Deck 38: Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR)

Question 1

The login method is configured on the VTY lines of a router with these parameters: • The first method for authentication is TACACS • If TACACS is unavailable, login is allowed without any provided credentials Which configuration accomplishes this task?

A)
B)
C)
D)

Answer 1

Question 2

When using TLS for syslog, which configuration allows for secure and reliable transportation of messages to its default port?

A) logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 514
B) logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 514
C) logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 6514
D) logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 6514

Answer 2

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 6514

Question 3

Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-LISP sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination?

A) PITR
B) map resolver
C) map server
D) PETR

Answer 3

PITR

Question 4

Which exhibit displays a valid JSON file?

A)
B)
C)
D)

Question 5

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the OSPF debug output is true?

A) The output displays OSPF hello messages which router R1 has sent or received on interface Fa0/1.
B) The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on all interfaces.
C) The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on interface Fa0/1.
D) The output displays OSPF hello and LSACK messages which router R1 has sent or received.

Question 6

Which protocol does REST API rely on to secure the communication channel?

A) HTTP
B) SSH
C) HTTPS
D) TCP

Question 7

What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in a data center environment? (Choose two.)

A) reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements
B) smaller Layer 2 domain
C) increased security
D) speedy deployment
E) reduced IP and MAC address requirements

Question 8

What are two common sources of interference for Wi-Fi networks? (Choose two.)

A) LED lights
B) radar
C) fire alarm
D) conventional oven
E) rogue AP

Question 9

Based on this interface configuration, what is the expected state of OSPF adjacency?

A) 2WAY/DROTHER on both routers
B) not established
C) FULL on both routers
D) FULL/BDR on R1 and FULL/BDR on R2

Question 10

Which HTTP status code is the correct response for a request with an incorrect password applied to a REST API session?

A) HTTP Status Code: 200
B) HTTP Status Code: 302
C) HTTP Status Code: 401
D) HTTP Status Code: 504

Question 11

Refer to the exhibit. Which privilege level is assigned to VTY users?

A) 1
B) 7
C) 13
D) 15

Question 12

Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two.)

A) transmit power
B) noise floor
C) EIRP
D) RSSI
E) antenna gain

Question 13

A client device fails to see the enterprise SSID, but other client devices are connected to it. What is the cause of this issue?

A) The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured broadcast SSID.
B) The hidden SSID was not manually configured on the client.
C) The broadcast SSID was not manually configured on the client.
D) The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured hidden SSID.

Question 14

Which statements are used for error handling in Python?

A) try/catch
B) catch/release
C) block/rescue
D) try/except

Question 15

How does Cisco TrustSec enable more flexible access controls for dynamic networking environments and data centers?

A) uses flexible NetFlow
B) assigns a VLAN to the endpoint
C) classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition
D) classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address

Question 16

What is the difference between a RIB and a FIB?

A) The FIB is populated based on RIB content.
B) The RIB maintains a mirror image of the FIB.
C) The RIB is used to make IP source prefix-based switching decisions.
D) The FIB is where all IP routing information is stored.

Question 17

Refer to the exhibit. What is the JSON syntax that is formed from the data?

A) {Name: Bob Johnson, Age: 75, Alive: true, Favorite Foods: [Cereal, Mustard, Onions]}
B) {"Name": "Bob Johnson", "Age": 75, "Alive": true, "Favorite Foods": ["Cereal", "Mustard", "Onions"]}
C) {'Name': 'Bob Johnson', 'Age': 75, 'Alive': True, 'Favorite Foods': 'Cereal', 'Mustard', 'Onions'}
D) {"Name": "Bob Johnson", "Age": Seventyfive, "Alive": true, "Favorite Foods": ["Cereal", "Mustard", "Onions"]}

Question 18

Which function does a fabric edge node perform in an SD-Access deployment?

A) Connects endpoints to the fabric and forwards their traffic.
B) Encapsulates end-user data traffic into LISP.
C) Connects the SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks.
D) Provides reachability between border nodes in the fabric underlay.

Question 19

Which two steps are required for a complete Cisco DNA Center upgrade? (Choose two.)

A) automation backup
B) system update
C) golden image selection
D) proxy configuration
E) application updates

Question 20

Refer to the exhibit. Link1 is a copper connection and Link2 is a fiber connection. The fiber port must be the primary port for all forwarding. The output of the show spanning-tree command on SW2 shows that the fiber port is blocked by spanning tree. An engineer enters the spanning-tree port-priority 32 command on G0/1 on SW2, but the port remains blocked. Which command should be entered on the ports that are connected to Link2 to resolve the issue?

A) Enter spanning-tree port-priority 4 on SW2. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 4 on SW2.
B) Enter spanning-tree port-priority 32 on SW1. on SW1.
C) Enter spanning-tree port-priority 224 on SW1. spanning-tree port-priority 224
D) Enter spanning-tree port-priority 64 on SW2. spanning-tree port-priority 64

Question 21

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that R1 is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1?

A) default VRF
B) VRF VPN_A
C) VRF VPN_B
D) management VRF

Question 22

Which QoS component alters a packet to change the way that traffic is treated in the network?

A) policing
B) classification
C) marking
D) shaping

Question 23

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must block all traffic from a router to its directly connected subnet 209.165.200.0/24. The engineer applies access control list EGRESS in the outbound direction on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the router. However, the router can still ping hosts on the 209.165.200.0/24 subnet. Which explanation of this behavior is true?

A) Access control lists that are applied outbound to a router interface do not affect traffic that is sourced from the router.
B) After an access control list is applied to an interface, that interface must be shut and no shut for the access control list to take effect.
C) Only standard access control lists can block traffic from a source IP address.
D) The access control list must contain an explicit deny to block traffic from the router.

Question 24

Which statement explains why Type 1 hypervisor is considered more efficient than Type2 hypervisor?

A) Type 1 hypervisor is the only type of hypervisor that supports hardware acceleration techniques.
B) Type 1 hypervisor relies on the existing OS of the host machine to access CPU, memory, storage, and network resources.
C) Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the physical hardware of the host machine without relying on the underlying OS.
D) Type 1 hypervisor enables other operating systems to run on it.

Question 25

Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address becomes the active next hop for 192.168.102.0/24 when 192.168.101.2 fails?

A) 192.168.101.10
B) 192.168.101.14
C) 192.168.101.6
D) 192.168.101.18

Question 26

An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy. Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN?

A) ISE server
B) RADIUS server
C) anchor WLC
D) local WLC

Question 27

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration in this WLAN security setting, which method can a client use to authenticate to the network?

A) text string
B) username and password
C) RADIUS token
D) certificate

Question 28

Which PAgP mode combination prevents an EtherChannel from forming?

A) auto/desirable
B) desirable/desirable
C) desirable/auto
D) auto/auto

Question 29

Which technology provides a secure communication channel for all traffic at Layer 2 of the OSI model?

A) SSL
B) Cisco TrustSec
C) MACsec
D) IPsec

Question 30

Which statement about a fabric access point is true?

A) It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.
B) It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node.
C) It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node.
D) It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.

Question 31

A client with IP address 209.165.201.25 must access a web server on port 80 at 209.165.200.225. To allow this traffic, an engineer must add a statement to an access control list that is applied in the inbound direction on the port connecting to the web server. Which statement allows this traffic?

A) permit tcp host 209.165.200.225 lt 80 host 209.165.201.25
B) permit tcp host 209.165.201.25 host 209.165.200.225 eq 80
C) permit tcp host 209.165.200.225 eq 80 host 209.165.201.25
D) permit tcp host 209.165.200.225 host 209.165.201.25 eq 80

Question 32

Which reason could cause an OSPF neighborship to be in the EXSTART/EXCHANGE state?

A) mismatched OSPF link costs
B) mismatched OSPF network type
C) mismatched areas
D) mismatched MTU size

Question 33

Which two mechanisms are available to secure NTP? (Choose two.)

A) IPsec
B) IP prefix list-based
C) encrypted authentication
D) TACACS-based authentication
E) IP access list-based

Question 34

Which statement about TLS is accurate when using RESTCONF to write configurations on network devices?

A) It is used for HTTP and HTTPS requests.
B) It requires certificates for authentication.
C) It is provided using NGINX acting as a proxy web server.
D) It is not supported on Cisco devices.

Question 35

Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end?

A) UDP jitter
B) ICMP jitter
C) TCP connect
D) ICMP echo

Question 36

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of antenna do the radiation patterns present?

A) Yagi
B) patch
C) omnidirectional
D) dipole

Question 37

Which controller is the single plane of management for Cisco SD-WAN?

A) vBond
B) vSmart
C) vManage
D) vEdge

Question 38

Refer to this output. R1# *Feb 14 37:09:53.129: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface GigabitEthernet0/1, changed state to up What is the logging severity level?

A) notification
B) emergency
C) critical
D) alert

Question 39

In OSPF, which LSA type is responsible for pointing to the ASBR router?

A) type 1
B) type 2
C) type 3
D) type 4

Question 40

Which two methods are used by an AP that is trying to discover a wireless LAN controller? (Choose two.)

A) Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbor
B) querying other APs
C) DHCP Option 43
D) broadcasting on the local subnet
E) DNS lookup CISCO-DNA-PRIMARY.localdomain

Question 41

What is a benefit of deploying an on-premises infrastructure versus a cloud infrastructure deployment?

A) ability to quickly increase compute power without the need to install additional hardware
B) less power and cooling resources needed to run infrastructure on-premises
C) faster deployment times because additional infrastructure does not need to be purchased
D) lower latency between systems that are physically located near each other

Question 42

Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true?

A) The CPU of a router becomes directly involved with packet-switching decisions.
B) It uses a fast cache that is maintained in a router data plane.
C) It maintains two tables in the data plane: the FIB and adjacency table.
D) It makes forwarding decisions by a process that is scheduled through the IOS scheduler.

Question 43

A customer has several small branches and wants to deploy a Wi-Fi solution with local management using CAPWAP. Which deployment model meets this requirement?

A) local mode
B) autonomous
C) SD-Access wireless
D) Mobility Express

Question 44

At which layer does Cisco DNA Center support REST controls?

A) session layer
B) northbound APIs
C) EEM applets or scripts
D) YAML output from responses to API calls

Question 45

Which feature is supported by EIGRP but is not supported by OSPF?

A) route filtering
B) unequal-cost load balancing
C) route summarization
D) equal-cost load balancing

Question 46

Which TCP setting is tuned to minimize the risk of fragmentation on a GRE/IP tunnel?

A) MSS
B) MTU
C) MRU
D) window size

Question 47

What is a fact about Cisco EAP-FAST?

A) It requires a client certificate.
B) It is an IETF standard.
C) It does not require a RADIUS server certificate.
D) It operates in transparent mode.

Question 48

Refer to the exhibit. A port channel is configured between SW2 and SW3. SW2 is not running a Cisco operating system. When all physical connections are made, the port channel does not establish. Based on the configuration excerpt of SW3, what is the cause of the problem?

A) The port-channel mode should be set to auto.
B) The port channel on SW2 is using an incompatible protocol.
C) The port-channel trunk is not allowing the native VLAN.
D) The port-channel interface load balance should be set to src-mac.

Question 49

Which LISP device is responsible for publishing EID-to-RLOC mappings for a site?

A) ETR
B) MR
C) ITR
D) MS

Question 50

On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric?

A) VXLAN
B) LISP
C) Cisco TrustSec
D) IS-IS

Question 51

What does this EEM applet event accomplish? "event snmp oid 1.3.6.1.3.7.6.5.3.9.3.8.7 get-type next entry-op gt entry-val 75 poll-interval 5"

A) Upon the value reaching 75%, a SNMP event is generated and sent to the trap server.
B) It reads an SNMP variable, and when the value exceeds 75%, it triggers an action.
C) It issues email when the value is greater than 75% for five polling cycles.
D) It presents a SNMP variable that can be interrogated.

Question 52

Which method displays text directly into the active console with a synchronous EEM applet policy?

A) event manager applet boom event syslog pattern 'UP' action 1.0 syslog priority direct msg 'logging directly to console'
B) action 1.0 gets 'logging directly to console'
C) action 1.0 string 'logging directly to console'
D) action 1.0 puts 'logging directly to console'

Question 53

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must modify the access control list EGRESS to allow all IP traffic from subnet 10.1.10.0/24 to 10.1.2.0/24. The access control list is applied in the outbound direction on router interface GigabitEthernet 0/1. Which configuration command set will allow this traffic without disrupting existing traffic flows?

A)
B)
C)
D)

Question 54

Which two operations are valid for RESTCONF? (Choose two.)

A) PULL
B) PUSH
C) PATCH
D) REMOVE
E) ADD
F) HEAD

Question 55

In which part of the HTTP message is the content type specified?

A) HTTP method
B) body
C) header
D) URI

Question 56

Which DNS lookup does an access point perform when attempting CAPWAP discovery?

A) CISCO-CONTROLLER.local
B) CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local
C) CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local
D) CISCO-DNA-CONTROLLER.local

Question 57

Which statement about an RSPAN session configuration is true?

A) Only one session can be configured at a time.
B) A special VLAN type must be used as the RSPAN destination.
C) A filter must be configured for RSPAN sessions.
D) Only incoming traffic can be monitored.

Question 58

A response code of 404 is received while using the REST API on Cisco DNA Center to POST to this URI: /dna/intent/api/v1/template-programmer/project What does the code mean?

A) The POST/PUT request was fulfilled and a new resource was created. Information about the resource is in the response body.
B) The request was accepted for processing, but the processing was not completed.
C) The client made a request for a resource that does not exist.
D) The server has not implemented the functionality that is needed to fulfill the request.

Question 59

Which two GRE features are configured to prevent fragmentation? (Choose two.)

A) TCP window size
B) IP MTU
C) TCP MSS
D) DF bit clear
E) MTU ignore

Question 60

Refer to the exhibit. The WLC administrator sees that the controller to which a roaming client associates has Mobility Role Anchor configured under Clients > Detail. Which type of roaming is supported?

A) indirect
B) Layer 3 intercontroller
C) intracontroller
D) Layer 2 intercontroller

Question 61

Which NTP Stratum level is a server that is connected directly to an authoritative time source?

A) Stratum 0
B) Stratum 1
C) Stratum 14
D) Stratum 15

Question 62

A client device roams between access points located on different floors in an atrium. The access points are joined to the same controller and configured in local mode. The access points are in different AP groups and have different IP addresses, but the client VLAN in the groups is the same. Which type of roam occurs?

A) inter-controller
B) inter-subnet
C) intra-VLAN
D) intra-controller

Question 63

Company policy restricts VLAN 10 to be allowed only on SW1 and SW2. All other VLANs can be on all three switches. An administrator has noticed that VLAN 10 has propagated to SW3. Which configuration corrects the issue?

A) SW1(config)# int gi1/1 SW1(config)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094 SW1(config)# int gi1/1 switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094
B) SW2(config)# int gi1/2 SW2(config)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 10 SW2(config)# int gi1/2 switchport trunk allowed vlan 10
C) SW2(config)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094
D) SW1(config)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 10 int gi1/1

Question 64

Which feature of EIGRP is not supported in OSPF?

A) load balancing of unequal-cost paths
B) load balance over four equal-cost paths
C) uses interface bandwidth to determine best path
D) per-packet load balancing over multiple paths

Question 65

A local router shows an EBGP neighbor in the Active state. Which statement is true about the local router?

A) The local router is attempting to open a TCP session with the neighboring router.
B) The local router is receiving prefixes from the neighboring router and adding them in RIB-IN.
C) The local router has active prefixes in the forwarding table from the neighboring router.
D) The local router has BGP passive mode configured for the neighboring router.

Question 66

Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol should be used to meet a design requirement for more efficient default gateway bandwidth usage across multiple devices?

A) GLBP
B) LACP
C) HSRP
D) VRRP

Question 67

A network administrator applies the following configuration to an IOS device: aaa new-model aaa authentication login default local group tacacs+ What is the process of password checks when a login attempt is made to the device?

A) A TACACS+ server is checked first. If that check fails, a local database is checked.
B) A TACACS+ server is checked first. If that check fails, a RADIUS server is checked. If that check fails, a local database is checked.
C) A local database is checked first. If that check fails, a TACACS+ server is checked. If that check fails, a RADIUS server is checked.
D) A local database is checked first. If that check fails, a TACACS+ server is checked.

Question 68

How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion?

A) It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate.
B) It buffers and queues packets above the committed rate.
C) It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery.
D) It drops packets randomly from lower priority queues.

Question 69

Refer to the exhibit. Which HTTP JSON response does the Python code output give?

A) 7.0(3)|7(4)
B) 7.61
C) NameError: name 'json' is not defined
D) KeyError: 'kickstart_ver_str'

Question 70

Which two namespaces does the LISP network architecture and protocol use? (Choose two.)

A) TLOC
B) RLOC
C) DNS
D) VTEP
E) EID

Question 71

Refer to the exhibit. SwitchC connects HR and Sales to the Core switch. However, business needs require that no traffic from the Finance VLAN traverse this switch. Which command meets this requirement?

A) SwitchC(config)# vtp pruning vlan 110 SwitchC(config)# vtp pruning vlan 110
B) SwitchC(config)# vtp pruning vtp pruning
C) SwitchC(config)# interface port-channel 1 SwitchC(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan add 210,310 interface port-channel 1 SwitchC(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan add 210,310
D) SwitchC(config)# interface port-channel 1 SwitchC(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 110 switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 110

Question 72

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming the WLC's interfaces are not in the same subnet as the RADIUS server, which interface would the WLC use as the source for all RADIUS-related traffic?

A) the controller management interface
B) the controller virtual interface
C) the interface specified on the WLAN configuration
D) any interface configured on the WLC

Question 73

Which component of the Cisco Cyber Threat Defense solution provides user and flow context analysis?

A) Cisco Firepower and FireSIGHT
B) Cisco Stealthwatch system
C) Advanced Malware Protection
D) Cisco Web Security Appliance

Question 74

Which action is a function of VTEP in VXLAN?

A) tunneling traffic from IPv6 to IPv4 VXLANs
B) allowing encrypted communication on the local VXLAN Ethernet segment
C) encapsulating and de-encapsulating VXLAN Ethernet frames
D) tunneling traffic from IPv4 to IPv6 VXLANs

Question 75

What is the role of the RP in PIM sparse mode?

A) The RP maintains default aging timeouts for all multicast streams requested by the receivers.
B) The RP acts as a control-plane node only and does not receive or forward multicast packets.
C) The RP is the multicast router that is the root of the PIM-SM shared multicast distribution tree.
D) The RP responds to the PIM join messages with the source of a requested multicast group.

Question 76

Which component handles the orchestration plane of the Cisco SD-WAN?

A) vBond
B) vSmart
C) vManage
D) WAN Edge

Question 77

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer reconfigures the port-channel between SW1 and SW2 from an access port to a trunk and immediately notices this error in SW1's log: *Mar 1 09:47:22.245: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: bpduguard error detected on Gi0/0, putting Gi0/0 in err-disable state Which command set resolves this error?

A) SW1(config-if)# interface Gi0/0 SW1(config-if)# no spanning-tree bpdufilter SW1(config-if)# shut SW1(config-if)# no shut SW1(config-if)# interface Gi0/0 no spanning-tree bpdufilter shut no shut
B) SW1(config-if)# no spanning-tree bpduguard enable no spanning-tree bpduguard enable
C) SW1(config-if)# spanning-tree bpduguard enable spanning-tree bpduguard enable
D) SW1(config-if)# interface Gi0/1 interface Gi0/1

Question 78

In a Cisco SD-Access solution, what is the role of a fabric edge node?

A) to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD-Access fabric
B) to connect wired endpoints to the SD-Access fabric
C) to advertise fabric IP address space to external networks
D) to connect the fusion router to the SD-Access fabric

Question 79

A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure. Which design facilitates a migration from a traditional campus design to a programmable fabric design?

A) two-tier
B) Layer 2 access
C) three-tier
D) routed access

Question 80

What is the difference between the enable password and the enable secret password when service password encryption is enabled on an IOS device?

A) The enable secret password is protected via stronger cryptography mechanisms.
B) The enable password cannot be decrypted.
C) The enable password is encrypted with a stronger encryption method.
D) There is no difference and both passwords are encrypted identically.