Deck 25: Metabolic Disorders
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Deck 25: Metabolic Disorders
1
People with PKU can have a musty or mousy smell due to phenylketones accumulating where?
A) breath
B) sweat
C) ear wax
D) feces
E) urine
A) breath
B) sweat
C) ear wax
D) feces
E) urine
E
2
Which amino acid disorder affects the metabolism of methionine?
A) homocystinuria
B) phenylketonuria
C) tyrosinemia
D) isovaleric acidemia
E) maple syrup urine disease
A) homocystinuria
B) phenylketonuria
C) tyrosinemia
D) isovaleric acidemia
E) maple syrup urine disease
A
3
Which trisaccharide is not digested by humans?
A) maltose
B) glucagon
C) raffinose
D) ribose
E) amylopectin
A) maltose
B) glucagon
C) raffinose
D) ribose
E) amylopectin
C
4
Which type of glycogen storage disease is characterized by a deficiency of lysosomal acid alpha-glucosidase?
A) type III
B) type IV
C) type V
D) type II
E) type VI
A) type III
B) type IV
C) type V
D) type II
E) type VI
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5
Which amino acid is affected in the metabolic disorder isovaleric acidemia?
A) valine
B) tryptophan
C) leucine
D) isoleucine
E) arginine
A) valine
B) tryptophan
C) leucine
D) isoleucine
E) arginine
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6
Which chemical compound is used to scavenge excess ammonia from the bloodstream?
A) sodium benzoate
B) sodium carbonate
C) potassium iodide
D) calcium chloride
E) sodium alginate
A) sodium benzoate
B) sodium carbonate
C) potassium iodide
D) calcium chloride
E) sodium alginate
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7
3-methylcrotonylglycinuria is a metabolic disorder of which branched-chain amino acid?
A) valine
B) isoleucine
C) leucine
D) tryptophan
E) arginine
A) valine
B) isoleucine
C) leucine
D) tryptophan
E) arginine
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8
Which amino acid is affected in the metabolic condition maple syrup urine disease?
A) methionine
B) serine
C) isoleucine
D) phenylalanine
E) cysteine
A) methionine
B) serine
C) isoleucine
D) phenylalanine
E) cysteine
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9
What is a common neurologic sign of inborn errors of metabolism in neonates?
A) seizures
B) hyperpnea
C) tachypnea
D) vomiting
E) ectopia lentis
A) seizures
B) hyperpnea
C) tachypnea
D) vomiting
E) ectopia lentis
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10
Which of the following is an insoluble component of starch?
A) carnitine
B) glucagon
C) raffinose
D) ribose
E) amylopectin
A) carnitine
B) glucagon
C) raffinose
D) ribose
E) amylopectin
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11
How many metabolic disorders can be screened for at a time using tandem mass spectroscopy?
A) 110
B) over 80
C) 58
D) over 30
E) 15
A) 110
B) over 80
C) 58
D) over 30
E) 15
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12
Which amino acid is affected in the metabolic condition phenylketonuria (PKU)?
A) methionine
B) leucine
C) tryptophan
D) phenylalanine
E) cysteine
A) methionine
B) leucine
C) tryptophan
D) phenylalanine
E) cysteine
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13
Which of the following statements is true of the amino acid disorder homocystinuria?
A) Cysteine is not converted to homocysteine.
B) Homocysteine is not converted to cysteine.
C) Homocysteine is not converted to lysine.
D) Homocysteine is not converted to leucine.
E) Cysteine is not converted to valine.
A) Cysteine is not converted to homocysteine.
B) Homocysteine is not converted to cysteine.
C) Homocysteine is not converted to lysine.
D) Homocysteine is not converted to leucine.
E) Cysteine is not converted to valine.
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14
Which amino acid supplement used for metabolic disorders displays antiatherogenic, antioxidant, and immunomodulatory properties?
A) valine
B) isoleucine
C) leucine
D) tryptophan
E) arginine
A) valine
B) isoleucine
C) leucine
D) tryptophan
E) arginine
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15
What is the term used to refer to the variation in the presentation of metabolic disorders?
A) variant
B) genotype
C) haplotype
D) phenotype
E) degree
A) variant
B) genotype
C) haplotype
D) phenotype
E) degree
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16
Which vitamin, in pharmacological amounts, is used for the treatment of vitamin-responsive forms of methylmalonic acidemia?
A) biotin
B) vitamin B12
C) vitamin B6
D) riboflavin
E) vitamin C
A) biotin
B) vitamin B12
C) vitamin B6
D) riboflavin
E) vitamin C
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17
How are most inborn errors of metabolism acquired?
A) autosomal dominant inheritance
B) autosomal recessive inheritance
C) infection
D) dietary deficiency
E) blood toxicity
A) autosomal dominant inheritance
B) autosomal recessive inheritance
C) infection
D) dietary deficiency
E) blood toxicity
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18
What is a common secondary consequence of metabolic defects?
A) bacterial infections
B) nutritional deficiencies
C) arthritis
D) cancer
E) autoimmune disorders
A) bacterial infections
B) nutritional deficiencies
C) arthritis
D) cancer
E) autoimmune disorders
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19
What is the targeted blood Phe range, as recommended in the new ACMG guidelines, for all individuals with PKU?
A) 20-30 μmol/L
B) 65-105 μmol/L
C) 120-360 μmol/L
D) 400-600 μmol/L
E) 650-820 μmol/L
A) 20-30 μmol/L
B) 65-105 μmol/L
C) 120-360 μmol/L
D) 400-600 μmol/L
E) 650-820 μmol/L
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20
What is the term used for a substrate needed for the normal metabolism of fat for energy?
A) carnitine
B) glucagon
C) raffinose
D) ribose
E) amylopectin
A) carnitine
B) glucagon
C) raffinose
D) ribose
E) amylopectin
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21
PD is an 11-month-old boy with phenylketonuria (PKU). His mother brought him to an outpatient nutrition center in the local pediatric hospital for evaluation.
Length: 28 inches Weight: 19 pounds (8.7 kg)
What are PD's daily protein needs?
A) 32 g
B) 31.4 g
C) 30 g
D) 28.3 g
E) 24 g
Length: 28 inches Weight: 19 pounds (8.7 kg)
What are PD's daily protein needs?
A) 32 g
B) 31.4 g
C) 30 g
D) 28.3 g
E) 24 g
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22
Which vitamin supplement is used as a treatment for the holocarboxylase synthetase deficiency disorder?
A) thiamin
B) riboflavin
C) biotin
D) niacin
E) folic acid
A) thiamin
B) riboflavin
C) biotin
D) niacin
E) folic acid
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23
Which vegetable oil has the highest amount of linolenic acid?
A) flaxseed
B) safflower
C) corn
D) peanut
E) olive
A) flaxseed
B) safflower
C) corn
D) peanut
E) olive
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24
How many enzymes are needed to convert fructose into intermediates of the glycolytic gluconeogenic pathway?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five
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25
Which of these is a predominant dietary source of galactose?
A) fructose from fruit
B) lactose from milk
C) glucose from honey
D) glycogen from meat
E) fiber from vegetables
A) fructose from fruit
B) lactose from milk
C) glucose from honey
D) glycogen from meat
E) fiber from vegetables
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26
Which of the following drugs binds with homocysteine to form the amino acid methionine?
A) metronidazole
B) cystadane
C) amoxicillin
D) cyclosporine
E) tacrolimus
A) metronidazole
B) cystadane
C) amoxicillin
D) cyclosporine
E) tacrolimus
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27
Which vegetable oil contains the highest amount of linoleic acid?
A) flaxseed
B) safflower
C) corn
D) peanut
E) canola
A) flaxseed
B) safflower
C) corn
D) peanut
E) canola
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28
PD is an 11-month-old boy with phenylketonuria (PKU). His mother brought him to an outpatient nutrition center in the local pediatric hospital for evaluation.
Length: 28 inches Weight: 19 pounds (8.7 kg)
Phe restriction should achieve optimal blood Phe levels of:
A) 20-30 μmol/L
B) 65-105 μmol/L
C) 120-360 μmol/L
D) 400-600 μmol/L
E) 650-820 μmol/L
Length: 28 inches Weight: 19 pounds (8.7 kg)
Phe restriction should achieve optimal blood Phe levels of:
A) 20-30 μmol/L
B) 65-105 μmol/L
C) 120-360 μmol/L
D) 400-600 μmol/L
E) 650-820 μmol/L
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29
What is the most predominant type of mitochondrial disorder?
A) fatty acid transport disorders
B) fatty acid oxidation defects
C) glycogen complex disorders
D) respiratory chain disorders
E) pyruvate complex disorders
A) fatty acid transport disorders
B) fatty acid oxidation defects
C) glycogen complex disorders
D) respiratory chain disorders
E) pyruvate complex disorders
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30
PD is an 11-month-old boy with phenylketonuria (PKU). His mother brought him to an outpatient nutrition center in the local pediatric hospital for evaluation.
Length: 28 inches Weight: 19 pounds (8.7 kg)
What two common PKU characteristics did PD's mom likely notice in her son?
A) fair complexion and musty-smelling urine
B) dark skin pigmentation and foul breath
C) bowed legs and high-pitched screeching
D) bloody diarrhea and muscle paralysis
E) severe insomnia and fatty stool
Length: 28 inches Weight: 19 pounds (8.7 kg)
What two common PKU characteristics did PD's mom likely notice in her son?
A) fair complexion and musty-smelling urine
B) dark skin pigmentation and foul breath
C) bowed legs and high-pitched screeching
D) bloody diarrhea and muscle paralysis
E) severe insomnia and fatty stool
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31
What type of fatty acids are linoleic and linolenic acids?
A) short-chain
B) medium-chain
C) long-chain
D) very long-chain
E) polysaccharide
A) short-chain
B) medium-chain
C) long-chain
D) very long-chain
E) polysaccharide
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32
Which enzyme deficiency results in the accumulation of fructose-1-phosphate?
A) glucokinase
B) arginase
C) phenylalanine hydroxylase
D) lipase
E) aldolase B
A) glucokinase
B) arginase
C) phenylalanine hydroxylase
D) lipase
E) aldolase B
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33
What is the function of riboflavin and thiamin in the respiratory chain?
A) antioxidants
B) cofactors
C) artificial electron receptors
D) artificial electron transporters
E) antivirals
A) antioxidants
B) cofactors
C) artificial electron receptors
D) artificial electron transporters
E) antivirals
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34
Which amino acid is affected in the metabolic disorder 3-hydroxyisobutyric aciduria?
A) valine
B) tryptophan
C) leucine
D) isoleucine
E) arginine
A) valine
B) tryptophan
C) leucine
D) isoleucine
E) arginine
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35
Fructose-induced hypoglycemia results from inhibition of gluconeogenesis and which other process?
A) glucogenesis
B) glycogenesis
C) the chaperoning effect
D) glycolysis
E) glycogenolysis
A) glucogenesis
B) glycogenesis
C) the chaperoning effect
D) glycolysis
E) glycogenolysis
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36
PD is an 11-month-old boy with phenylketonuria (PKU). His mother brought him to an outpatient nutrition center in the local pediatric hospital for evaluation.
Length: 28 inches Weight: 19 pounds (8.7 kg)
What is the maximum total amount of phenylalanine that PD can consume every day?
A) 168.5 mg
B) 246 mg
C) 304.5 mg
D) 391 mg
E) 451.5 mg
Length: 28 inches Weight: 19 pounds (8.7 kg)
What is the maximum total amount of phenylalanine that PD can consume every day?
A) 168.5 mg
B) 246 mg
C) 304.5 mg
D) 391 mg
E) 451.5 mg
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37
Which of the following diets is recommended for a patient with a hereditary deficiency of the enzyme aldolase B?
A) sucrose-rich diet
B) fiber-free diet
C) omega-3 fatty acid-free diet
D) sorbitol-rich diet
E) fructose-free diet
A) sucrose-rich diet
B) fiber-free diet
C) omega-3 fatty acid-free diet
D) sorbitol-rich diet
E) fructose-free diet
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38
PD is an 11-month-old boy with phenylketonuria (PKU). His mother brought him to an outpatient nutrition center in the local pediatric hospital for evaluation.
Length: 28 inches Weight: 19 pounds (8.7 kg)
What are PD's daily caloric needs?
A) 1,151 kcal
B) 1,022 kcal
C) 986 kcal
D) 914 kcal
E) 845 kcal
Length: 28 inches Weight: 19 pounds (8.7 kg)
What are PD's daily caloric needs?
A) 1,151 kcal
B) 1,022 kcal
C) 986 kcal
D) 914 kcal
E) 845 kcal
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39
In addition to classic galactosemia, what are the other two variants of galactosemia?
A) Duarte and Black
B) variant I and variant II
C) Edwards and Jackson
D) dairy and fruit
E) secondary and tertiary
A) Duarte and Black
B) variant I and variant II
C) Edwards and Jackson
D) dairy and fruit
E) secondary and tertiary
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40
Which type of glycogen storage disease causes a muscle phosphorylase deficiency?
A) type II
B) type III
C) type IV
D) type V
E) type VI
A) type II
B) type III
C) type IV
D) type V
E) type VI
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41
Tandem _______________ allows clinicians to screen for over 30 metabolic disorders by analyzing metabolites in a blood spot collected on a filter paper from a simple heel prick on the newborn.
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42
Galactose is a monosaccharide found in milk products; galactosemia may be rapidly fatal in infants if milk feedings are not discontinued.
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43
Urea cycle disorders result in an impaired capacity of the body to excrete nitrogen in the form of urea.
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44
Pharmaceutical products such as sodium ________________ and sodium phenylbutyrate are needed to remove the excess nitrogen that is produced as a result of a block in the urea cycle.
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45
Impaired metabolism of nutrients can be caused by a defective gene that results in a change to the binding site of cofactors.
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46
The deficiency or absence of the phenylalanine _______________ enzyme leads to the inability to convert the essential amino acid phenylalanine into the amino acid _______________.
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47
In glycogen storage disease type III, protein is used as an alternative source of glucose production, via the _______________ shunt.
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48
Isovaleric acidemia (IVA) is an amino acid disorder affecting the metabolism of multiple amino acids.
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49
Mitochondria are found in every cell in the human body.
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50
_______________ is used to remove and detoxify waste products that accumulate in organic acid disorders affecting the metabolism of proteins, carbohydrates, and/or fats.
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51
Skin lymphocytes or peripheral blood fibroblasts can be used to determine the extent of enzymatic activity present.
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52
Fatty acids must be taken into the mitochondria using the leucine transport system.
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53
Inhibition of both _______________ and glycogenolysis results in fructose-induced hypoglycemia.
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54
Untreated _______________ can cause neurologic abnormalities, seizures, and eczema.
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55
Neonates with a metabolic disorder generally show acute central nervous system symptoms, including generalized or partial _______________.
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56
The genetic defect in phenylalanine hydroxylase leads to a reduction in or an absence of phenylalanine hydroxylase activity.
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57
The detection of inborn errors of metabolism is complicated by the fact that many symptoms are nonspecific and can be similar from one inborn error of metabolism to the next.
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58
In an autosomal recessive disorder, carrier parents have a _______________% chance of having an affected child with each pregnancy.
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59
Selective neonatal screening is the testing of an individual known to be at increased risk for a _______________ disorder.
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60
Additional amounts of a cofactor can provide for a chaperoning effect where the cofactor helps to stabilize the enzyme complex, allowing for an increase in enzyme activity.
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61
Discuss the epidemiology of amino acidopathies.
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62
Organic acidemias are a subset of _______________ disorders that involve a dysfunction in the metabolism of intermediary products.
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63
Describe how clinicians screen for multiple metabolic disorders in infants.
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64
Fatty acids in the mitochondria are converted to ketone bodies by the process of _______________.
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65
Describe the etiology of urea cycle disorders.
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66
Describe supplementation of end products as an approach for chronic management of metabolic disorders, and provide a specific example.
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67
In patients with galactosemia, the enzyme defect occurs in uridyltransferase, which normally converts galactose, in the form of galactose-1-phosphate, to _______________.
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68
Describe the acute nutritional interventions used for urea cycle disorders.
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69
Describe the use and benefits of sapropterin dihydrochloride.
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70
The urea cycle resides primarily in the _______________, but this process can also take place to a lesser extent in the kidneys and small intestine.
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71
Some of the galactose in fruits and vegetables may be found as the galactose _______________, raffinose and stachyose, and hence is most likely unavailable for absorption.
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72
A pharmacologic dose of vitamin B12is given to a newly diagnosed patient with _______________ acidemia to determine whether the enzymatic defect is vitamin responsive.
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73
Describe the causes, symptoms, and incidences of galactosemia.
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74
Glycogen storage disease type I (GSD I) is characterized by a deficiency of the enzyme _______________.
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75
Carnitine is usually supplemented if the amount of free carnitine is _______________ and/or the ratio of esterified to free carnitine is _______________.
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76
Sapropterin dihydrochloride is an oral formulation of the biologically active tetrahydrobiopterin, cofactor to the _______________ enzyme.
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77
Describe the acute nutritional interventions used for disorders of fat metabolism.
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78
Explain how fructose is normally metabolized.
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79
Define the alanine shunt. In what disease is it used?
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80
Mitochondria are essential for the production of _______________ in all types of tissues.
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