Deck 18: Nutrition Intervention

Question 1

Electronic data systems used to document patient's medical records are characterized by ____.

A) a lack of popularity among health care facilities
B) reliance on handwritten chart notes
C) flexibility in language used
D) standardized templates

Answer 1

D

Question 2

What does the "S" stand for in the SOAP note charting format?

A) symptom
B) standard
C) subjective
D) selective

Answer 2

C

Question 3

In which section of ADIME would the treatment goals and expected outcomes be found?

A) A
B) D
C) I
D) ME

Answer 3

C

Question 4

A dietitian is providing diet counseling for a patient with hyperlipidemia. She asks the patient to limit intake of fast foods, but the patient's wife states that her husband mostly eats burgers and fries on weekends. In which section of the SOAP note will the wife's input be recorded?

A) S
B) O
C) A
D) P

Question 5

Which element of nutrition interventions would be accomplished while planning nutrition care?

A) documenting the care plan in the medical record
B) individualizing treatment as warranted
C) consulting dietetics practice guidelines
D) discussing the care plan with the patient

Question 6

Which part of the SOAP note would include recommendations for dietary changes?

A) S
B) O
C) A
D) P

Question 7

Mike needs to make long-term changes to his diet because of a chronic illness. What approach would be most successful in helping Mike implement long-term dietary changes?

A) determining Mike's readiness for change
B) emphasizing what to avoid, rather than what to eat
C) suggesting five to six changes at a time
D) ensuring the new plan is totally different than mike's usual diet

Question 8

Which section of the ADIME format would contain PES statements?

A) A
B) D
C) I
D) ME

Question 9

Providing information about a modified diet is an example of ____ the following type of nutrition intervention.

A) food/nutrient delivery
B) nutrition education
C) nutrition counseling
D) coordination of nutrition care

Question 10

The two interrelated components of nutrition intervention are ____.

A) monitoring and evaluation
B) examining and supervision
C) planning and implementation
D) observation and modification

Question 11

Solving problems that interfere with the nutrition care plan is an example of what type of nutrition intervention.?

A) food/nutrient delivery
B) nutrition education
C) nutrition counseling
D) coordination of nutrition care

Question 12

In medical records, what information is included in the A section of the ADIME documentation format?

A) nutrition diagnoses
B) expected outcomes
C) relevant assessment results
D) changes to the care plan

Question 13

What type of nutrition intervention provides referrals to local agencies and arranges transfer of nutrition care to another location?

A) nutrition counseling
B) coordination of nutrition care
C) nutrition education
D) nutrition delivery

Question 14

The "P" of PES stands for ____.

A) problem
B) prescription
C) plan
D) possible cause

Question 15

What data are relevant for inclusion in the O section of the SOAP note?

A) the chief medical problem
B) referrals to appropriate agencies
C) the nutrition prescription
D) anthropometric data

Question 16

The ADIME format for documenting nutrition care ____.

A) closely reflects the steps of the nutrition care process
B) is the oldest charting method for nutrition care used
C) uses a "D" to stand for "diet prescription"
D) focuses on subjective information

Question 17

A document or electronic file used to record a client's medical and social history, medical assessment, treatment, and results of therapy is a(n) ____.

A) medical record
B) informal record
C) diagnosis
D) nutrition care plan

Question 18

The "I" of ADIME stands for ____.

A) intervention
B) implementation
C) integration
D) insurance

Question 19

Which statement describes an important benefit of follow-up care?

A) It facilitates evaluation and any necessary modification of the nutrition care plan .
B) It allows updating of basic patient data such as address and phone number.
C) It is typically required by insurance companies to qualify for payment.
D) It allows clinicians to sharpen their skills.

Question 20

Nutrition education allows patients to ____.

A) evaluate the effectiveness of their nutrition care plan
B) determine whether their health plan needs to be updated
C) decide whether they need a referral to another health professional
D) learn about the dietary factors that affect their particular medical condition

Question 21

Which food can be included in a mechanically altered/soft-food diet?

A) cereal bars
B) canned pears
C) pretzels
D) granola

Question 22

Which food could be included in a clear liquid diet?

A) cream of potato soup
B) frozen juice bars
C) ice cream
D) orange juice

Question 23

Why are diets for dysphagia highly individualized?

A) because of best practice standards
B) because swallowing ability can fluctuate over time
C) to challenge the patient to improve swallowing ability
D) to eliminate patient boredom

Question 24

Difficulty swallowing is referred to as "______."

A) dysphagia
B) dyspepsia
C) dementia
D) dermatitis

Question 25

The clinical dietitian uses ____ and stress factor to estimate energy needs of patients with specific illnesses

A) resting metabolic rate
B) actual body weight
C) usual body weight
D) ideal body weight

Question 26

Indirect calorimetry is ideal for which group of patients?

A) bedridden patients
B) children
C) ambulatory patients
D) obese patients

Question 27

One of the main characteristics of a standard diet is that it ____.

A) results in reduced intake of total fat and saturated fat
B) includes a limited number of foods
C) meets the nutrient needs of healthy people
D) is likely to cause food intolerances

Question 28

Which food can be included in a blenderized liquid diet?

A) sausage
B) raisins
C) White rice
D) almonds

Question 29

Health practitioners should monitor the patient's food intake and ____, and reevaluate energy needs regularly during the hospital stay.

A) body weight
B) height
C) blood pressure
D) albumin levels

Question 30

The final result of indirect calorimetry is to determine the ____.

A) amount of energy the patient needs to take in per 24 hours
B) number of kcalories burned during a period of study
C) factors associated with illness that contribute to high energy intake
D) adjustments to make in the patient's diet to improve carbohydrate intake

Question 31

What describes a disadvantage of using indirect calorimetry?

A) It requires certification and advanced training.
B) It causes pain for the patient.
C) It is labor intensive.
D) It requires at least 24 hours of test-time for accurate results.

Question 32

Use the Harris-Benedict equation (presented below) to estimate daily energy needs for a 32-year-old woman who is 165 cm tall and weighs 46 kg. Use a stress factor of 1.2.  RMR = 655.1 + [9.563 × weight (kg)] + [1.85 × height (cm)]-[4.676 × age (years)]

A) 1730 kcal
B) 1860 kcal
C) 2006 kcal
D) 2130 kcal

Question 33

What is the most accurate method to determine resting metabolic rate?

A) Harris-Benedict equation
B) Mifflin-St. Jeor equation
C) indirect calorimetry
D) bomb calorimeter

Question 34

When a regular diet fails to meet the nutrient needs of a client, a ____ is used.

A) standard diet
B) nutrition care plan
C) modified diet
D) nursing diagnosis

Question 35

Liquid diets are often prescribed ____.

A) following oral or facial surgeries
B) for individuals with edema
C) based on personal preference
D) to assist with weight loss

Question 36

After surgery, the physician ordered Tina to be put on a clear liquid diet. The first food Tina would receive could be ____.

A) bread
B) eggs
C) flavored gelatin
D) milk

Question 37

A quick way of estimating a person's energy needs is to multiply ____ by a factor appropriate for the patient's medical condition.

A) 24-hour kcalorie intake
B) body weight
C) waist circumference
D) percent of body fat

Question 38

Jackie is preparing to undergo a gastrointestinal test procedure in the hospital. What would be the most appropriate diet a day before the procedure?

A) blenderized diet
B) clear liquid diet
C) high-kcalorie, high-protein diet
D) low -odium diet

Question 39

What is the most accurate method to determine energy needs in overweight or obese patients who are not critically ill?

A) Harris-Benedict equation
B) Mifflin-St. Jeor equation
C) indirect calorimetry
D) bomb calorimeter

Question 40

Use the Mifflin-St. Jeor equation to calculate an appropriate energy intake for a 30-year old male hospital patient who is 5 ft 9 in. tall and weighs 162 lb. Use 1.25 as the stress factor for this patient. The patient's energy requirement is _____ kcalories

A) 1916
B) 2113
C) 2020
D) 2415

Question 41

What food would most likely be included in a high-kcalorie, high-protein diet?

A) cranberry juice
B) pancakes
C) coleslaw
D) boiled potatoes

Question 42

Delivery of nutrient solutions directly into the vein is called "____."

A) enteral nutrition
B) modified nutrition
C) parenteral nutrition
D) tube feeding

Question 43

A nurse is reading new orders written in the patient chart. The order reads, "NPO," which means that the patient will receive ____.

A) only beverages and medications
B) only medications
C) nothing by mouth
D) all foods orally

Question 44

In which case would a tube feeding be preferred over parenteral nutrition?

A) if the patient has an infection
B) if the patient needs extra calories
C) if the GI tract is functioning normally
D) if the patient is deficient in vitamin A

Question 45

For which client would diet progression be appropriate?

A) Betty, who just had gallbladder surgery and is being discharged on a standard diet
B) Jim, who has been on a clear liquid diet and now is ready to start eating solid foods again
C) Susan, who has been diagnosed with celiac disease and must exclude gluten from her diet
D) David, whose cancer has returned and has been transferred to hospice care

Question 46

Which patient would most likely need a low-fiber diet?

A) a patient in rehabilitation after a burn injury
B) a patient who tolerates a clear liquid diet
C) a patient who is getting ready for surgery
D) a patient who has an allergy to wheat

Question 47

Mr. Whitaker is 5 ft 8 in. tall and currently weighs 145 lb (usual weight around 175 lb) and has been diagnosed with esophageal cancer. His hematocrit is 28% and his albumin level is 3.1 g/dL. Which diet would assist in improving his nutrition status?

A) low-sodium diet
B) fat-restricted diet
C) high-kcalorie, high-protein diet
D) lactose-free diet

Question 48

A lactose-intolerant patient is provided a full-liquid diet as a transition between liquids and solid foods. Which of the following foods would not be appropriate for this patient:

A) cream soup
B) ginger ale
C) fruit ice
D) soft drinks

Question 49

The process of changing the client's diet as per his/her tolerance to food is called "____."

A) a standard diet
B) diet progression
C) nutrition education
D) a manual diet

Question 50

A sodium-controlled diet is often used to prevent fluid retention and may be recommended for the treatment of ____.

A) hyperglycemia
B) congestive heart failure
C) cancer
D) hyperthyroidism

Question 51

Mrs. Greenbaum is suffering from kidney disease and experiencing edema. Which modified diet would be appropriate for her based on this information?

A) fat-controlled diet
B) low-sodium diet
C) high-kcalorie, high-protein diet
D) liquid diet

Question 52

What food would most likely be restricted in a low-residue diet?

A) fish
B) squash
C) mashed potatoes
D) bananas

Question 53

A client has just been admitted to your unit at 11:30 PM on a Saturday. He states that he is hungry and wants something to eat. You note that he is on a fat-restricted diet, but have questions regarding what exactly is allowed. Your best resource at this time of night is the ____.

A) diet manual
B) client's physician
C) client's dietitian
D) nursing supervisor

Question 54

What is a benefit of using a selective menu?

A) Patients can decide whether or not to follow their diet plans.
B) Patients become more familiar with the foods permitted on their particular diet.
C) The foodservice department saves money because fewer foods are served.
D) Risks associated with noncompliance are reduced.

Question 55

Which patient would most likely have an order to be NPO?

A) a patient who had knee surgery yesterday
B) a patient preparing for a gastrointestinal procedure
C) a patient who is 85 years old
D) a patient who is obese

Question 56

Which food would be permitted on a fiber-restricted diet?

A) whole-wheat bread
B) chunky peanut butter
C) plain yogurt
D) winter squash

Question 57

In most cases, on a low-sodium diet, the sodium level is restricted to ____ mg per day.

A) 250 to 500
B) 500 to 1000
C) 2000 to 3000
D) 4000 to 5000

Question 58

Most foods included in a fat-restricted diet have less than ____ gram of fat per serving.

A) 1
B) 1/2
C) 1/4
D) 1/10

Question 59

Your client is prescribed a high-kcalorie, high-protein diet. Out of the recommended 3200 kcales, 38% is provided from fat sources. How many grams of fat will the client receive on this diet?

A) 115 grams
B) 135 grams
C) 143 grams
D) 151 grams

Question 60

The nurse is preparing one of her patients for lunchtime. She opens the tray and sees the patient's pureed food. The nurse should ____.

A) tell the patient, "I hope you know what this is. ...It all looks like mush to me"
B) ask visitors to leave, as they are distracting the patient
C) ask the patient if he needs help with his meal
D) turn off the lights and turn on the television

Question 62

What refers to a systemic (whole-body) reaction characterized by breathing difficulty and low blood pressure?

A) hives
B) oral allergy syndrome
C) anaphylaxis
D) acute gastrointestinal response

Question 63

List the types of modified diets that alter food texture and consistency and explain the appropriate uses of each type.

Question 64

A negative skin-prick test result ____.

A) is typically incorrect
B) indicates that the test substance is not the cause of allergy
C) is valid for physical but not psychological symptoms
D) is rarely clinically meaningful

Question 65

Breaded meats and vegetables are known to be a hidden source of ____.

A) eggs
B) milk
C) peanuts
D) shellfish

Question 66

What intervention would most likely help to improve intake for a hospitalized patient at mealtime?

A) s uggesting foods that require little effort to eat.
B) turning down the lights in the room.
C) placing the patient's bed in the highest position.
D) selecting all foods for the patient from his menu.

Question 67

Because allergic responses may persist after allergens are removed from the diet, ____.

A) elimination testing is no longer used
B) patients must be cautioned to be scrupulously careful with their diets
C) patients are generally inaccurate in identifying foods to which they are allergic
D) an elemental formula diet may be needed to stabilize the patient before foods are reintroduced

Question 68

Describe the importance of instituting follow-up care after nutrition education.

Question 69

List three common food allergies, and discuss the challenges in managing each.

Question 70

Discuss the advantages of selective menus and methods used to improve patient satisfaction with foodservice.

Question 71

When properly performed, ____ is(are) the gold standard for diagnosis of food allergies.

A) oral food challenges
B) skin testing
C) blood antibody testing
D) food elimination diets

Question 72

A positive skin-prick test result correctly identifies an allergen about ____ of the time.

A) 50 to 60%
B) 60 to 70%
C) 70 to 80%
D) 80 to 90%

Question 73

Compare and contrast tube feeding and parenteral nutrition.

Question 74

What information is included in a diet manual?

A) calorie counts for patients recovering from surgery
B) the exact items to avoid when a patient is NPO
C) preparation methods to include or exclude in modified diets
D) food choices that the patient is most likely to eat

Question 75

Blood antibody testing for food allergies ____.

A) is the most accurate method
B) predicts lack of allergy better than actual allergy
C) should be accompanied by other diagnostic tests to confirm the food allergy
D) is rarely clinically meaningful

Question 76

Elemental formula diets ____.

A) contain no intact proteins
B) contain only one type of protein
C) are used to provoke allergic responses
D) help identify "safe" foods