body are:
A) macrophages and B cells only.
B) macrophages and dendritic cell only.
C) dendritic cells and B cells only.
D) dendritic cells and plasma cells only.
E) macrophages, B cells and dendritic cells.
A) macrophages and B cells only.
B) macrophages and dendritic cell only.
C) dendritic cells and B cells only.
D) dendritic cells and plasma cells only.
E) macrophages, B cells and dendritic cells.
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25
Fever help the body fight infection in all of the following ways except:
A) Increased body temperature increases phagocytosis.
B) Fever causes the breakdown of lysosomes, which destroys infected cells.
C) Fever inhibits the growth of some microorganisms.
D) Fever promotes lymphocyte activity.
E) Fever increases capillary permeability.
A) Increased body temperature increases phagocytosis.
B) Fever causes the breakdown of lysosomes, which destroys infected cells.
C) Fever inhibits the growth of some microorganisms.
D) Fever promotes lymphocyte activity.
E) Fever increases capillary permeability.
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26
Which cells stimulate B cells to divide and produce antibodies?
A) mast cells
B) macrophages
C) NK cells
D) TC cells
E) TH cells
A) mast cells
B) macrophages
C) NK cells
D) TC cells
E) TH cells
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27
Before a pathogen can be destroyed in the antibody-mediated process, a T helper cell must recognize an __________ on the surface of a macrophage.
A) antigen-MHC complex
B) antibody
C) interleukin
D) HLA group
E) antigen
A) antigen-MHC complex
B) antibody
C) interleukin
D) HLA group
E) antigen
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28
Which of the following is a type of cytokine?
A) complement protein
B) mast cell
C) immunoglobulin
D) lysozyme
E) tumor necrosis factor
A) complement protein
B) mast cell
C) immunoglobulin
D) lysozyme
E) tumor necrosis factor
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29
_______ are responsible for antibody-mediated immunity.
A) Natural killer cells
B) Macrophages
C) T cells
D) B cells
E) Dendritic cells
A) Natural killer cells
B) Macrophages
C) T cells
D) B cells
E) Dendritic cells
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30
Which regulatory protein is mismatched with its function?
A) Type I interferons-inhibit viral replication
B) interleukin-1-resets body's thermostat, resulting in fever
C) tumor necrosis factor-kills tumor cells
D) cytokines-secrete antibodies
E) Type II interferons-stimulate macrophages to destroy tumor cells
A) Type I interferons-inhibit viral replication
B) interleukin-1-resets body's thermostat, resulting in fever
C) tumor necrosis factor-kills tumor cells
D) cytokines-secrete antibodies
E) Type II interferons-stimulate macrophages to destroy tumor cells
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31
Which of the following is not a function of activated complement proteins?
A) lysis of pathogens
B) enhancing inflammation
C) coating pathogens to enhance phagocytosis
D) attraction of white blood cells to infection sites
E) decreasing capillary permeability to minimize edema
A) lysis of pathogens
B) enhancing inflammation
C) coating pathogens to enhance phagocytosis
D) attraction of white blood cells to infection sites
E) decreasing capillary permeability to minimize edema
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32
T cells that react with self antigens are destroyed through:
A) cytokinesis.
B) macrophages.
C) perforins.
D) apoptosis.
E) receptor mediated endocytosis.
A) cytokinesis.
B) macrophages.
C) perforins.
D) apoptosis.
E) receptor mediated endocytosis.
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33
Which of the following complete their maturation in the thymus gland?
A) cytotoxic T cells only
B) helper T cells only
C) B cells only
D) both cytotoxic and helper T cells
E) cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells and B cells
A) cytotoxic T cells only
B) helper T cells only
C) B cells only
D) both cytotoxic and helper T cells
E) cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells and B cells
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34
A baby born without a thymus:
A) would not have an antibody mediated immune response.
B) would not produce lymphocytes.
C) would not produce immunocompetent T cells.
D) will lack the ability to mount an immune response.
E) will lack antigen presenting cells.
A) would not have an antibody mediated immune response.
B) would not produce lymphocytes.
C) would not produce immunocompetent T cells.
D) will lack the ability to mount an immune response.
E) will lack antigen presenting cells.
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35
Which of the following statements concerning a secondary immune response is false?
A) It is a response to an antigen.
B) It may occur years after a primary response.
C) It involves memory cells.
D) It has a longer latent period than a primary response.
E) It is stimulated by less antigen than in a primary response.
A) It is a response to an antigen.
B) It may occur years after a primary response.
C) It involves memory cells.
D) It has a longer latent period than a primary response.
E) It is stimulated by less antigen than in a primary response.
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36
Which of the following statements about cancer defense is false?
A) Natural killer and cytotoxic T cells destroy cancer cells.
B) Cancer antigens stimulate a strong immune response.
C) Monoclonal antibodies can deliver toxic drugs to cancer cells.
D) T cells produce interleukins, which defend against cancer.
E) Macrophages produce tumor necrosis factor, which inhibits tumor growth.
A) Natural killer and cytotoxic T cells destroy cancer cells.
B) Cancer antigens stimulate a strong immune response.
C) Monoclonal antibodies can deliver toxic drugs to cancer cells.
D) T cells produce interleukins, which defend against cancer.
E) Macrophages produce tumor necrosis factor, which inhibits tumor growth.
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37
Cells that release chemical mediators in both inflammation and allergy are the __________ cells.
A) mast
B) neutrophils
C) eosinophils
D) dendritic
E) lymphocytes
A) mast
B) neutrophils
C) eosinophils
D) dendritic
E) lymphocytes
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38
Which of the following statements concerning tumor necrosis factors (TNF) is false?
A) TNF can be secreted by macrophages.
B) TNF may stimulate the inflammatory response.
C) The release of large amounts of TNF brings down a high fever.
D) TNF kills cancer cells.
E) TNF can be secreted by lymphocytes.
A) TNF can be secreted by macrophages.
B) TNF may stimulate the inflammatory response.
C) The release of large amounts of TNF brings down a high fever.
D) TNF kills cancer cells.
E) TNF can be secreted by lymphocytes.
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39
Cell-mediated immunity is directed by:
A) B cells, which secrete antibodies.
B) T cells, which secrete antibodies.
C) macrophages, which produce histamines.
D) B cells, which react with antigen-MHC complexes.
E) T cells, which react with antigen-MHC complexes.
A) B cells, which secrete antibodies.
B) T cells, which secrete antibodies.
C) macrophages, which produce histamines.
D) B cells, which react with antigen-MHC complexes.
E) T cells, which react with antigen-MHC complexes.
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40
You had a cold last month and you caught another one this month from your daughter.Why could this happen?
A) Memory cells were not formed as a response to the first cold.
B) The antibodies formed as a response to the first cold were degraded.
C) The two cold viruses are significantly different.
D) Your T cells are not working properly.
E) Your antigen-presenting cells do not recognize the second cold virus.
A) Memory cells were not formed as a response to the first cold.
B) The antibodies formed as a response to the first cold were degraded.
C) The two cold viruses are significantly different.
D) Your T cells are not working properly.
E) Your antigen-presenting cells do not recognize the second cold virus.
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41
Figure 45-1
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Vaccinations against chicken pox provide individuals with __________ immunity.
A) active natural
B) active artificial
C) passive natural
D) passive artificial
E) cell-mediated
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).

Vaccinations against chicken pox provide individuals with __________ immunity.
A) active natural
B) active artificial
C) passive natural
D) passive artificial
E) cell-mediated
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42
Monoclonal antibodies:
A) have been linked as causative agents in some types of cancer.
B) are only produced by harvesting B cells from mice exposed to particular antigens.
C) include hCG, a component of commonly used home pregnancy tests.
D) are very specific for their target antigen, but are somewhat difficult to purify.
E) are produced by millions of genes.
A) have been linked as causative agents in some types of cancer.
B) are only produced by harvesting B cells from mice exposed to particular antigens.
C) include hCG, a component of commonly used home pregnancy tests.
D) are very specific for their target antigen, but are somewhat difficult to purify.
E) are produced by millions of genes.
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43
Which of the following does not result from the combination of antibodies and antigens?
A) inactivation of the pathogen
B) formation of cytotoxic T cells
C) stimulation of phagocytosis
D) inactivation of toxins
E) activation of the complement system
A) inactivation of the pathogen
B) formation of cytotoxic T cells
C) stimulation of phagocytosis
D) inactivation of toxins
E) activation of the complement system
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44
Which of the following statements about HIV is false?
A) HIV infection results in a dramatic decline in the helper T cell population.
B) The first cells targeted by HIV are dendritic cells.
C) Cytotoxic T cells are the main cells that attack HIV.
D) Dendritic cells transport HIV from the mucosa to the lymph nodes.
E) HIV attaches to the CD4 component of TH cells.
A) HIV infection results in a dramatic decline in the helper T cell population.
B) The first cells targeted by HIV are dendritic cells.
C) Cytotoxic T cells are the main cells that attack HIV.
D) Dendritic cells transport HIV from the mucosa to the lymph nodes.
E) HIV attaches to the CD4 component of TH cells.
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45
Which of the following statements about tissue transplants is true?
A) The source of graft rejection is T cell recognition of the MHC antigens on the transplanted cells.
B) If transplants demonstrate a perfect match for all Rh antigens, then there is a 95% success rate.
C) Successful transplants require a complete match of all MHC antigens.
D) Xenotransplantation avoids the fundamental transplant mechanism of graft rejection.
E) Skin can be successfully transplanted between siblings and other closely related family members.
A) The source of graft rejection is T cell recognition of the MHC antigens on the transplanted cells.
B) If transplants demonstrate a perfect match for all Rh antigens, then there is a 95% success rate.
C) Successful transplants require a complete match of all MHC antigens.
D) Xenotransplantation avoids the fundamental transplant mechanism of graft rejection.
E) Skin can be successfully transplanted between siblings and other closely related family members.
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46
What class of antibodies is normally found in the mucosa of the respiratory tract?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM
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47
Figure 45-1
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
The immune system component with a principal role at point B in Figure 45-1 is:
A) memory cells.
B) IgM antibodies.
C) IgG antibodies.
D) cytotoxic T cells.
E) antibody IgA.
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).

The immune system component with a principal role at point B in Figure 45-1 is:
A) memory cells.
B) IgM antibodies.
C) IgG antibodies.
D) cytotoxic T cells.
E) antibody IgA.
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48
Which of the following behaviors is not associated with a high risk of HIV transmission?
A) unprotected sex (no condom used)
B) exposure to contaminated blood products
C) intravenous drug use
D) sharing bathroom facilities
E) a baby born to an HIV infected mother
A) unprotected sex (no condom used)
B) exposure to contaminated blood products
C) intravenous drug use
D) sharing bathroom facilities
E) a baby born to an HIV infected mother
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49
For a donor organ not to be rejected by the recipient:
A) the MHC complexes should be compatible.
B) the recipient's plasma cells would be inactivated.
C) the recipient's passive immunity pathway would be activated.
D) the NK cells of the recipient would be inactivated.
E) the cytotoxic T cells would be inactivated.
A) the MHC complexes should be compatible.
B) the recipient's plasma cells would be inactivated.
C) the recipient's passive immunity pathway would be activated.
D) the NK cells of the recipient would be inactivated.
E) the cytotoxic T cells would be inactivated.
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50
Arrange the steps of antibody-mediated immunity in the proper order. 1)
Plasma cells secrete antibodies
2)
TH cells interact with B cells displaying the same antigen-MHC complex
3)
Contact with antigen
4)
Clones of B cells produced
5)
Fragmentation of antigen
A) 3 4 2 1 5
B) 3 5 2 4 1
C) 4 3 2 1 5
D) 1 3 5 2 4
E) 5 3 4 2 1
Plasma cells secrete antibodies
2)
TH cells interact with B cells displaying the same antigen-MHC complex
3)
Contact with antigen
4)
Clones of B cells produced
5)
Fragmentation of antigen
A) 3 4 2 1 5
B) 3 5 2 4 1
C) 4 3 2 1 5
D) 1 3 5 2 4
E) 5 3 4 2 1
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51
Protease inhibitors:
A) inhibit the action of reverse transcriptase.
B) are glycoproteins found in saliva.
C) result in viral copies that cannot infect new cells.
D) can cure AIDS patients.
E) destroy helper T cells.
A) inhibit the action of reverse transcriptase.
B) are glycoproteins found in saliva.
C) result in viral copies that cannot infect new cells.
D) can cure AIDS patients.
E) destroy helper T cells.
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52
Antibody diversity is due to genetic influences on the:
A) Fc region.
B) heavy chain.
C) variable region.
D) light chain.
E) constant region.
A) Fc region.
B) heavy chain.
C) variable region.
D) light chain.
E) constant region.
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53
If our bodies are capable of secondary responses, how do people contract influenza more than once?
A) Memory cells lose their ability to recognize antigens after six months.
B) The affinity of antibodies diminishes in the secondary response.
C) New varieties of flu virus continuously evolve.
D) Our bodies cannot launch a strong enough immune response against the flu virus.
E) There are no effective vaccinations for the flu.
A) Memory cells lose their ability to recognize antigens after six months.
B) The affinity of antibodies diminishes in the secondary response.
C) New varieties of flu virus continuously evolve.
D) Our bodies cannot launch a strong enough immune response against the flu virus.
E) There are no effective vaccinations for the flu.
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54
Figure 45-1
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
Based on the graph in Figure 45-1, which of the following statements is true?
A) The primary response to the initial injection subsided after seven weeks.
B) The primary response to the initial injection peaked at 102 antibody units.
C) The primary response to the initial injection was faster, but not as intense as the secondary response.
D) The secondary response to the initial antigen was both faster and more intense than the primary response.
E) The primary and secondary responses to the initial antigen were about equal.
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).

Based on the graph in Figure 45-1, which of the following statements is true?
A) The primary response to the initial injection subsided after seven weeks.
B) The primary response to the initial injection peaked at 102 antibody units.
C) The primary response to the initial injection was faster, but not as intense as the secondary response.
D) The secondary response to the initial antigen was both faster and more intense than the primary response.
E) The primary and secondary responses to the initial antigen were about equal.
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55
During a specific defense, the process of increasing the numbers of the selected cells is called:
A) mitotic expansion.
B) clonal selection.
C) divisional activation.
D) lymphocytic activation.
E) memory establishment.
A) mitotic expansion.
B) clonal selection.
C) divisional activation.
D) lymphocytic activation.
E) memory establishment.
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56
The part of the antibody that binds an antigen:
A) is known as the Fc fragment.
B) is called an epitope.
C) makes up the tail of the Y-shaped molecule.
D) recognizes the antigenic determinant of that antigen.
E) is known as the constant segment.
A) is known as the Fc fragment.
B) is called an epitope.
C) makes up the tail of the Y-shaped molecule.
D) recognizes the antigenic determinant of that antigen.
E) is known as the constant segment.
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57
Figure 45-1
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
The response represented by the dashed line in Figure 45-1 indicates:
A) a secondary response to the initial antigen.
B) a primary response to the initial antigen.
C) a secondary response to an antigen distinctly different from the initial antigen.
D) a primary response to an antigen distinctly different from the initial antigen.
E) a secondary response equivalent to a primary respnse
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).

The response represented by the dashed line in Figure 45-1 indicates:
A) a secondary response to the initial antigen.
B) a primary response to the initial antigen.
C) a secondary response to an antigen distinctly different from the initial antigen.
D) a primary response to an antigen distinctly different from the initial antigen.
E) a secondary response equivalent to a primary respnse
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58
Which of the following cell types is long lived and continues to produce antibody?
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) memory B cells
C) T helper cells
D) plasma cells
E) macrophages
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) memory B cells
C) T helper cells
D) plasma cells
E) macrophages
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59
Figure 45-1
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).
An immunization against cow pox should protect an individual:
A) by increasing the production of lymphocytes by the bone marrow.
B) through the production of diverse antibodies.
C) by initiating a secondary immune response.
D) against other antigens with the same antigenic determinants.
E) against other bacterial infections.
Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s).

An immunization against cow pox should protect an individual:
A) by increasing the production of lymphocytes by the bone marrow.
B) through the production of diverse antibodies.
C) by initiating a secondary immune response.
D) against other antigens with the same antigenic determinants.
E) against other bacterial infections.
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60
__________ are antibodies that activate the complement system.
A) IgG and IgM
B) IgA and IgD
C) IgD and IgG
D) IgE and IgM
E) IgA and IgE
A) IgG and IgM
B) IgA and IgD
C) IgD and IgG
D) IgE and IgM
E) IgA and IgE
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61
Interleukins activate and direct the movement of white blood cells from the blood to the tissues.
____________________
____________________
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62
Class II MHC genes encode glycoproteins on the surface of cells that bind with antigen from intracellular pathogens.
____________________
____________________
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63
Each cytotoxic T cell expresses CD8 and 50,000 identical T cell receptors on its surface.
____________________
____________________
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64
Normally, complement proteins are active until the body is exposed to antigen.
____________________
____________________
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65
Type II interferon inhibits viral replication and activates natural killer cells.
____________________
____________________
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66
MATCHING
Match the immune cell with the description
a.Antigen presenting cells
d.CD4
b.Progenitor of all lymphocytes
e.Differentiates into plasma cell
c.CD8
Cytotoxic cells
Match the immune cell with the description
a.Antigen presenting cells
d.CD4
b.Progenitor of all lymphocytes
e.Differentiates into plasma cell
c.CD8
Cytotoxic cells
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67
MATCHING
Match the immune cell with the description
a.Antigen presenting cells
d.CD4
b.Progenitor of all lymphocytes
e.Differentiates into plasma cell
c.CD8
B cell
Match the immune cell with the description
a.Antigen presenting cells
d.CD4
b.Progenitor of all lymphocytes
e.Differentiates into plasma cell
c.CD8
B cell
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68
Identify the following as either specific or nonspecific immune responses, and for each provide a one-sentence explanation of its function or role.
A.
macrophages
B.
natural killer cells
C.
memory cells
A.
macrophages
B.
natural killer cells
C.
memory cells
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69
Cell walls and cytokines of bacteria are examples of the evolution of resistance to the host immune response.
____________________
____________________
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70
Specific immune responses are also referred to as innate immunity.
____________________
____________________
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71
Allergy is a ________ response to __________ antigens.
A) hypersensitive; environmental
B) hyposensitive; cellular
C) normal level; microbial
D) mixed; protein
E) mixed; microbial
A) hypersensitive; environmental
B) hyposensitive; cellular
C) normal level; microbial
D) mixed; protein
E) mixed; microbial
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72
Animal cells recognize common types of pathogen molecules and activate the production of antimicrobial peptides.
____________________
____________________
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73
Nonspecific cell responses depend on the actions of lymphocytes, natural killer cells, and dendritic cells.
____________________
____________________
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74
Which of the following combinations could result in Rh incompatibility?
A) Rh-positive mother, Rh-negative father
B) Rh-positive mother, Rh-positive father
C) Rh-negative mother, Rh-positive father
D) Rh-negative mother, Rh-negative father
E) More than one of the above.
A) Rh-positive mother, Rh-negative father
B) Rh-positive mother, Rh-positive father
C) Rh-negative mother, Rh-positive father
D) Rh-negative mother, Rh-negative father
E) More than one of the above.
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75
Select one of the options below and compare and contrast the paired terms:
A.
primary and secondary immune response
B.
passive and active immunity
C.
artificial and natural immunity
A.
primary and secondary immune response
B.
passive and active immunity
C.
artificial and natural immunity
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76
Active immunity occurs after transfer of antibodies from mother to fetus.
____________________
____________________
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77
MATCHING
Match the immune cell with the description
a.Antigen presenting cells
d.CD4
b.Progenitor of all lymphocytes
e.Differentiates into plasma cell
c.CD8
T helper cells
Match the immune cell with the description
a.Antigen presenting cells
d.CD4
b.Progenitor of all lymphocytes
e.Differentiates into plasma cell
c.CD8
T helper cells
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78
Autoimmunity is:
A) an automatic response to an antigen.
B) a failure of self cell recognition.
C) a reaction to environmental antigens.
D) a normal response to infection.
E) a response between the autonomic nervous system and the immune system.
A) an automatic response to an antigen.
B) a failure of self cell recognition.
C) a reaction to environmental antigens.
D) a normal response to infection.
E) a response between the autonomic nervous system and the immune system.
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79
Arrange the steps of an allergic reaction in the proper order. 1)
Allergic symptoms appear
2)
Allergin binds with IgE
3)
IgE combines with mast cell receptors
4)
Mast cell releases histamine
5)
Plasma cells sensitized
A) 5 3 2 4 1
B) 1 5 2 4 3
C) 5 2 4 3 1
D) 1 4 5 2 3
E) 4 5 2 3 1
Allergic symptoms appear
2)
Allergin binds with IgE
3)
IgE combines with mast cell receptors
4)
Mast cell releases histamine
5)
Plasma cells sensitized
A) 5 3 2 4 1
B) 1 5 2 4 3
C) 5 2 4 3 1
D) 1 4 5 2 3
E) 4 5 2 3 1
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80
Briefly explain why allergies, such as hay fever, are characterized as a hypersensitive immune response.
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