Deck 45: The Immune System Internal Defense

Question 1

Cells that release chemical mediators in both inflammation and allergy are the ____ cells.

A) mast
B) neutrophils
C) eosinophils
D) dendritic
E) lymphocytes

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Which of the following is a type of cytokine?

A) complement protein
B) mast cell
C) immunoglobulin
D) lysozyme
E) tumor necrosis factor

Answer 2

E

Question 3

Which regulatory protein is mismatched with its function?

A) Type I interferons − inhibit viral replication
B) interleukin-1 − resets body's thermostat, resulting in fever
C) tumor necrosis factor − kills tumor cells
D) cytokines − secrete antibodies
E) Type II interferons − stimulate macrophages to destroy tumor cells

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Natural killer cells destroy target cells by:

A) releasing antibiotics, which break down the cell membranes.
B) releasing cytokines and enzymes that trigger apoptosis.
C) releasing histamine, which signals other blood cells to aggregate.
D) phagocytosis, after the cells are targeted by antibodies.
E) releasing lysosomal enzymes, which digest the target cells.

Question 5

The phagocyte that kills about 20 bacteria before dying is the ____.

A) eosinophils
B) macrophage
C) neutrophils
D) dendritic cell
E) basophils

Question 6

The basis of the immune system is:

A) direct cell to cell contact.
B) distinguishing between self and nonself.
C) communicating between cells.
D) producing antibody action.
E) attacking invading objects.

Question 7

A large group of molecules involved in signaling and regulation of defense responses are:

A) complement.
B) prostaglandins.
C) opsonins.
D) cytokines.
E) histamines.

Question 8

A group of proteins with actions including antiviral activity are the:

A) tumor necrosis factors.
B) chemokines.
C) complement systems.
D) interleukins.
E) interferons.

Question 9

An antigen is:

A) a phagocytic cell.
B) used to combat infections.
C) a molecule used by bacteria to destroy antibodies.
D) any molecule that is recognized as foreign by the immune system.
E) any molecule that is recognized as natural by the immune system.

Question 10

The lymphocytes that are involved in nonspecifically killing altered self-cells, such as tumor cells and virus infected cells, are the:

A) monocytes
B) natural killer cells
C) neutrophils
D) B cells
E) eosinophils

Question 11

Which of the following is a function of activated complement proteins?

A) producing antibodies
B) reducing inflammation
C) coating skin with more mucus
D) attracting white blood cells to infection sites
E) decreasing capillary permeability to minimize edema

Question 12

Which of the following is a specific defense mechanisms or barriers used by an animal?

A) acid secretions of the stomach
B) inflammation
C) antibodies
D) mucus in the respiratory tract
E) skin

Question 13

Which of the following is considered a component of adaptive immunity?

A) The skin
B) An antibody
C) A cuticle
D) The inflammatory response
E) Phagocytosis

Question 14

The enzyme found in tears that can digest bacterial cell walls is called:

A) protease.
B) lysozyme.
C) interferon.
D) cytokine.
E) defensin.

Question 15

Which statement best describes the relationship between an antibody and an antigen?

A) An antibody is specifically produced in response to an antigen.
B) An antibody is produced by T cells and an antigen is a foreign protein.
C) An antigen is presented by antigen presenting cells to plasma cells, which produce antibodies.
D) An antigen is a disease-causing organism, and antibodies are produced by B cells.
E) An antibody generally induces antigen formation.

Question 16

Which statement about the inflammatory response is FALSE?

A) Histamine causes increased capillary permeability.
B) Type I interferons and neutrophils secrete histamine.
C) Increased blood flow to infected areas brings more phagocytic cells.
D) Swelling results from an increase in the volume of interstitial fluid in the infected area.
E) Edema and certain enzymes in the plasma cause the pain associated with inflammation.

Question 17

____ can phagocytose about 100 bacteria during their life spans, and release antiviral agents.

A) Natural killer cells
B) Plasma cells
C) Macrophages
D) T helper cells
E) Cytotoxic T cells

Question 18

Which statement concerning pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPS) is FALSE?

A) They are features of pathogens recognized by cells of animals.
B) They trigger activation of phagocytes.
C) They react with specific receptors on host cells.
D) They are found on all microbes except viruses.
E) The peptidoglycan of gram-positive bacteria is an example.

Question 19

Which of the following statements concerning tumor necrosis factors (TNF) is FALSE?

A) TNF can be secreted by macrophages.
B) TNF may stimulate the inflammatory response.
C) The release of large amounts of TNF brings down a high fever.
D) TNF kills cancer cells.
E) TNF can be secreted by lymphocytes.

Question 20

Which of the following immune system components has been identified in almost all organisms studied?

A) bone marrow
B) phagocytes
C) antimicrobial peptides
D) T-cells
E) memory cells

Question 21

A nursing baby:

A) lacks cell mediated immunity.
B) lacks antibody mediated immunity.
C) lacks an adaptive immune response.
D) receives active immunity via the breast milk.
E) receives passive immunity via the breast milk.

Question 22

Which cells stimulate B cells to divide and produce antibodies?

A) mast cells
B) macrophages
C) NK cells
D) T_C cells
E) T_H cells

Question 23

If our bodies are capable of secondary responses, how do people contract influenza more than once?

A) Memory cells lose their ability to recognize antigens after six months.
B) The affinity of antibodies diminishes in the secondary response.
C) New varieties of flu virus continuously evolve.
D) Our bodies cannot launch a strong enough immune response against the flu virus.
E) There are no effective vaccinations for the flu.

Question 24

____ are responsible for cell mediated immunity.

A) Natural killer cells
B) Monocytes
C) T lymphocytes
D) B cells
E) Macrophages

Question 25

The part of the antibody that binds an antigen:

A) is known as the Fc fragment.
B) is called an epitope.
C) makes up the tail of the Y-shaped molecule.
D) is known as the Fab fragments.
E) is known as the constant segment.

Question 26

In antibody-mediated immunity, what happens immediately after B cells are activated?

A) The foreign antigen-MHC complex is displayed on the cell surfaces.
B) Activated T helper cells interact with the B cells.
C) The B cells are cloned.
D) Antibodies combine with antigens on the pathogen surface.
E) The B cells becomes plasma cells.

Question 27

The main antigen presenting cells of the body are:

A) macrophages and B cells only.
B) macrophages and dendritic cell only.
C) dendritic cells and B cells only.
D) dendritic cells and plasma cells only.
E) macrophages, B cells and dendritic cells.

Question 28

B cells:

A) are produced in the adult spleen.
B) lyse bacterial cell walls by secreting digestive enzymes.
C) can become plasma cells, which produce interleukins.
D) undergo clonal reproduction once activated.
E) stimulate apoptosis.

Question 29

What class of antibodies is normally found in the mucosa of the respiratory tract?

A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM

Question 30

Fever helps the body fight infection in which of the following ways?

A) Increased body temperature decreases phagocytosis.
B) Fever causes the creation of lysosomes.
C) Fever inhibits the growth of some microorganisms.
D) Fever reduces lymphocyte activity.
E) Fever increases capillary permeability.

Question 31

____ are responsible for antibody-mediated immunity.

A) Natural killer cells
B) Macrophages
C) T cells
D) B cells
E) Dendritic cells

Question 32

Which of the following cell types is long lived and continues to produce antibody?

A) cytotoxic T cells
B) memory B cells
C) T helper cells
D) plasma cells
E) macrophages

Question 33

You had a cold last month and you caught another one this month from your daughter. What is the most likely cause of this?

A) Memory cells were not formed as a response to the first cold.
B) The antibodies formed as a response to the first cold were degraded.
C) The two cold viruses are significantly different.
D) Your T cells are not working properly.
E) Your antigen-presenting cells do not recognize the second cold virus.

Question 34

Cell-mediated immunity is directed by:

A) B cells, which secrete antibodies.
B) T cells, which secrete antibodies.
C) macrophages, which produce histamines.
D) B cells, which react with APCs.
E) T cells, which react with APCs.

Question 35

Which statement about the immune system is correct?

A) Memory cells are involved in a primary immune response.
B) Dendritic cells were first identified in the nervous system.
C) Interferons are specific proteins that block cell replication at the level of mitosis.
D) Natural killer cells are involved in both specific and nonspecific immune responses.
E) Defensins are one type of protective protein synthesized by T helper cells.

Question 36

A baby born without a thymus:

A) would not have an antibody mediated immune response.
B) would not produce lymphocytes.
C) would not produce immunocompetent T cells.
D) will lack the ability to mount an immune response.
E) will lack antigen presenting cells.

Question 37

Before a pathogen can be destroyed in the antibody-mediated process, a T helper cell must recognize a(n) ____ on the surface of a macrophage.

A) antigen-MHC complex
B) antibody
C) interleukin
D) HLA group
E) antigen

Question 38

Which cells complete their maturation in the thymus gland?

A) T cytotoxic cells only
B) T helper cells only
C) B cells only
D) Both T cytotoxic and T helper cells
E) T cytotoxic cells, T helper cells, and B cells

Question 39

T cells that react with self antigens are destroyed through:

A) cytokinesis.
B) macrophages.
C) perforins.
D) apoptosis.
E) receptor mediated endocytosis.

Question 40

In cell-mediated immunity, what happens immediately after the infected cell displays the antigen-MHC complex?

A) A virus invades the cell.
B) Specific T cytotoxic cells are activated.
C) Effector T cytotoxic cells migrate to the infection site.
D) Cytokines are released by T helper cells.
E) Enzymes destroy the target cells.

Question 41

Which statement about a secondary immune response is FALSE?

A) It is a response to an antigen.
B) It may occur years after a primary response.
C) It involves memory cells.
D) It has a longer latent period than a primary response.
E) It is stimulated by less antigen than in a primary response.

Question 42

Which of the following behaviors is associated with a high risk of HIV transmission?

A) unprotected sex (no condom used)
B) hugging
C) casual kissing
D) sharing bathroom facilities
E) sharing food or water

Question 43

An immunization against cow pox should protect an individual:

A) by increasing the production of lymphocytes by the bone marrow.
B) through the production of diverse antibodies.
C) by initiating a secondary immune response.
D) against other antigens with the same antigenic determinants.
E) against other bacterial infections.

Question 44

Figure 45-1 The response represented by the dashed line in the accompanying figure indicates a:

A) secondary response to the initial antigen.
B) primary response to the initial antigen.
C) secondary response to an antigen distinctly different from the initial antigen.
D) primary response to an antigen distinctly different from the initial antigen.
E) secondary response equivalent to a primary response

Question 45

Which statement about HIV is FALSE?

A) HIV infection results in a dramatic decline in the T helper cell population.
B) The first cells targeted by HIV are dendritic cells.
C) T cytotoxic cells are the main cells that attack HIV.
D) Dendritic cells transport HIV from the mucosa to the lymph nodes.
E) HIV attaches to the CD4 component of T_H cells.

Question 46

Protease inhibitors:

A) inhibit the action of reverse transcriptase.
B) are glycoproteins found in saliva.
C) result in viral copies that cannot infect new cells.
D) can cure AIDS patients.
E) destroy helper T cells.

Question 47

Autoimmunity is a(n):

A) automatic response to an antigen.
B) failure of self cell recognition.
C) reaction to environmental antigens.
D) normal response to infection.
E) response between the autonomic nervous system and the immune system.

Question 48

Monoclonal antibodies:

A) have been linked as causative agents in some types of cancer.
B) are only produced by harvesting B cells from mice exposed to particular antigens.
C) include hCG, a component of commonly used home pregnancy tests.
D) are very specific for their target antigen, but are somewhat difficult to purify.
E) are produced by millions of genes.

Question 49

____ are antibodies that activate the complement system.

A) IgG and IgM
B) IgA and IgD
C) IgD and IgG
D) IgE and IgM
E) IgA and IgE

Question 50

Figure 45-1 The immune system component with a principal role at point B in the accompanying figure is:

A) memory cells.
B) IgM antibodies.
C) IgG antibodies.
D) cytotoxic T cells.
E) antibody IgA.

Question 51

Which of the following results from the combination of antibodies and antigens?

A) activation of the pathogen
B) formation of cytotoxic T cells
C) stimulation of phagocytosis
D) activation of toxins
E) inactivation of the complement system

Question 52

During a specific defense, the process of increasing the numbers of the selected cells is called:

A) mitotic expansion.
B) clonal selection.
C) divisional activation.
D) lymphocytic activation.
E) memory establishment.

Question 53

Which statement about tissue transplants is TRUE?

A) The source of graft rejection is T cell recognition of the foreign MHC antigens on the transplanted cells.
B) If transplants demonstrate a perfect match for all Rh antigens, then there is a 95% success rate.
C) Successful transplants require a complete match of all MHC antigens.
D) Xenotransplantation avoids the fundamental transplant mechanism of graft rejection.
E) Skin can be successfully transplanted between siblings and other closely related family members.

Question 54

Allergy is a ____ response to ____ antigens.

A) hypersensitive; environmental
B) hyposensitive; cellular
C) normal level; microbial
D) mixed; protein
E) mixed; microbial

Question 55

What must happen in order for a donor organ to not be rejected by the recipient?

A) The MHC complexes need to match as closely as possible.
B) The recipient's plasma cells will be inactivated.
C) The recipient's passive immunity pathway will be activated.
D) The NK cells of the recipient will be inactivated.
E) The cytotoxic T cells will be inactivated.

Question 56

Which statement about cancer defense is FALSE?

A) Natural killer and T cytotoxic cells destroy cancer cells.
B) Cancer antigens stimulate a strong immune response.
C) Monoclonal antibodies can deliver toxic drugs to cancer cells.
D) T cells produce interleukins, which defend against cancer.
E) Macrophages produce tumor necrosis factor, which inhibits tumor growth.

Question 57

Arrange the steps of an allergic reaction in the proper order.
1) Allergic symptoms appear.
2) The allergen binds with IgE.
3) IgE combines with mast cell receptors.
4) The mast cell releases histamine.
5) Plasma cells are sensitized.

A) 5 → 3 → 2 → 4 → 1
B) 1 → 5 → 2 → 4 → 3
C) 5 → 2 → 4 → 3 → 1
D) 1 → 4 → 5 → 2 → 3
E) 4 → 5 → 2 → 3 → 1

Question 58

Which of the following combinations could result in Rh incompatibility?

A) Rh-positive mother, Rh-negative father
B) Rh-positive mother, Rh-positive father
C) Rh-negative mother, Rh-positive father
D) Rh-negative mother, Rh-negative father
E) More than one of the above.

Question 59

Figure 45-1 Based on the accompanying graph, which statement is accurate?

A) The primary response to the initial injection subsides after seven weeks.
B) The primary response to the initial injection peaks at 10² antibody units.
C) The primary response to the initial injection is faster, but not as intense as the secondary response.
D) The secondary response to the initial antigen is both faster and more intense than the primary response.
E) The primary and secondary responses to the initial antigen are about equal.

Question 60

Vaccinations against chicken pox provide individuals with ____ immunity.

A) active natural
B) active artificial
C) passive natural
D) passive artificial
E) cell-mediated

Question 61

Active immunity occurs after transfer of antibodies from mother to fetus.

Question 62

Animal cells recognize common types of pathogen molecules and activate the production of antimicrobial peptides.

Question 63

Interleukins activate and direct the movement of white blood cells from the blood to the tissues.

Question 64

Explain what occurs during the inflammatory response and how it is a protective mechanism.

Question 65

Identify the following as participants in either specific or nonspecific immune responses, and for each provide a one-sentence explanation of its function or role.
A. macrophages
B. natural killer cells
C. memory cells

Question 66

Class II MHC genes encode glycoproteins on the surface of cells that bind with antigen from intracellular pathogens.

Question 67

Nonspecific cell responses depend on the actions of lymphocytes , natural killer cells, and dendritic cells.

Question 68

Each T cytotoxic cell expresses CD8 and 50,000 identical T cell receptors on its surface.

Question 71

Cell walls and cytokines of bacteria are examples of the evolution of resistance to the host immune response.

Question 72

Briefly explain why allergies, such as hay fever, are characterized as a hypersensitive immune response.

Question 73

Type II interferon inhibits viral replication and activates natural killer cells.

Question 74

Select one of the options below and compare and contrast the paired terms:
A. primary and secondary immune response
B. passive and active immunity
C. artificial and natural immunity

Question 76

Specific immune responses are also referred to as innate immunity.

Question 77

Explain why transplanted organs are often rejected by their hosts.

Question 78

Normally, complement proteins are active until the body is exposed to antigen.

Question 79

Describe the differences in function of the five immunoglobulin classes.