Deck 5: Information Security Foundation (based on ISO/IEC 27002

Question 1

Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?

A) Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management
B) Change management, capacity management event management, service request management
C) Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and configuration management
D) Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management, request fulfillment

Answer 1

Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management

Question 2

Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a regular basis?

A) The service level management
B) The IT service continuity management
C) The service catalogue management
D) The supplier management

Answer 2

The supplier management

Question 3

Which one of the following includes four stages called Plan, Do, Check and Act?

A) The Deming Cycle
B) The continual service improvement approach
C) The seven-step improvement process
D) The service lifecycle

Answer 3

The Deming Cycle

Question 4

What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?

A) The value of a service
B) Governance
C) Total cost of ownership (TCO)
D) Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Question 5

Within service design, what is the key output handed over to service transition?

A) Measurement, methods and metrics
B) Service design package
C) Service portfolio design
D) Process definitions

Question 6

Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general enquiries from users?

A) Service level management
B) Service portfolio management
C) Request fulfilment
D) Demand management

Question 7

Which of the following would commonly be found in a contract underpinning an IT service?
1) Financial arrangements related to the contract
2) Description of the goods or service provided
3) Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All of the above

Question 8

Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?
1) ITIL is vendor neutral
2) It does not prescribe actions
3) ITIL represents best practice

A) All of the above
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 2 and 3 only

Question 9

Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?

A) IT services and components
B) IT services and business processes
C) Components and business processes
D) IT services, components and business processes

Question 10

Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?

A) Service catalogue management
B) Service asset and configuration management
C) Change management
D) Information security management

Question 11

Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?

A) Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
B) Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
C) Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
D) Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset

Question 12

Which of the following BEST describes partners' in the phrase people, processes, products and partners"?

A) Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors
B) Customers
C) Internal departments
D) The facilities management function

Question 13

What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?

A) Configuration baseline
B) Project baseline
C) Change baseline
D) Asset baseline

Question 14

Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

A) Continual service improvement
B) Change management
C) Service level management
D) Availability management

Question 15

The experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals are examples of which level of understanding within knowledge management?

A) Data
B) Information
C) Knowledge
D) Governance

Question 16

Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?

A) Reduced total cost of ownership
B) Improved quality of service
C) Improved Service alignment with business goals
D) Better balance of technical skills to support live services

Question 17

Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?

A) Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
B) Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
C) Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
D) Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group

Question 18

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?

A) To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B) Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
C) To prevent problems and resulting Incidents from happening
D) To detect security events and make sense of them

Question 19

The consideration of value creation is a principle of which stage of the service lifecycle?

A) Continual service improvement
B) Service strategy
C) Service design
D) Service transition

Question 20

What should a service always deliver to customers?

A) Applications
B) Infrastructure
C) Value
D) Resources

Question 21

Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?

A) A service level agreement (SLA)
B) A request for change (RFC)
C) The service portfolio
D) A service description

Question 22

Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?

A) Standards
B) Technology
C) Academic research
D) Internal experience

Question 23

Consider the following list:
1) Change authority
2) Change manager
3) Change advisory board (CAB) Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?

A) Job descriptions
B) Functions
C) Teams
D) Roles, people or groups

Question 24

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term service management?

A) A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
B) A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purpose
C) The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
D) Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities

Question 25

Which one of the following is an objective of service catalogue management?

A) Negotiating and agreeing service level agreement
B) Negotiating and agreeing operational level agreements
C) Ensuring that the service catalogue is made available to those approved to access it
D) Only ensuring that adequate technical resources are available

Question 26

Which is the correct definition of a customer facing service?

A) One which directly supports the business processes of customers
B) A service that cannot be allowed to fail
C) One which is not covered by a service level agreement
D) A service not directly used by the business

Question 27

Which of the following is the best definition of IT service management?

A) An internal service provider that is embedded within a business unit
B) A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers
C) Technical implementation of supporting IT infrastructure components
D) The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs

Question 28

A process owner is responsible for which of the following?
1) Defining the process strategy
2) Assisting with process design
3) Improving the process
4) Performing all activities involved in a process

A) 2, 3 and 4 only
B) All of the above
C) 1, 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 4 only

Question 29

Which one of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?

A) Definitive media library (DML)
B) Configuration management system (CMS)
C) Statement of requirements (SOR)
D) Standard operating procedures (SOP)

Question 30

Which one of the following is concerned with policy and direction?

A) Capacity management
B) Governance
C) Service design
D) Service level management

Question 31

Which one of the following activities are carried out during the "Where do we want to be?" step of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?

A) Implementing service and process improvements
B) Reviewing measurements and metrics
C) Creating a baseline
D) Defining measurable targets

Question 32

Service design emphasizes the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four Ps" include Partners, People, Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is the additional "P"?

A) Profit
B) Preparation
C) Products
D) Potential

Question 33

Which one of the following would be the MOST useful in helping to define roles and responsibilities in an organizational structure?

A) RACI model
B) Incident model
C) Continual service improvement (CSI) approach
D) The Deming Cycle

Question 34

Who is responsible for ensuring that the request fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented standard?

A) The IT director
B) The process owner
C) The service owner
D) The customer

Question 35

Which of the following is service transition planning and support NOT responsible for?

A) Prioritizing conflicts for service transition resources
B) Coordinating the efforts required to manage multiple simultaneous transitions
C) Maintaining policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processes
D) Detailed planning of the build and test of individual changes

Question 36

Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of service design?

A) The design of the service portfolio, including the service catalogue
B) The design of new or changed services
C) The design of market spaces
D) The design of the technology architectures

Question 37

What are the categories of event described in the ITIL service operation book?

A) Informational, scheduled, normal
B) Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C) Informational, warning, exception
D) Warning, reactive, proactive

Question 38

Hierarchic escalation is BEST described as?

A) Notifying more senior levels of management about an incident
B) Passing an incident to people with a greater level of technical skill
C) Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfaction
D) Failing to meet the incident resolution times specified in a service level agreement

Question 39

Which of the following identify the purpose of business relationship management?
1) To establish and maintain a business relationship between service provider and customer
2) To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet

A) Both of the above
B) 1 only
C) 2 only
D) Neither of the above

Question 40

In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets?

A) Operational level agreement (OLA)
B) Capacity plan
C) Service level agreement (SLA)
D) SLA monitoring chart (SLAM)

Question 41

What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?

A) Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers
B) Reporting intervals should be set by the service provider
C) Reports should be produced weekly
D) Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services

Question 42

With which process is problem management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems?

A) Incident management
B) Service asset and configuration management
C) Capacity management
D) IT service continuity management

Question 43

Which statement about the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is CORRECT?

A) The ECAB considers every high priority request for change (RFC)
B) Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes
C) The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB
D) The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director

Question 44

Which of the following are classed as stakeholders in service management?
1) Customers
2) Users
3) Suppliers

A) All of the above
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 2 and 3 only

Question 45

Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the Service Lifecycle?

A) Service Strategy
B) Continual Service Improvement
C) Service Operation
D) Service Design

Question 46

Which of the following BEST describes a problem?

A) An issue reported by a user
B) The cause of two or more incidents
C) A serious incident which has a critical impact to the business
D) The cause of one or more incidents

Question 47

What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service provider to deliver customer facing services?

A) Business services
B) Component services
C) Supporting services
D) Customer services

Question 48

Which of the following is NOT a recognized example of a service provider type within the ITIL framework?

A) Internal
B) External
C) Service desk
D) Shared services unit

Question 49

The addition, modification or removal of an authorized, planned or supported service or service component and its associated documentation is a definition of what?

A) A change
B) A change model
C) A change request
D) A change advisory board

Question 50

Which of the following statements about standard changes are CORRECT?
1) The approach is pre-authorized
2) The risk is usually low and well understood
3) Details of the change will be recorded
4) Some standard changes will be triggered by the request fulfilment process

A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Question 51

Which process would ensure that utility and warranty requirements are properly addressed in service designs?

A) Availability management
B) Capacity management
C) Design coordination
D) Release management

Question 52

Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

A) Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfilment, and access management
B) Event management, incident management, change management, and access management
C) Incident management, problem management, service desk, request fulfilment, and event management
D) Incident management, service desk, request fulfilment, access management, and event management

Question 53

Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the service lifecycle?
1) Data mining and workflow
2) Measurement and reporting
3) Release and deployment
4) Process design

A) 2, 3 and 4 only
B) 1, 3 and 4 only
C) 1, 2 and 3 only
D) All of the above

Question 54

Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk?
1) Logging details of incidents and service requests
2) Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3) Restoring service
4) Implementing all standard changes

A) All of the above
B) 1, 2 and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 3 and 4 only

Question 55

Where should the following information be stored?
1) The experience of staff
2) Records of user behaviour
3) Supplier's abilities and requirements
4) User skill levels

A) The forward schedule of change
B) The service portfolio
C) A configuration management database (CMDB)
D) The service knowledge management system (SKMS)

Question 56

Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?

A) Demand management
B) Incident management
C) Release and deployment management
D) Request fulfillment

Question 57

What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A) Employers
B) Stakeholders
C) Regulators
D) Accreditors

Question 58

Which function or process would provide staff to monitor events in an operations bridge?

A) Technical management
B) IT operations management
C) Request fulfillment
D) Applications management

Question 59

Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?

A) Do
B) Perform
C) Implement
D) Measure

Question 60

Which one of the following does service metrics measure?

A) Functions
B) Maturity and cost
C) The end-to-end service
D) Infrastructure availability

Question 61

What is the PRIMARY process for strategic communication with the service provider's customers?

A) Service catalogue management
B) Service portfolio management
C) Service desk
D) Business relationship management

Question 62

In which of the following should details of a workaround be documented?

A) The service level agreement (SLA)
B) The problem record
C) The availability management information system
D) The IT service plan

Question 63

Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?
1) Enabling
2) Core
3) Enhancing
4) Computer

A) 1, 3 and 4 only
B) 2, 3 and 4 only
C) 1, 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 2 and 3 only

Question 64

Which of these should a change model include?
1) The steps that should be taken to handle the change
2) Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3) Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4) Complaints procedures

A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) All of the above
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 and 4 only

Question 65

Which of the following would be examined by a major problem review?
1) Things that were done correctly
2) Things that were done incorrectly
3) How to prevent recurrence
4) What could be done better in the future

A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Question 66

Which one of the following activities does application management perform?

A) Defining where the vendor of an application should be located
B) Ensuring that the required functionality is available to achieve the required business outcome
C) Deciding who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D) Agreeing the service levels for the service supported by the application

Question 67

Which one of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in service asset and configuration management?

A) Describes the topography of the hardware
B) Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
C) Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
D) Defines how version numbers should be used in a release

Question 68

What are customers of IT services who work in the same organization as the service provider known as?

A) Strategic customers
B) External customers
C) Valued customers
D) Internal customers

Question 69

Which one of the following is NOT an objective of problem management?

A) Minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented
B) Preventing problems and resulting incidents from happening
C) Eliminating recurring incidents
D) Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible

Question 70

From the perspective of the service provider, what is the person or group who defines or and agrees their service targets known as?

A) User
B) Customer
C) Supplier
D) Administrator

Question 71

Which of the following are sources of best practice?
1) Academic research
2) Internal experience
3) Industry practices

A) All of the above
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 2 and 3 only

Question 72

The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?

A) Before the change is approved
B) Immediately after the change has failed and needs to be backed out
C) After implementation but before the post implementation review
D) After the post implementation review has identified a problem with the change

Question 73

Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities?

A) Only changes that introduce new services
B) It is mandatory that all changes are subject to design coordination activity
C) Only changes to business critical systems
D) Any change that the organization believes could benefit

Question 74

Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?

A) To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management (ITSM) activities
B) To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoided
C) To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
D) To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service

Question 75

Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?

A) To ensure the impact of changes are understood
B) To ensure that changes are recorded and evaluated
C) To ensure that all changes to configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system (CMS)
D) To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users

Question 76

What is a RACI model used for?

A) Performance analysis
B) Recording configuration items
C) Monitoring services
D) Defining roles and responsibilities

Question 77

Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?

A) Knowledge
B) Information
C) Wisdom
D) Data

Question 78

Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transaction stage of the service lifecycle?

A) To ensure that a service managed and operated accordance with constraints specified during design
B) To design and develop capabilities for service management
C) To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services
D) To plan the resources required to manage a release

Question 79

Access management is closely related to which other process?

A) Capacity management only
B) 3rd line support
C) Information security management
D) Change management

Question 80

A known error has been created after diagnosis of a problem was complete but before a workaround has been found. Is this a valid approach?

A) Yes: for information purposes, a known error record can be created at any time it is prudent to do so
B) No: the Known Error should be created before the problem is logged
C) No: a known error record is created when the original incident is raised
D) No: a known error record should be created with the next release of the service